4.2.2 BIOPSYCHOLOGY Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

define the nervous system

A

a specialised network of cells
the primary internal communication system
based on electrical and chemical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the two main functions of the nervous system

A

• to collect, process and respond to information in the environment
• to coordinate the working of different organs and cells in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the two main components of the nervous system

A

central nervous system
peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the two main components of the peripheral nervous system

A

autonomic nervous system
somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two components of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the central nervous system made up of and what are the functions

A

• the brain
centre of all conscious awareness
divided into two hemispheres
• the spinal cord
passes messages to and from the brain
responsible for reflex actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the function of the peripheral nervous system

A

transmits messages via millions of neurons to and from the cns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the functions of the autonomic nervous system

A

• vital functions in the body such as breathing, heart rate, digestion, sexual arousal and stress
• divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system

A

• muscle movement and receives information from sensory receptors
• controls voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the endocrine system

A

• networks of glands around the body
• works alongside the nervous system to control vital functions in the body
• acts more slowly than the nervous system but has widespread, powerful effects
• glands release hormones into the bloodstream
• affect any cell with a receptor for that hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

outline the flight or fight response from start to finish

A

stressor is perceived, hypothalamus activates pituitary gland, ans changes to sympathetic state, adrenaline released from the adrenal medulla, fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the biological changes associated with the sympathetic nervous system

A

slows digestion, inhibits saliva, increases heart rate, stimulates glucose production, stimulates urination, dilates pupils, dilates bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the biological changes associated with the parasympathetic nervous system

A

increases digestion, increases saliva production, decreases heart rate, stimulates bile, inhibits urination, constricts pupils, constricts bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a neuron

A

basic building blocks of the nervous system and are nervous cells that process and transmit messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the different types of neuron

A

sensory, relay, motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the function of a sensory neuron

A

carries messages from peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the function of a relay neuron

A

connects sensory neurons to the motor or other relay neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the function of a motor neuron

A

connects the central nervous system to the effectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name the parts of a neuron

A

dendrites, nucleus, cell body, axon, schwanns cells, myelin sheath, node of ranvier, axon terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the process of electrical transmission

A

when a neuron is in resting state the inside of the cell is negatively charged, when a neuron is activated by a stimulus the inside becomes positively charged for a split second which creates an electrical impulse that travels down the axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe the process of synaptic transmission

A

neurons communicate with eachother within groups known as neural networks, neurons are separated by synapses, signals between neurons are transmitted electrically but are transmitted chemically across the synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a neurotransmitter

A

brain chemicals that diffuse across a synapse to the next neuron
direction of travel is one way
has a specific molecular structure
have specific functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define excitation

A

caused by adrenaline
postsynaptic neuron becomes positively charged and is more likely to fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define inhibition

A

caused by serotonin
postsynaptic neuron becomes negatively charged
less likely to fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is summation

A

determines the firing of a neuron
excitatory and inhibitory influences are summed: if the net effect on the postsynaptic neuron is inhibitory then the postsynaptic neuron is less likely to fire. if net effect is excitatory it is more likely to fire once the electrical impulse is created it travels down the neuron. therefore, the action potential of the postsynaptic neuron is only triggered if the sum of the excitatory and inhibitory signals at any one time reaches the threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

define localisation of function

A

different parts of the brain perform different tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define lateralisation

A

some of our physical and physiological functions are controlled or dominated by a particular hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is divided into two hemispheres

A

the cerebrum - the largest part of your brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

define contralateral wiring

A

activity on the left-hand side of your body is controlled by the right hemisphere, whereas activity on the right-hand side of your body is controlled by the left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the cerebral cortex

A

the outer layer of both hemispheres, which is subdivided into four lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

name the four lobes

A

frontal lobe
parietal lobe
occipital lobe
temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

name the two cortex’s

A

motor cortex
sensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the role of the motor area

A

controls voluntary movements in the opposite side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the role of the somatosensory area

