474 Final Study Guide Flashcards
t/f: thin cows that gain weight after calving have improve conception rates- but they are still not optimal.
true
t/f: MGA is cleared for use in lactating cows, but not in heifers
false
t/f: beef cattle with a BCS of 5, 6, or 7 are considered optimal condition
true
t/f: winter feeding represents the largest portion of the annual nutrient const on cow- calf operations
true
t/f: it is not important to test the mineral content of water on your pasture when designing a nutrient supplementation program
false
t/f: frequency of grazing affects plant vigor
true
t/f: forage availability is a good indicator of forage quality
false
what is the maximum number of days that should elapse from calving to conception to maintain a yearly calving interval?
a. 83
b. 120
c. 94
d. 160
a. 83
it is recommended that dietary fat content not exceed 5 to 6% (on a dry matter basis) in diets for beef cattle because fat can_____.
a. provide excessive energy
b. reduce protein utilization
c. compromise ovarian function
d. compromise fiber digestion
d. compromise fiber digestion
which 2 nutrients are the costliest to provide?
a. energy and protein
b. water and protein
c. minerals and vitamins
d. all are equal
a. energy and protein
using TDN (%), the rule of thumb for meeting energy requirements of cows is 55-60-65. at which stage of gestation is TDN content recommended to be at least 55%?
a. late gestation
b. early lactation
c. mid-gestation
d. the whole gestation period
c. mid-gestation
beef cattle cannot graze on slopes grades greater than ___%
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
d. 40%
growth of cool season (c3) grasses occur in
a. mid-winter
b. early-fall
c. mid-summer
d. none of the above
b. early-fall
which of the following should be considered when designing grazing management plans?
a. season of grazing
b. plant distribution
c. kind and class of animals
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
which situation is worse?
a. over grazing
b. under grazing
c. both a and b are unhealthy
d. neither a or b is unhealthy
c. both a and b are unhealthy
replacement heifers should be bred at ___ months of age, calve at ___ yars of age, and be maintained in the herd for ___ years
15
2
7-8
breeding of replacement heifers at 55% compared to 65% of mature body weight can be; advantageous because _____________
detrimental because ____________
lower feed costs
lack of nutrition could cause loss of pregnancy
synchronization drug that keeps animal out of heat
progestrone
synchronization drug that is illegal to use in the US
estrogen
synchronization drug that lyses the corpus luteum
prostaglandin
synchronization drug that induces ovulation/follicle turnover
GnRH
a producer decided to use natural mating for her beef cow herd. what would you recommend in terms of bull:cow ratio for yearling and mature bulls, and why?
mature bulls- 1:30
yearling bulls - 1 cow per month old the bull is .
mature bulls have a larger serving capacity because of more experience.
A producer decided to use natural mating for her beef cow herd. what would you be your recommendation as the ideal BCS for the bulls?
BCS 4-6
A producer decided to use natural mating for her beef cow herd. which 3 things would you ask the producer to include in her breeding soundness exam?
scrotal circumference
semen evaluation
structural correctness
A producer decided to use natural mating for her beef cow herd. which two factors should the producer watch out for that could have an impact on bull fertility?
illness (fever)
lameness
A producer decided to use natural mating for her beef cow herd. which 2 seasons should the producer expect bull fertility to be the poorest, and why?
winter and summer
extreme heat and cold has an impact on semen viability
when deciding on the minerals to use on a cow/calf operation, which form (oxide, sulfate or chelated) would you recommend? five 2 reasons why you would recommend that form.
oxide- because they are cheaper and more available
_____ and ________ are common trace/micro-minerals that are deficient in the northwest region.
selenium and copper
which 3 strategies would you recommend to a rancher who wants to increase pasture dispersion and utilization by his cattle.
