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Psychiatry > 4th Physiology Lecture Exam (Batch 2022) COPY > Flashcards

4th Physiology Lecture Exam (Batch 2022) COPY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. According to Jean Piaget, a schema is a
    a. Building block of intellectual development
    b. Plan to outwit one’s rivals or opponents
    c. Mechanism by which one learns to talk
    d. Process of improving one’s self-esteem
A

a. Building block of intellectual development

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2
Q
  1. Jean Piaget defined assimilation as the process of
    a. Learning how to think
    b. Fitting new objects into old schemas
    c. Remembering old schemas
    d. Changing old schemas to new ones
A

b. Fitting new objects into old schemas

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3
Q

For questions 3 & 4, consider the following.
Ben is a 2-year-old boy who has learned from the books he has rad about dogs, cows, fish, and birds. When he visited his grandmother in the farm he saw a goat for the first time. He joyfully pointed at it and screamed, “Doggie! Doggie!” His mom corrected him by saying “No honey that’s not a doggie, that’s a goat.” Later on, when young Ben went to the farm and saw a goat he excaimed, “Goat! Goat!”
3. What process of thinking did Ben demonstrate when he called the goat a dog?
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Assimilation
d. Accommodation

A

c. Assimilation

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4
Q

For questions 3 & 4, consider the following.
4. What process of thinking did Ben demonstrate when he was able to correctly identify the goat?
a. Insight
b. Adaptation
c. Assimilation
d. Accommodation

A

d. Accommodation

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5
Q
  1. Cheryl is a one-yar-old girl who learns about objects around her by grasping on them and putting them inside her mouth. Piaget called this stage of learning as
    a. Sensorimotor stage
    b. Reflexive symbolic action
    c. Formal operaitons
    d. Pre-operational stage
A

a. Sensorimotor stage

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes object permanence?
    a. An object ceases to exist in the mind of a child when it disappears from sight
    b. An object can only exist in the mind of a child if it is within sight
    c. An object exists in the mind of a child even if it is out of sight
    d. An object can only exist if a child has normal sensorimotor functioning
A

c. An object exists in the mind of a child even if it is out of sight

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7
Q
  1. Object permanence is the considered the first stage of thinking because it
    a. Enables the child to assimilate objects in his/ her schemas
    b. Allows the child to form new concepts in his head
    c. Facilitates the child’s process of language development
    d. Enables the child to hold an idea in his / her head
A

d. Enables the child to hold an idea in his / her head

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8
Q
  1. Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development states that
    a. Immanent justice is the belief that punishment for bad deeds is…
    b. Object permanence is developed during the stage of preoperational thought
    c. Symbolization is the endowing of physical events & objects with psychological attributes
    d. The most important sign that children have proceeded from the stage of preoperational thought to the stage of formal operations in the achievement of conservation & reversibility
A

a. Immanent justice is the belief that punishment for bad deeds is…

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9
Q
  1. According to Piaget, an important process that develops during the stage of concrete operation is the
    a. Ability to reason about reasoning or thinking
    b. Ability to make and follow the rules
    c. Ability to distinguish between the ideal self and the real self
    d. Use of phenomenological casuality as a mode of thinking
A

b. Ability to make and follow the rules

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10
Q
  1. The final stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development is
    a. Formal operations
    b. Sensorimotor
    c. Prepoperational thought
    d. Concrete operations
A

a. Formal operations

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11
Q
  1. The development of object permanence is associated with the
    a. Latency stage
    b. Concrete operations stage
    c. Sensorimotor stage
    d. Formal operations stage
A

c. Sensorimotor stage

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12
Q
  1. Children in Piaget’s stage of preoperational thought characteristically display
    a. Intuitive thinking
    b. Magical thinking
    c. Egocentric thinking
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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13
Q
  1. Nina is a 6-year-old girl. When asked to draw a bird, she comes up with a figure that represents the animal. This ability of Nina is called
    a. Semiotic function
    b. Animistic thinking
    c. Immanent justice
    d. Egocentric thinking
A

a. Semiotic function

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14
Q

For questions 14 & 15, consider the following:
Steve is a 5-year-old boy who is presented with a ball of clay. The clay is later rolled into a long, think sausage shape and Steve is asked which form has more clay. He responds by saying that there is more clay in the sausage-shaped form.

  1. Which stage of cognitive development is Steve at?
    a. Sensorimotor
    b. Preoperational
    c. Concrete operations
    d. Formal operations
A

b. Preoperational

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15
Q

For questions 14 & 15, consider the following:
Steve is a 5-year-old boy who is presented with a ball of clay. The clay is later rolled into a long, think sausage shape and Steve is asked which form has more clay. He responds by saying that there is more clay in the sausage-shaped form.

