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Psychiatry > 3rd_Psychiatry_Exam_REAL_Batch_2024 > Flashcards

3rd_Psychiatry_Exam_REAL_Batch_2024 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The first major physiological theory of emotions was independently proposed in 1884 by James and
    A. Cannon
    B. Ekman
    C. Ax
    D. Lange
A

D. Lange

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2
Q
  1. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the feeling of emotion mediated by the cortex & the expression of emotion in the autonomic & somatic nervous systems are
    A. Adaptive processes
    B. Parallel processes
    C. Dependent processes
    D. Causally related
A

B. Parallel processes

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3
Q
  1. The limbic system rings the
    A. Thalamus
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Amygdala
    D. Hypothalamus
A

D. Hypothalamus

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4
Q
  1. Who of the following is well known for his contemporary research on facial expressions? A. Ekman
    B. Lykken
    C. Darwin
    D. Cannon
A

A. Ekman

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of Ekman & Friesen’s primary emotional expressions?
    A. Disgust
    B. Happiness
    C. Lust
    D. Fear
A

C. Lust

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6
Q
  1. The theory that facial expressions can influence emotional experience is called the
    A. Duchenne hypothesis
    B. Facial feedback hypothesis
    C. Ekman hypothesis
    D. Emotion feedback hypothesis
A

B. Facial feedback hypothesis

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7
Q
  1. True expressions that momentarily break through false expressions are called
    A. Flash expressions
    B. Give-away expressions
    C. Insidious expressions
    D. Micro expressions
A

B. Facial feedback hypothesis

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8
Q
  1. Papez attributed emotional to activity in the A. Limbic system
    B. Basal ganglia
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Hippocampus
A

A. Limbic system

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9
Q
  1. Darwin believed that
    A. Opposite messages are often signalled by opposite movements and postures
    B. Expression of emotion evolve in ways that enhance their communicative function and that their original function may be lost
    C. Expressions of emotions evolved from behaviors that indicate what an animal is likely to do next
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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10
Q
  1. According to the James-Lange theory, the A. Experience of emotion is produced by the brain’s perception of the body’s reactions to emotional stimuli
    B. Cortex is not involved in emotion
    C. Autonomic nervous system is not involved in emotion
    D. Experience of emotion triggers the autonomic response to emotional stimuli
A

A. Experience of emotion is produced by the brain’s perception of the body’s reactions to emotional stimuli

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11
Q
  1. “Limbic” means
    A. Emotional structure
    B. Thalamus
    C. Emotion circuit
    D. Border
A

D. Border

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the limbic system?
    A. Mammillary body
    B. Cingulate cortex
    C. Amygdala
    D. Frontal cortex
A

D. Frontal cortex

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13
Q
  1. Papez believed that emotional states were expressed through the direct action of the limbic system on the
    A. Hypothalamus
    B. Hippocampus
    C. Amygdala
    D. Neocortex
A

A. Hypothalamus

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14
Q
  1. The James-Lange theory is that different emotional stimuli induce _____ patterns of autonomic nervous system activity
    A. Different
    B. The same
    C. Similar
    D. Inhibitory
A

A. Different

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15
Q
  1. The Cannon-Bard theory is that different emotional stimuli induce _____ patterns of autonomic nervous system activity
    A. Tangential
    B. Inhibitory
    C. The same D. Different
A

D. Different

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16
Q
  1. The Duchenne smile
    A. Involves the trapezius muscle
    B. Is a deceptive smile
    C. Is a false smile D. Involves the orbicularis oris
A

D. Involves the orbicularis oris

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17
Q
  1. Ken is undergoing a sleep experiment. His blood pressure, heart rate, & respiratory rate start to increase. Some degree of penile erection is also noted in him. Which stage of sleep is he most likely in?
    A. Stages 2 and 3 B. REM sleep
    C. Stages 3 and 4
    D. Stages 1 and 2
A

B. REM sleep

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18
Q
  1. The 8-12 Hz EEG waves that are often associated with relaxed wakefulness are called
    A. Delta waves
    B. K complexes C. Alpha waves
    D. Sleep spindles
A