placement of water (about 1.3 miles)
placement of supplement
making sure the land is easily accessible/using land that the same cows have been before
t/f: cool season grasses typically contain a low ruminally undegradable protein content, which can result in low performance in rangeland cattle
true
t/f: rest periods during transportation do not improve the health and welfare of feeder calves
false
t/f: there is an energy cost associated with feeding an excessive amount of protein to finishing cattle
true
t/f: besides bunk scoring, good bunk management also takes into account other behaviors exhibited by catle, including agression
true
t/f: cortisol release does not result in immunosuppression
false- cortisol release does result in immunosuppression
t/f: high stress cattle handling results in an increase in dark cutters
true
t/f: ammonia emissins from the pen surface in feedlots are greater in winter than in summer
false
the purpose for feeding supplemental protein to range cows is to feed microbes so that ____ increases
a. digestibility
b. the rumen passage rate
c. intake
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
supplemental protein shold be considred for cattle on range when the protein content of forage is
a. less than 7%
b. 9 to 11%
c. greater than 11%
d. none of the above
a. less than 7%
vitamin __ is supplemented n finishing cattle diets to improve product shelf life.
a. vitamin B
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
c. vitamin E
when feeding finishing cattle using a bunk system, an ideal bunk management score would be
a. 0
b. 1/2 to 1
c. 2-3
d. 3-4
b. 1/2 to 1
___ is the primary processing method for corn fed to feedlot cattle in the US
a. tea flaking
b. rolling
c. cracking
d. grinding
c. cracking
beef from non-fed cattle makes up __% of us beef production
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
c. 20
it is not recommended to sell cull cows during ___ as prices are at their lowest during this time of the year
a. sumer
b. fall
c. winter
d. spring
b. fall
as body fat ____ with advancing maturity, dry matter . intake ___ in feedlot cattle
increases, decreases
- ___ and ___ are 2 types of immunity
cell mediated and humoral
list 1 advantage and 1 disadvantage of procuring weaned calves or yearlings from a live auction compared to a direct purchase from a ranch
adv: you can be more selective with the quality you buy
dis: more potential for disease transmittance
list 2 producers that are carried out during processing of weaned calves or yearlings after they arrive on feedlots
- rest period to acclimate to new environment
2. vaccinations
the inclusion of forage in finishing cattle diets is important in ensuring rumen health. what are 3 challenges associated with feeding hay relative to hrain that results in feedlot producers waling a “tight rope”/feed the least amount they can get away with?
hay is bulky
hay does not mix well
hay is not very energy dense
what is the minimum level of forage that is recommended in finishing cattle diets?
5%
it is recommended to grand hay prior to it being fed to feedlot cattle. what are 2 advantages to grinding hay
cows cant sort through it
more digestability
list 2 digestive disorders that occur as a result of feeding an inadequate amount of physically effective fiber
acidosis
liver abscesses
when managing a feedlot, what is the major objective of good feed bunk management?
minimize feed spoilage
maximize feed intake
what are the 2 agencies that regulate CAFO’s in Idaho? which of those 2 agencies is responsible for air and water quality ?
EPA and ISDA
EPA responsible for air and water quality
list 2 key records that have to be maintained as part of a comprehensive nutrient mangement plan on CAFO’s
Amount of manure and effluent leaving a facility
Application rates of manure and effluent to fields
What are the air and water quality issues related to protein nutrition in feedlot cattle? Briefly describe how dietary protein could end up being an environmental pollutant. Your answer should include what happens to the dietary protein in the rumen, how that N ends up excreted, and the subsequent transformations following excretion that cause air and water pollution.
Urea is ingested. microbes use/digest a portion of it. whats left over goes to the liver. the liver sends a portion to the salivary gland and a portion to urine. the urine is excreted. the urea is converted to NH3 and N2O and NO3. NH3 and NO2 go to the air. NO3 leaching into soil and water.
A cow- calf producer who has been in the business for only a year approaches you to ask about what she needs to know/do with regards to managing cull cows. What percent of her herd would you recommend her to cull each year?