  1. When Steve reaches the age of 10, he is able to say that both forms contain the same amount of clay. What ability is Steve able to manifest at this stage?
    a. Reversibility
    b. Syllogistic reasoning
    c. Conservation
    d. Animistic thinking
A

c. Conservation

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16
Q
  1. Kevin is a grade schooler. He knows that water can turn into ice and vice-versa. What ability is Kevin demonstrating
    a. Reversibility
    b. Syllogistic reasoning
    c. Conservation
    d. Animistic thinking
A

a. Reversibility

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17
Q
  1. Robert is a 3-year-old boy. One day, his dog scratched his hand while they were playing. He was in terrible pain that he wished his dog would die. Several months later, Robert’s dog died from a heart infection. He believed that his dog’s death was caused by his wish that it would die. What type of thinking is Robert demonstrating?
    a. Immanent justice
    b. Phenomenalistic casualty
    c. Animistic thinking
    d. Object permanence
A

b. Phenomenalistic casualty

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18
Q
  1. Bea is a 2-year-old girl. Whenever her mother disappears from sight, she no longer becomes agitated. This is best explained by Bea’s achievement of
    a. Immanent justice
    b. Phenomenalistic casualty
    c. Animistic thinking
    d. Object permanence
A

d. Object permanence

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19
Q
  1. While running around their living room Mitch, a 5-year-old girl, accidentally trips and hits her forehead on the tabletop. She cries intensely and her mom runs to herrescue. In order to calm her down, Mitch’s mom slaps the tabletop and says, “Bad table, don’t hurt my darling Mitch!” Among children of Mitch’s age group, which type of thinking is this reflective of?
    a. Immanent justice
    b. Phenomenalistic casualty
    c. Animistic thinking
    d. Object permanence
A

c. Animistic thinking

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20
Q
  1. Jim, a 3- year-old boy, is enthusiastically sharing his first visit to the zoo to his teacher. When his teacher asks him when this happened he replies, “When my parents brought me there.” Among children of Jim’s age group, which type of thinking Is this reflective of?
    a. Immanent justice
    b. Phenomenalistic casuality
    c. Egocentricism
    d. Object permanence
A

c. Egocentricism

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21
Q
  1. The founder of the attachment theory is
    a. Mary Ainsworth
    b. Sigmund Freud
    c. Harry Stack Sullivan
    d. John Bowlby
A

d. John Bowlby

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the attachment theory is correct?
    a. There is no empirical evidence for it
    b. The child develops attachment by becoming dependent on its caregiver
    c. The child seeks attachment to a caregiver in order to feel secure
    d. There is no biological basis to it
A

c. The child seeks attachment to a caregiver in order to feel secure

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23
Q
  1. Secure attachment with another person is believed to occur when
    2
    a. Physical closeness is transformed to psychological closeness
    b. Psychological closeness is transformed to physical closeness
    c. There is a biological predisposition for proximity with the caregiver
    d. The caregiver has developed secure attachment of himself/herself
A

a. Physical closeness is transformed to psychological closeness

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following are considered as aspects of secure attachment?
    a. Physical and psychological closeness
    b. Safe haven and secure base
    c. Consistent and predictable caregiver
    d. Safe and secure environment
A

b. Safe haven and secure base

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes a safe haven?
    a. It is the attachment figure who provides a sense of security to the child in distress
    b. It is the attachment figure who has developed secure attachment in childhood
    c. It is the environment that provides physical nourishment to the child in times of hunger
    d. It is the environment that does not pose any physical dangers
A

a. It is the attachment figure who provides a sense of security to the child in distress

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26
Q
  1. This allows the infant to explore its world because of its confidence that the attachment figure can be relied upon if needed.
    a. Secure base
    b. Safe haven
    c. Secure attachment
    d. Safe attachment
A

a. Secure base

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27
Q
  1. Secure base and safe haven are synonymous with
    a. Nurturance and protection
    b. Psycholoical proximity and physical proximity
    c. Love and care
    d. Physical closeness and psychological closeness
A

a. Nurturance and protection

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28
Q
  1. At what age will the child’s attachment style be predicative of their responses to internal and external stimuli in adulthood?
    a. 1 year
    b. 2 years
    c. 5 years
    d. 13 years
A

a. 1 year

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following affects the style of attachment that a person develops?
    a. The child’s temperament
    b. The environment
    c. The caregiver’s attachment pattern
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

30
Q
  1. Which of the following factors affects attachment security?
    a. Parental death
    b. Social support
    c. Family function
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