C. Alpha waves

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19
Q
  1. While she is attached to an electroencephalogram machine, Mikay achieves a state of relaxation as she imagines that she is back in her favourite vacation place. What EEG waves will Mikay’s brain most likely register?
    A. Delta waves
    B. K complexes
    C. Alpha waves
    D. Sleep spindles
A

C. Alpha waves

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20
Q
  1. As we fall asleep
    A. Alpha activity begins
    B. EEG activity suddenly increases
    C. Alpha activity ceases
    D. REM begins
A

A. Alpha activity begins

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21
Q
  1. The first EEG stage of a night’s sleep is
    A. Stage 3
    B. Stage 2
    C. REM D. Stage 1
A

D. Stage 1

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22
Q
  1. Sleep spindles and K complexes are characteristic of A. Stage 2 sleep
    B. Delta sleep
    C. REM sleep
    D. Slow wave sleep
A

A. Stage 2 sleep

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23
Q
  1. Gia is undergoing a sleep experiment. Her EEG currently displays delta waves. Which stage(s) of sleep is she in?
    A. 1 and 2 sleep
    B. REM sleep
    C. 2 and 3 sleep D. 3 and 4 sleep
A

D. 3 and 4 sleep

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24
Q
  1. During the night, each cycle of sleep, from stage 1 to REM, is about
    A. 30 minutes long B. 90 minutes long
    C. 5 minutes long
    D. 60 minutes long
A

B. 90 minutes long

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25
Q
  1. During REM sleep, changes in ANS activity suggest
    A. Total unresponsiveness
    B. Relaxation C. Arousal
    D. Neural inactivity
A

C. Arousal

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26
Q
  1. Theories postulating that sleep permits the body to recover from internal deficits produced by wakefulness are often referred to as A. Recuperation theories
    B. Circadian theories
    C. Zeitgeber theories
    D. Diurnal theories
A

A. Recuperation theories

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cluster of serotonin-producing nuclei that runs in a strip down the midline of the caudal reticular formation?
    A. Locus ceruleus
    B. Substantia nigra
    C. Suprachiasmatic nuclei D. Raphe nuclei
A

D. Raphe nuclei

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28
Q
  1. There is good evidence that the internal circadian clock is located in the A. Suprachiasmatic nuclei
    B. Optic nerves
    C. Basal forebrain
    D. Reticular formation
A

A. Suprachiasmatic nuclei

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29
Q
  1. Melatonin is released by the A. Pineal gland
    B. Hypothalamus
    C. Penile gland
    D. Hippocampus
A

A. Pineal gland

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30
Q
  1. Circadian means
    A. Happening twice a day
    B. Every night C. Lasting about one day
    D. Weekly
A

C. Lasting about one day

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following cases about dreaming is NOT correct?
    A. MJ walks in his sleep; he does this during the NREM phase of his sleep
    B. Ben wets his bed while sleeping and dreams that he is urinating
    C. Karen talks in her sleep; she does this during the NREM phase of her sleep D. Ai reports that she does not dream; she does not experience REM
A

D. Ai reports that she does not dream; she does not experience REM

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32
Q
  1. Who postulated that dreams are representations of our unconscious thoughts and wishes that we repress because they are unacceptable? A. Sigmund Freud
    B. Charles Darwin
    C. Paul Ekman
    D. William Dement
A

A. Sigmund Freud

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33
Q
  1. A 21-year old male perceives herself as female and is sexually attracted to males. Which of the following best describes this person?
    A. Homosexual woman B. Transgender male, gay
    C. Homosexual man
    D. Transgender female, straight
A

B. Transgender male, gay

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34
Q
  1. Claire, a 30-year old woman is not sexually attracted to men but maintains a satisfying sexual relationship with Eunice, a 25-year old female. Eunice is married to Tom, a 40-year old businessman, and enjoys sex with him. Which of the following best describes Claire and Eunice?
    A. Claire is gay transgender female and Eunice is a bisexual transgender female
    B. Claire is lesbian and Eunice is heterosexual
    C. Claire is a straight transgender male and Eunice is promiscuous D. Claire is lesbian and Eunice is bisexual
A