20%
A cow- calf producer who has been in the business for only a year approaches you to ask about what she needs to know/do with regards to managing cull cows. Describe 2 key benefits she would have from culling a part of her cow herd.
genetic improvement
increase production by culling low producing cows
A cow- calf producer who has been in the business for only a year approaches you to ask about what she needs to know/do with regards to managing cull cows. Which 2 criteria would you recommend for her to use to identify cows to cull?
Pregnancy rates
dystocia rates
A cow- calf producer who has been in the business for only a year approaches you to ask about what she needs to know/do with regards to managing cull cows. If she decides to feed her cull cows before marketing, which 2 conditions would she need to consider for this to be profitable?
low cost of feed
hight cull cow prices
A cow- calf producer who has been in the business for only a year approaches you to ask about what she needs to know/do with regards to managing cull cows. List 2 marketing strategies she could use to increase revenue from her cull cows.
sell during the off season when cow demand is high
feed them to meet a higher grade choice
Vaccines are a management tool. No vaccine is 100% effective. List 3 of the 6 reasons vaccines may fail to protect an animal discussed in lecture.
malnutrition
animal is incubating disease/ pathogen
stress
Vaccines developed for leptospirosis come in the form of a bacteria. Define a bacterin vaccine.
a suspension of killed or attenuated bacteria for use as a vaccine.
Although cattle producers could use either killed or MLV on their operations, there are a number of differences between the two. List a safety concern when using killed and MLV.
MLV- possibility of mutating back into the virulent form of the pathogen and causing a disease.
Killed- less duration of immunity. Injection site granulomas
Although cattle producers could use either killed or MLV on their operations, there are a number of differences between the two. MLV are considered a more complete way to vaccinate. Why?
MLV don’t require a booster shot, have faster acting immunity and are less expensive.
Although cattle producers could use either killed or MLV on their operations, there are a number of differences between the two. Which of the 2 results in a faster immune response when administered? and why?
MLV- because the immune system recognized the live foreign body faster than a killed one.
Although cattle producers could use either killed or MLV on their operations, there are a number of differences between the two. In general, in terms of cost, which of the 2 is more expensive to use and why?
Killed- the vx is more expensive to start with and it requires boosters later.
If asked by a producer or a member of the general public, how would you best define beef quality assurance?
BQA provides a systematic approach to insure that consumers receive quality beef that is safe for consumption.
Based on results from the National Beef Quality Audit, there was a 10% increase in liver condemnations in 2016 compared to 2011 in the US. What is the major condition that results in livers being condemned?
liver abscesses
Describe in detail how this condition or digestive disorder occurs. (liver abscess)
Prolonged acidosis generated an over propagation of certain microbes. due to the acidosis the wall of the rumen is expanded so then the microbes travel to the liver via the circulatory system. Once in the liver the bacteria continues to grow and damage the tissue of the liver, resulting in an abscess.
which 2 strategies would you recommend to a feedlot producer to reduce the incidences of this condition? (liver abscess)
increase roughage particle size
transition rations slowly
Besides liver, tongue, heart, and head condemnations, which other 3 conditions were identified in 2016 as contributors to lost opportunities/ loss of revenue from cows and bulls?
Injection site wounds
foreign bodies found in muscles (bird shot)
large branding scars across ribs
Name a feed additive used for feedlot cattle, it’s mode of action, and effects on production performance.