31
Q
  1. The attachment style of a child of a caregiver whose attachment style is insecure-anxious will most likely be
    a. Secure
    b. Insecure-disorganized
    c. Insecure-ambivalent
    d. Insecure avoidant
A

c. Insecure-ambivalent

32
Q
  1. Which type of attachment style in childhood may most likely lead to psychiatric illness in adulthood?
    a. Secure
    b. Disorganized
    c. Ambivalent
    d. Anxious
A

b. Disorganized

33
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics of a caregiver will most likely contribute to a secure attachment style in a child?
    a. Consistent
    b. Frightening
    c. Disengaged
A

a. Consistent

34
Q
  1. In general population, the most common type of attachment style is
    a. Secure
    b. Avoidant
    c. Ambivalent
    d. Disorganized
A

a. Secure

a. Secure : 65%
b. Avoidant: 20%
c. Ambivalent: 10-15%
d. Disorganized: 10-15%

35
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics of a caregiver will most likely contribute to an anxious attachment style in a child?
    a. Distant
    b. Inconsistent
    c. Sensitive
    d. Frightened
A

a. Distant

36
Q
  1. A child who is severely confused with no strategy to have his/ her needs met by the caregiver is most likely exhibiting what type of attachment style?
    a. Secure
    b. Ambivalent
    c. Disorganized
    d. Avoidant
A

c. Disorganized

37
Q
  1. At which age will the capacity to truly mentalize become established?
    a. 1 to 2 years
    b. 4-6 years
    c. 3-4 years
    d. 8-10 years
A

b. 4-6 years

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about mentalization is NOT CORRECT?
    a. It is the capacity to understand that one’s own and others’ thinking is representational in nature
    b. It is the capacity to understand that one’s own and other’s behavior is motivated by internal states such as thoughts and feelings
    c. Caregivers who do not have the capacity to mentalize are able to tune in to the infant’s subjective mental state
    d. An infant finds himself/ herself in the careiver’s mind and internalizes the caregiver’s representation to form a core psychological self
A

c. Caregivers who do not have the capacity to mentalize are able to tune in to the infant’s subjective mental state

39
Q
  1. Which of the following parts of the brain are believed to be involved in mentalization EXCEPT for the
    a. Medial prefrontal cortex
    b. Hypothalamus
    c. Cerebellum
    d. Posterior-superior temporal sulcus
A

c. Cerebellum

40
Q
  1. A 23-year-old male patient seeks your advice on what he could do to improve on his capacity to interact with people. He tells you that he finds others to be reluctant or scared to get closer with him. He is often worried that his girlfriend does not love him or stay with him. How should this patient work on his problems?
    a. Encourage him to ask about his girlfriend’s needs and wishes rather than anticipating them
    b. Encourage him to cultivate friendships and activities outside of his girlfriend
    c. Encourage him to develop confidence in his natural ability to make his girlfriend feel valued and appreciated through the attention he gives her
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

41
Q
  1. Allport’s principal conern is personality theory as with
    a. The uniqueness of the individual
    b. The heritability of personality traits
    c. Early childhood experience
    d. Unconscious motivation
A

a. The uniqueness of the individual

42
Q
  1. Allport called theories in which peole are seen as being motivated primarily by needs to reduce tension and to return to a state of equilibrium
    a. Proactive theories
    b. Reactive theories
    c. Retroactive theories
    d. Eclectic theories
A

b. Reactive theories

43
Q
  1. Allport’s notion that people are capable of consciously acting upon their environment in new and innovative ways that permit psychological growth is illustrated by
    a. Proactive behavior
    b. Neurotic behavior
    c. Reactive behavior
    d. Non-scientific
A

a. Proactive behavior

44
Q
  1. Allport favored a view of personality that regards behavior as
    a. Proactive
    b. Homeostatic
    c. Reactive
    d. Non-scientific
A

a. Proactive

45
Q
  1. Allport places personal disposition on a continuum from
    a. Central to peripheral
    b. Determined to undetermined
    c. Conscious to unconscious
    d. Developed to undeveloped
A

a. Central to peripheral

46
Q
  1. According to Allport, personal dispositions that are so dominating in one’s life that they cannot be hidden are called
    a. Central traits
    b. Primary traits
    c. Cardinal traits
    d. Learned traits
A

c. Cardinal traits

47
Q
  1. Most people who knew Allport described him as reserved, prim, and orderly. Allport would say these descriptions are in terms of ___ dispositions
    a. Cardinal
    b. Secondary
    c. Central
    d. Peripheral
A

c. Central

48
Q
  1. Personal dispositions that are not central personality, yet occur with some regularity and are responsible for much of one’s specific behaviros, are what Allport termed as _______ dispositions
    a. Common
    b. Reactive
    c. Cardinal
    d. Secondary
A

d. Secondary

49
Q
  1. Allport believed that people are motivated primarily by the need
    a. For self-actualization
    b. For sex and aggression
    c. To adjust and grow
    d. To gain superiority over others
A

c. To adjust and grow

50
Q
  1. Which of these would NOT be characteristic of the mature, healthy personality, according to Allport?
    a. Warm relating of self to others
    b. Unifying philosophy of life
    c. Insight and humor
    d. Self-centeredness
A

d. Self-centeredness

51
Q
  1. Catell’s principal concern in personality theory was with
    a. Factor analysis
    b. Unconscious motivation
A

a. Factor analysis

52
Q
  1. Your friends consider you as consistently decisive and intelligent. According to Catell, these traits of yours are called _____ traits
    a. Surface
    b. Source
    c. Propriate
    d. Cardinal
A