D. Claire is lesbian and Eunice is bisexual

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35
Q
  1. Anthony is a transgender female who is in a sexual relationship with Steven. Steven is married to Connie. Connie, who is sexually attracted only to men, is aware of her husband’s relationship with Anthony. What is Connie’s sexual orientation? A. Heterosexual
    B. Asexual
    C. Homosexual
    D. Bisexual
A

A. Heterosexual

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36
Q
  1. Christian is a male prostitute who engages in sex with Robby, a gay man for money. Christian is married to Ellen and they have three children. He is only sexually attracted to women. What is Christian’s sexual orientation?
    A. Heterosexual
    B. Asexual
    C. Homosexual
    D. Bisexual
A

D. Bisexual

37
Q
  1. Savannah is a transgender female. She dresses in female clothes and wears make-up. She is scheduled for sex change in a couple of months. Which of the following best describes Savannah?
    A. Transsexual
    B. Genderqueer
    C. Super Sereyna D. Crossdresser
A

D. Crossdresser

38
Q
  1. At least how many groups of transgender persons are there?
    A. 8
    B. 6
    C. 2
    D. 4
A

B. 6

39
Q
  1. Some research suggests which area is smaller in homosexual men compared with heterosexual men?
    A. Interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus-4
    B. Interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus-2 C. Interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus-3
    D. Interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus-1
A

C. Interstitial nucleus of the anterior hypothalamus-3

40
Q
  1. Known effects of female sex hormones include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Increased GABA inhibition
    B. Decreased risk for stroke
    C. Increased spine formation
    D. Gene transcription
A

B. Decreased risk for stroke

41
Q
  1. Many of the androgen effects in the brain are triggered by
    A. 5α-Dihydrotestosterone
    B. 17β-Estradiol
    C. Aromatase
    D. α-Fetoprotein
A

B. 17β-Estradiol

42
Q
  1. Female gonadal steroids include all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Testosterone
    B. Estradiole
    C. Progesterone
    D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
A

D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

43
Q
  1. Releasing hormones are released from the
    A. Pituitary gland
    B. Adrenal gland
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Gonads
A

C. Hypothalamus

44
Q
  1. The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary via the
    A. Thyroid gland
    B. Medial forebrain bundle
    C. Adrenal gland
    D. Hypothalamopituitary portal system
A

D. Hypothalamopituitary portal system

45
Q
  1. Vasopressin and oxytocin are synthesized in the
    A. Thyroid gland
    B. Adrenal gland
    C. Thalamus D. Hypothalamus
A

D. Hypothalamus

46
Q
  1. Unlike the posterior pituitary, the anterior pituitary
    A. Is suspended by the pituitary stalk
    B. Has no blood vessels C. Releases hormones
    D. Receives no neural input
A

C. Releases hormones

47
Q
  1. In addition to the testes, which of the following endocrine glands could be said to dangle?
    A. Thyroid gland B. Pituitary gland
    C. Adrenal gland
    D. Pineal gland
A

B. Pituitary gland

48
Q
  1. A tropic hormone is any hormone that
    A. Stimulates or suppresses the release of other hormones
    B. Is released by the pituitary gland
    C. Stimulates or suppresses the release of posterior pituitary hormones
    D. Stimulates or suppresses the release of anterior pituitary hormones
A

A. Stimulates or suppresses the release of other hormones

49
Q
  1. The founder of the attachment theory is A. John Bowlby
    B. Sigmund Freud
    C. Harry Stack Sullivan
    D. Mary Ainsworth
A

A. John Bowlby

50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the attachment theory is correct?
    A. There is no empirical evidence for it
    B. The child seeks attachment to a caregiver in order to feel secure
    C. The child develops attachment by becoming dependent on its caregiver
    D. There is not biological basis to it
A

B. The child seeks attachment to a caregiver in order to feel secure

51
Q
  1. Secure attachment with another person is believed to occur when A. Physical closeness is transformed to psychological closeness
    B. The caregiver has developed secure attachment himself/herself
    C. Psychological closeness is transformed to physical closeness
    D. There is a biological predisposition for proximity with the caregiver
A