A

sensory information, such as from the skin, is represented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the role of the visual area

A

each eye sends information from the right visual field to the left visual cortex and from the left visual field to the right visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the role of the auditory area

A

analyses speech based information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

in which hemisphere are the language centres

A

the left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

name the two language centres

A

brocha’s area
wernicke’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the function of broca’s area

A

responsible for speech function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the consequence of damage to broca’s area

A

broca’s aphasia
symptoms: slow and laborious speech
CASE EXAMPLE - TAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the function of wernicke’s area

A

responsible for speech comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the consequence of damage to wernicke’s area

A

wernicke’s aphasia
symptoms: produce meaningless words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where is broca’s area located

A

the frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

where is wernicke’s area located

A

the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the result of damage to the motor area

A

loss of control over movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the result of damage to the somatosensory area

A

amount of somatosensory area devoted to a particular body part denotes its sensitivity, i.e. receptors for our face and hands occupy over half of the somatosensory are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the result of damage to the visual area

A

damage to the left hemisphere can cause blindness in part of the right visual field of both eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the result of damage to the auditory area

A

may produce partial hearing loss, the more extensive the damage the more extensive the loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where is the somatosensory area located

A

the parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

where is the motor area located

A

the frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

where is the auditory area located

A

the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

where is the visual area located

A

the occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

where is information from the right visual field sent

A

the left visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

outline the role of adrenaline in a fight or flight response

A

brings about the appropriate physiological changes necessary, which could include pupil dilation, increased heart rate and breathing etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

define the term gland

A

an organ that produces hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

give an example of a gland

A

pituitary gland
thyroid
adrenal gland
pineal gland
pancreas
testes
ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define the term hormone

A

a substance which circulates in the blood but only affects target organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

give an example of a hormone

A

ACTH
LH
FSH
thyroxine
cortisol
adrenaline
noradrenaline
melatonin
insulin
testosterone
progesterone
oestrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

why is the nervous system so fast acting

A

both electrical and chemical transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

define the function of the myelin sheath

A

protects the axon and speeds up transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

define the function of a node of ranvier

A

speeds up transmission by forcing the impulse to jump across gaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where does electrical transmission occur

A

within the neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

where does chemical transmission occur

A

between neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

define the function of dendrites

A

receive information from other neurons, called pre-synaptic neurons, or from the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

define the function of the axon

A

carries electrical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

define the function of schwann cells

A

maintaining the peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ao3: describe dougherty et al’s study and findings

A

reported on 44 people with ocd who had undergone cingulotomy
at 32 weeks, 30% had met the success criteria, 14% for partial response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ao3: describe petersen et al’s study

A

used brain scans to demonstrate how wernickes area was active during a listening task and how brocas area was active during a reading task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ao3: describe tulving et al’s study

A

revealed that semantic and episodic memories reside in different parts of the prefrontal cortex using brain scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ao3: describe lashley’s study and findings

A

removed areas of the cortex in rats learning the route through a maze
no area was proven to be more important than any other area in terms of the ability to learn to the route, the process of learning seemed to require all parts of the cortex rather than being confined to a particular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

ao3: describe dick and tremblay’s findings

A

found that only 2% of modern researchers truly believe that language is strictly controlled by wernicke’s and broca’s areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

define hemispheric lateralisation

A

the idea that the two hemispheres are functionally different and certain mental processes and behaviours are mainly controlled by a certain hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

give an example of a process which is lateralised

A

language
facial recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

give an example of a process which is contralaterally wired

A

the motor area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

define ipsilateral wiring

A

situated or appearing on or affecting the same side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

how is vision wired in the brain

A

both contralateral and ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

describe how vision is wired in the brain

A

the LVF of both eyes is connected to the RH and the RVF of both eyes is connected to the LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what happens in a split brain operation