Source

53
Q
  1. You have great talent in painting and dancing. According to Catell, this trait of yours is
    a. Ability
    b. Dynamic
    c. Temperament
    d. Skill
A

a. Ability

54
Q
  1. According to Cattell, traits pertaining to emotions and behavior such as calmness and impulsiveness are categorized as
    a. Ability
    b. Dynamic
    c. Temperament
    d. Skill
A

c. Temperament

55
Q
  1. According to Cattell, the opposite of humility is
    a. Emotionality
    b. Assertiveness
    c. Imaginativeness
    d. Conscientiousness
A

b. Assertiveness

56
Q
  1. Eysenck proposed that there are __ dimensions of personality
    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 5
    d. 16
A

b. 3

57
Q
  1. Which of the following personality dimensions proposed by Eysenck are similar with those proposed by McCrae and Costa?
    a. Extraversion
    b. Agreeableness
    c. Psychoticism
    d. Conscientiousness
A

a. Extraversion

58
Q
  1. Elaine is easily triggered emotionally when she is under stress. Recently she broke up with her boyfriend. She finds herself constantly crying and her family has noticed that she has become very irritable. She would stay in these negative states for a prolonged duration having great difficulty in “snapping out” of them. According to Eysenck, McCrae, and Costa what kind of personality dimension is Elaine manifesting?
    a. Extraversion
    b. Neuroticism
    c. Psychoticism
    d. Openness
A

b. Neuroticism

59
Q
  1. Henry tends to defy authority and he fails to appreciate the importance of confirming to rules and regulations. He has frequently been in conflict with the law for multiple acts of violence and theft. He does not appear to be remorseful of his misdeeds. According to Eysenck, what kind of personality dimension best characterizes Henry?
    a. Conscientiousness
    b. Neuroticism
    c. Extraversion
    d. Psychoticism
A

d. Psychoticism

60
Q
  1. At present, most researchers who study personality traits favour the idea that _____ dominant traits emerge form the statistical techniques used to sift through volumes
    a. 5
    b. 35
    c. 101
    d. 16
A

a. 5

61
Q
  1. Eysenck claimed that extraverted types are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT for
    a. Sociable
    b. Lively
    c. Impulsive
    d. Thoughtful
A

d. Thoughtful

62
Q
  1. According to Eysenck, introverted types are characterized by all of the following traits EXCEPT for
    a. Quiet
    b. Passive
A

c. Optimistic

63
Q
  1. According to Eysenck’s findings, cold, nonconforming, and aggressive personalities tend to score high on
    a. Extraversion
    b. Psychoticism
    c. Introversion
    d. Neuroticism
A

b. Psychoticism

64
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the five trait factors in the Five-Factor model?
    a. Psychoticism
    b. Agreeableness
    c. Conscientiousness
    d. Openness to experience
A

a. Psychoticism

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the five trait factors in the Five-Factor model?
    a. Psychoticism
    b. Agreeableness
    c. Conscientiousness
    d. Openness to experience
A

a. Psychoticism

66
Q
  1. People who consistently seek out different and varied experiences would score high on
    a. Openness to experience
    b. Neuroticism
    c. Extraversion
    d. Conscientiousness
A

a. Openness to experience

67
Q
  1. Individuals who score high on _____ tend to be anxious, temperamental, emotional, and vulnerable to stress-related problems
    a. Psychoticsm
    b. Neuroticism
    c. Conscientiousness
    d. Openness to experience
A

b. Neuroticism

68
Q
  1. Like Eysenck’s model, the Five-Factor model rates _____ as a trait that reflects affectionate, active, fun-loving, and passionate person
    a. Neuroticism
    b. Conscientiousness
    c. Extraversion
    d. Openness to experience
A

c. Extraversion

69
Q
  1. People who score low on openness to experience tend to
    a. Be conventional, down-to-earth, and prefer the familiar
    b. Support traditional values and prefer a fixed lifestyle
    c. Be conservative, lacking in curiosity, and need to closure
    d. Show all of these characteristics in their personalities
A

d. Show all of these characteristics in their personalities

70
Q
  1. People who score in the direction of agreeableness tend to be
    a. Ordered, controlled, and achievement-focused
    b. Good-natured, yielding, generous, and trusting
    c. Anxious, temperamental, and emotionally vulnerable
    d. Even-tempered, self-satisfied, and emotionally hardy
A

b. Good-natured, yielding, generous, and trusting

Psychiatry (12 decks)

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