A. Physical closeness is transformed to psychological closeness

52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes a safe haven?
    A. It is the environment that does not pose any physical danger B. It it’s the attachment figure who provides a sense of security to the child in times of distress
    C. It is the attachment figure who has developed secure attachment in childhood
    D. It is the environment that provides physical nourishment to the child in times of hunger
A

B. It it’s the attachment figure who provides a sense of security to the child in times of distress

53
Q
  1. This allows the infant to explore its world because of its confidence that the attachment figure can be relied upon if needed
    A. Secure base
    B. Safe haven C. Secure attachment
    D. Safe attachment
A

C. Secure attachment

54
Q
  1. Secure base and safe haven are synonymous with
    A. Psychological proximity and physical proximity
    B. Physical closeness and psychological closeness
    C. Love and care D. Nurturance and protection
A

D. Nurturance and protection

55
Q
  1. At what age will the child’s attachment style be predictive of their responses to internal and external stimuli in adulthood?
    A. 2 yrs old
    B. 1 yr old
    C. 5 yrs old
    D. 13 yrs old
A

A. 2 yrs old

56
Q
  1. Which combination of hormones is believed to trigger maternal behaviour in rates just prior to delivery?
    A. Rising progesterone and falling estradiol
    B. Rising progesterone and rising estradiol
    C. Falling progesterone and falling estradiol
    D. Falling progesterone and rising estradiol
A

A. Rising progesterone and falling estradiol

57
Q
  1. Oxytocin receptors are found in all of the following EXCEPT
    A. Uterus
    B. Optic chiasm C. Paraventricular nucleus
    D. Pre-optic area
A

C. Paraventricular nucleus

58
Q
  1. It is believed that oxytocin enhances social interaction by
    A. Dampening the activity of the amygdala-cingulate circuit
    B. Enhancing the activity of the ventral tegmentum-frontal cortex circuit
    C. Dampening the activity of the ventral tegmentum-frontal cortex circuit
    D. Enhancing the activity of the amygdala-cingulate circuit
A

B. Enhancing the activity of the ventral tegmentum-frontal cortex circuit

59
Q
  1. In women, oxytocin levels is increased in all of the following experiences EXCEPT for
    A. Orgasm
    B. Breastfeeding
    C. Childbirth
    D. Masturbation
A

D. Masturbation

60
Q
  1. John has a new girlfriend, Moi, and he is head-over-heels in love with her. What best explains John’s feelings for Moi?
    A. Increased levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor B. Increased levels of nerve growth factors
    C. Decreased levels of nerve growth factors
    D. Decreased levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor
A

B. Increased levels of nerve growth factors

61
Q
  1. Falling in love may be described as an addiction and an obsession because their experience is regulated by which of the following:
    A. Striatum & amygdala
    B. Hypothalamus & hippocampus
    C. Basal ganglia & cingulate cortex
    D. Ventral tegmentum & caudate nucleus
A

D. Ventral tegmentum & caudate nucleus

62
Q
  1. As a child, Alden was constantly abused both physically and verbally by his parents. Which of the following best applies to him?
    A. Decreased negative feedback of glucocorticoid hormones B. Increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA
    C. Increased positive feedback of glucocorticoid hormones
    D. Decreased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA
A

B. Increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely explanation to why maternal behaviour that is nurturing contributes to offspring’s increased resilience to stress?
    A. Decreased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA at the adenine-thymine site
    B. Increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA at the cytosine-guanine site
    C. Decreased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA at the cytosine-guanine site
    D. Increased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA at the adenine-thymine site
A

C. Decreased methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor DNA at the cytosine-guanine site

64
Q
  1. Enhanced resilience to stress may be attributed to the increased sensitivity of the hypothalamus to negative feedback by glucocorticoids as a result of
    A. Increased glucocorticoid receptors
    B. Decreased glucocorticoids
    C. Decreased glucocorticoid receptors
    D. Increased glucocorticoids
A

???