A

involves severing the connection between the RH and the LH, mainly the corpus callosum
this is a surgical procedure to reduce epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

outline sperry’s procedure

A

11 split-brain individuals
image or word presented to their RVF or LVF
asked to respond to stimulus - either verbally or with left or right hand

80
Q

outline sperry’s findings

A

when an image/word was presented to the participant’s RVF, the participant could describe what was seen, but they could not do this if the image/word was presented to their LVF
although participants could not give verbal labels to images projected to the LVF, they could select a matching object using their left hand

81
Q

which part of the brain is severed in split-brain patients

A

the corpus callosum

82
Q

if an image of a cat was projected to the LVF and an image of a dog was projected to the RVF, which would the split-brain participant describe

A

the dog

83
Q

ao3: outline fink et al’s study and findings

A

used PET scans to identify which brain areas were active during a visual processing task in ‘normal’ participants
when asked to attend to global elements of an image (such as looking at a picture of a whole forest) regions of the RH were much more active
when required to focus on the finer detail (such as individual trees) the specific areas of the LH tended to dominate

84
Q

ao3: outline neilson et al’s study and findings

A

analysed brain scans from over 1000 people and found that people used certain hemispheres for certain tasks, but there was no evidence of a dominant side, i.e. not artist’s/mathematician’s brain

85
Q

define plasticity

A

the brains tendency to change and adapt as a result of experience and new learning

86
Q

define synaptic pruning

A

as we age, rarely used connections are deleted and frequently used connections are strengthened

87
Q

what age does synaptic formation happen

A

36 weeks gestation until 2 years

88
Q

who conducted plasticity research into london taxi drivers

A

maguire et al

89
Q

outline maguire et al’s research

A

london taxi drivers had significantly more volume of grey matter in their posterior hippocampus than the matched control group
part of the brain associated with spatial and navigational skills
as part of training, taxi drivers must complete ‘the knowledge’
the longer they had been working, the more pronounced the structural difference

90
Q

who conducted plasticity research into medical students

A

draganski et al

91
Q

outline draganski et al’s research

A

conducted brain scans on medical students three months before and after final exams
learning induced changes seemed to have occurred in the posterior hippocampus and the parietal cortex

92
Q

who conducted plasticity research into a video game training group

A

kuhn et al

93
Q

outline kuhn et al’s research

A

compared control group with a video game training group who played super mario for at least 30 minutes a day
significant increase in grey matter in hippocampus and cerebellum

94
Q

what is functional recovery

A

the brains ability to redistribute or transfer functions usually performed by a damaged area, to other undamaged areas

95
Q

how quickly does functional recovery occur

A

can occur quickly after trauma (spontaneous recovery) and then slow down after weeks or months

96
Q

what happens in the brain during recovery

A

the brain rewires and reorganises itself by forming new synaptic connections
secondary neural pathways are activated

97
Q

what three structural changes in the brain support recovery

A

axonal sprouting
denervation supersensitivity
recruitment of homologous areas

98
Q

what is axonal sprouting

A

growth of new nerve endings which connect with other undamaged nerve cells to form new neural pathways

99
Q

what is denervation supersensitivity

A

axons that do a similar job become aroused to a higher level to compensate for the ones that are lost

100
Q

what is recruitment of homologous areas

A

specific tasks can be carried out by an equivalent part of another hemisphere

101
Q

give an example of recruitment of homologous areas

A

damage to the brocas area would result in the same area of the right hemisphere carrying out its functions

102
Q

ao3: outline bezzola et al’s research

A

demonstrated how 40 hours of golf training produced changes in the neural representations of movement in participants aged 40-60
using fMRI, the researches observed increased motor cortex activity in the novice golfers, suggesting more efficient neural representations after training

103
Q

ao3: outline schneider et al’s research

A

revealed that the more time people with a brain injury had spent in education, the greater their changes of a disability-free recovery
40% of those who achieved DFR had more than 16 years education compared to about 10% of those that had less than 12 years education