Ionophores
Monensin
Increase propionic acid and decrease ch4 production in rumen
Modify intake, adg, and amp; FE
3 key functions of a successful immune response
Recognition
Activation
Effect
goal of beef cattle growth
To increase productivity while maintaining or improving
end product quality
factors to consider with beef cattle growth
Rate of growth
Extent of growth
Composition of growth/gain
Efficiency of growth
growth vs. development
growth: Increase in size or mass of structural tissues and organs • Bone • Skeletal muscle • Adipose tissue development: Change in form NOT dependent on growth or growth rate • Gradual progression from less to more complex • Can affect composition, structure, and function
a runt will always be a runt
fetal programing effects on postnatal growth
during primary and secondary myogenesis in the embryonic stage, if nutrients are restricted…
it will decrease muscle fiber number and muscle mass in offspring
during muscle fiber hypertrophy in the fetal stage, if nutrient are restricted…
it reduced muscle fiber hypertrophy (increase in volume of organ to do increase size of cells)
during adipogenesis in the fetal stage, if nutrients are restricted…
reduces adipogenesis (pre-adipocytes become adipocytes) which decreases marbling in offspring
the greatest proportion of bone growth and development occurs _____ muscle
before
muscle accretion generally occurs…
before extensive fat deposit
recruitment of new fat cells (hyperplasia) can occur ________
throughout life
phases of fattening
hyperplasia (recruitment of new fat cells) followed by hypertrophy (increase in cell size)
In livestock, _______appears to make a greater
contribution to adipose tissue mass vs ________.
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
hyperplasia makes a relatively greater contribution to _______
intramuscular fat
In livestock, hypertrophy appears to make a greater
contribution to adipose tissue mass vs hyperplasia
choice
the critical period for marbling in calves is
200-250 days
t/f: less energy is required for an animal to put on body protein than body fat
true
t/f: despite the great degree of muscling, beef from double muscling cattle tends to be more tender than other breeds
true
quality grades of cattle over 30 months old is determined by
maturity and marbling
yield grade
estimates the yield of boneless, closely trimmed retail cuts from the round, loin, rib and chuck
quality grades
predict palatability such as tenderness, juciness and flavor of the product
compensatory growth
accelerated growth following a period of slowed development usually from nutrient deprivation
key benefits of the use of growth promoters on a feedlot
- increase availability of nutrient dense food at an affordable price, which could help the world hunger issue
- improve feed efficiency so it takes less food for them to gain muscle, which is beneficial for the rising population and decreased farm ground
- increase lean to fat ratio, consumers may see less fat as healthier and sales would increase because of the recent increase in health concerns
potential impact of using implants in cattle on flavor and juciness
negatively affect the rate of fat deposition so marbling in these cows would be less, negatively effecting flavor and juiciness
when evaluating carcass value, what are 2 factors that could result in non conformity discounts
dark cutters and bruises.
discount applied because of the appearance to the customer and lack of uniformity
how does prenatal nutrition affect beef quality
fetal programing from good nutrition while still in-utero has affect on the neonates ability to take in and utilize nutrients for better beef quality throughout their life
how does docility affect beef quality
an animal lacking docility will be more stressed, leading to dark cutters. also more likely to get bruises affecting the meat quality
how does season affect beef quality
stress of bad weather causes dark cutters
adipose tissue order of development
Mesenteric Perirenal Subcutaneous intermuscular = seam fat Intramuscular = interfascicular = marbling
classes of growth regulators: metabolism modifiers
improve rate of gain and feed efficiency
redirect nutrients to modify body composition
anabolic steroids, beta adrenergic agonist
classes of growth regulators: others
improve rare and efficiency of gain
antibiotics, antiparasitic compounds, ionophores
FDA approved compounds for growth regulation in cattle
estradiol, progesterone, testosterone, zeranol, optaflex, zilmax, melengestrol acetate, trenbolone acetate
classification of steroidal implants
estrogenic (female hormone)
androgenic (male hormone)
progestins (pregnancy hormone)
t/f: steroidal implants are not approved for growth purposes in dairy cows, veal calves, hogs, or poultry
true
common implanting errors
crushing or bunched pellets
missing pellets
cartilage embedment- no absorption
infections, abscesses, or expelled implants
estrogenic implants increase ______ and insulin like growth factor- these hormones stimulate muscle and bone growth
somatotropin
androgens increase muscle IGF-1 and stimulate muscle protein accumulation. examples of androgens are ________-
testosterone and trenbolone acetate
progestins improve _________
feed utilization
always acceptable to implant a calf ___________
4-6 weeks pre-weaning or 2-3 weeks post weaning
cows on adequate forage can be implanted _________
60-150 days old