65
Q
  1. Maternal behaviour may be associated with an increased dopaminergic activity in the
    A. Hypothalamus
    B. Striatum
    C. Infundibulum
    D. Nucleus accumbens
A

D. Nucleus accumbens

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is an evidence of system consolidation?
    A. Mature memories are prevalent in the prefrontal cortex
    B. Cortical layers II and III have less remote memories
    C. More mature memories are dependent on the hippocampus D. Older memories are more active in the neocortex
A

D. Older memories are more active in the neocortex

67
Q
  1. Henry Molaison was impaired with which of the following?
    A. Ability to develop new procedural memories
    B. Ability to build new long-term memories
    C. Ability to retrieve long-term memories
    D. Ability to understand explicit instructions
A

B. Ability to build new long-term memories

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE for anisomycin?
    A. Limits neurogenesis B. Inhibits protein synthesis
    C. Accelerates memory formation
    D. Enhances extinction
A

B. Inhibits protein synthesis

69
Q
  1. Which of the following items does not belong to the group?
    A. DNA – RNA B. Short-term memory
    C. Gene expression
    D. Protein synthesis
A

B. Short-term memory

70
Q
  1. Learning to tie shoes is what kind of memory? A. Implicit
    B. Declarative
    C. Antegrade
    D. Explicit
A

A. Implicit

71
Q
  1. In studies with mice, recent memories were stored in layers _____ of the parietal cortex while remote memories were stored in layers _____ of the parietal cortex.
    A. V – VI; III – IV
    B. V – VI; I – II
    C. III – IV; IV – V
    D. I – II; V – VI
A

???

72
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is involved in converting short-term memory to long-term memory?
    A. Hypothalamus
    B. Amygdala
    C. Hippocampus
    D. Striatum
A

C. Hippocampus

73
Q
  1. All of the following explains why memories of our experiences are cemented in our brains EXCEPT for
    A. Increased branching of dendrites
    B. Increased formation of synapses
    C. Increased branching of axons
    D. Increased formation of dendritic spines
A

D. Increased formation of dendritic spines

74
Q
  1. Several months ago, the train that Rose was riding caught fire and she was trampled on by the stampede. After the incident, she avoided taking the train to work. With the help of her family and friends, she was able to gradually ride the train comfortably again. What process was involved in Rose’s memory of the train accident?
    A. Long-term potentiation
    B. Extinction
    C. Transcription
    D. Consolidation
A

B. Extinction

75
Q
  1. Consolidation of memories involves
    A. Gene expression and protein synthesis
    B. Protein synthesis and neuronal apoptosis
    C. Neuronal apoptosis and gene expression
    D. Gene expression and protein catabolism
A

A. Gene expression and protein synthesis

76
Q
  1. All of the following statements about long-term potentiation are correct EXCEPT for
    A. Increased activity between two glutamate neurons will open the NMDA receptor
    B. Opening the NMDA receptor results in molecular signals to the nucleus including gene expression
    C. A series of rapid signals between two neurons results in a greater stimulus in the post-synaptic neuron when normal activity resumes
    D. Gene expression results in structural changes on the neuron such as formation of spines on the terminal button
A

???

77
Q
  1. Which of the following processes is not considered as part of memory?
    A. Feeling
    B. Retrieval
    C. Encoding
    D. Storing
A

A. Feeling???

78
Q
  1. Rob learned to ride a bike at the age of 6. His first time to ride a bike required what type of memory?
    A. Implicit
    B. Somatic
    C. Non-declarative
    D. Declarative
A

D. Declarative

79
Q
  1. Rob continued to ride the bike since he first learned to use it at age 6. Now, at the age of 24, he is a professional cyclist. What type of memory allows him to use his bike?
    A. Declarative B. Non-declarative
    C. Explicit
    D. Associative
A

B. Non-declarative

80
Q
  1. Marie is assessing her patient’s memory. She gives her patient the names of three objects and asks her to repeat them. What type of memory is Marie testing in her patient?
    A. Short-term
    B. Remote
    C. Long-term D. Immediate
A

D. Immediate

81
Q
  1. Roy is assessing the memory of a 25-year old college student. He asks his patient to tell him who discovered the Philippines and when this event took place? What type of memory is Roy testing?
    A. Implicit
    B. Episodic
    C. Semantic
    D. Non-declarative
A

C. Semantic

82
Q
  1. In Freud’s topographical theory of the mind, this component is largely outside of a person’s awareness but it could be readily brought into awareness.
    A. Id B. Subconscious
    C. Superego
    D. Ego
A

B. Subconscious

83
Q
  1. In his ream, Romy was attacked by a huge rabid dog inside his father’s office. When his therapist asked his associations about his dream. Romy surmised that the dog may have symbolized his punitive and demanding father. Using the topographical theory of the mind as reference, which part contained Romy’s feelings towards his father?
    A. Ego
    B. Conscious C. Preconscious
    D. Ego
A

C. Preconscious

84
Q
  1. Clifford is a 15-month old boy who enjoys biting on his toys. Which part of his body is his erogenous zone? A. Mouth
    B. Anus
    C. Penis
    D. Hands
A

A. Mouth

85
Q
  1. Match the following items with the given options.
    Frank is discharged from a cardiac intensive care unit after suffering from a severe myocardial infarction, but he continus to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day -

Stalin finds his greatest source of relaxation by listening to his favourite music -

Mark loses 50,000 pesos in the casino. He says that he is not upset because “I would have spent the money on something else anyway.” -

Ray is having problems at work. He complains that his boss “is picking on me.” -

Raymond is a married man who finds himself sexually attracted to a friend of his wife’s. He begins acting nasty toward that friend -

A. Denial
B. Reaction formation
C. Rationalization
D. Sublimation
E. Projection

A

Frank is discharged from a cardiac intensive care unit after suffering from a severe myocardial infarction, but he continus to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day - A
Stalin finds his greatest source of relaxation by listening to his favourite music - D
Mark loses 50,000 pesos in the casino. He says that he is not upset because “I would have spent the money on something else anyway.” - C
Ray is having problems at work. He complains that his boss “is picking on me.” - E
Raymond is a married man who finds himself sexually attracted to a friend of his wife’s. He begins acting nasty toward that friend

86
Q
  1. Match the following items with the given options.

Jen is a 40-year old mother who has the compulsion to arrange the clothes of her children according to color and is very intolerant to even the slightest disarrangement of household furniture - B

Joshua is a 10-year old boy who resorts to thumb sucking whenever he is afraid - A

Matthew is a 20-year old student who always gets into arguments with his family and friends because he is constantly careless and messy - B

Kenneth is anxious when he has sex with his wife because he thinks that this act will defile her - C

Regina likes to flirt and seduce men but rejects them when the latter start to become intimate and serious - C

A. Oral fixation
B. Anal fixation
C. Phallic fixation

A

Jen is a 40-year old mother who has the compulsion to arrange the clothes of her children according to color and is very intolerant to even the slightest disarrangement of household furniture - B

Joshua is a 10-year old boy who resorts to thumb sucking whenever he is afraid - A

Matthew is a 20-year old student who always gets into arguments with his family and friends because he is constantly careless and messy - B

Kenneth is anxious when he has sex with his wife because he thinks that this act will defile her - C

Regina likes to flirt and seduce men but rejects them when the latter start to become intimate and serious - C

87
Q
  1. In the structural theory of the mind
    A. The superego’s activities occur unconsciously to a large extent B. The superego controls the delay & the modulation of drive expression
    C. The reality principle & the pleasure principle are aspects of the id
    D. The superego is the executive organ of the psyche
A

B. The superego controls the delay & the modulation of drive expression

88
Q
  1. According to Sigmund Freud’s structural theory of the mind, the psychic apparatus is divided into:
    A. Unconscious, preconscious, & conscious
    B. Projection, introjection, reaction formation
    C. Ego, unconscious, & id D. Id, ego, & superego
A

D. Id, ego, & superego

89
Q
  1. Match the following items with the given options.
    Ideals and morals -
    Sex and aggression -
    Rational -
    A. Ego
    B. Superego
    C. Id
A

Ideals and morals - B
Sex and aggression - C
Rational - A

Psychiatry (12 decks)

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