104
Q

what does fmri stand for

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

105
Q

what do firm’s detect

A

changes in blood oxygenation and flow which occur as a result of neural activity in parts of the brain

106
Q

how do fmris know which part of the brain is active

A

when a brain area is more active it consumes more oxygen and so blood flow is directed to this area

107
Q

what do fmris show

A

3d images (activation maps) which show parts of the brain involved in mental processes

108
Q

what does eeg stand for

A

electroencephalogram

109
Q

what doe eeg’s measure

A

electrical activity in the brain

110
Q

how do eeg’s measure electrical activity

A

electrodes that are fixed to the scalp using a skull cap

111
Q

what do scan recordings produced from eegs show

A

represents the brainwave patterns generated from actions of the neurons

112
Q

how do clinicians use eegs as a diagnostic tool

A

unusual arrhythmic patterns of activity may indicate neurological abnormalities such as epilepsy or tumours

113
Q

what does erp stand for

A

event related potentials

114
Q

what do erp’s do

A

take raw eeg data to investigate cognitive processing of specific events

115
Q

how do rep’s filter out unrelated brain activity

A

multiple readings are taken and averaged

116
Q

what are post mortems

A

analysis of a persons brain following their death

117
Q

what type of people have post mortem conducted on them

A

individuals with a rare disorder and experienced unusual deficits in mental processing or behaviour during their lifetime

118
Q

what areas of the brain are examined in post mortem and why

A

areas of damage to establish likely cause of the affliction the person experienced

119
Q

what may researchers conducting post mortem do

A

compare the individuals brain with a neurotypical one

120
Q

what are biological rhythms governed by

A

exogenous zeitgebers
endogenous pacemakers

121
Q

what are the three types of biological rhythm

A

circadian
infradian
ultradian

122
Q

what are two examples of circadian rhythms

A

sleep/wake cycle
core body temperature

123
Q

what is the exogenous zeitgeber of the sleep/wake cycle

A

daylight

124
Q

what is the endogenous pacemaker of the sleep/wake cycle

A

internal biological clock (scn)

125
Q

what is our biological clock called

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

126
Q

where is our scn located

A

above the optic chiasm which provides information about light from the eyes

127
Q

roughly when does melatonin production increase

A

8pm

128
Q

roughly when do melatonin levels peak

A

2-4am
the middle of the night

129
Q

roughly when do melatonin levels fall

A

7am or early morning

130
Q

who conducted a cave study into the sleep/wake cycle

A

siffre

131
Q

who conducted a cave study into the sleep/wake cycle

A

siffre

132
Q

outline the procedure of siffre’s study

A

spent extended periods of time in caves deprived of exposure to natural light and sound

133
Q

what did siffre find about his sleep/wake cycle

A

his ‘free-running’ biological rhythm settled down to just beyond 24 hours (around 25 hours) though he did continue to fall asleep and wake up on a regular schedule

134
Q

who conducted research in a ww2 bunker

A

aschoff and wever

135
Q

outline aschoff and wever’s study

A

participants spent 4 weeks in a ww2 bunker deprived of natural light

136
Q

what were the findings of aschoff and wever’s study

A

all but one of the participants (whose s/w cycle extended to 29 hours) displayed a circadian rhythm of 24-25 hours

137
Q

what does research into the sleep/wake cycle suggest

A

suggests that the ‘natural’ s/w cycle may be slightly longer than 24 hours but it is entrained by exogenous zeitgebers

138
Q

who studied the sleep/wake cycle by shortening the participants perception of 24 hours

A

folklard et al

139
Q

outline the procedure of folklard et als study

A

12 participants lived in a cave for 3 weeks, over the course of the study, the researchers secretly and gradually sped up the clock so an apparent 24-hour day only lasted 22 hours

140
Q

what were the findings of folklard et als study

A

only one of the participants was able to comfortably adjust to the new regime.

141
Q

when is core body temp the highest

A

around 6pm

142
Q

when is core body temp the lowest

A

4am

143
Q

ao3: what range of s/w cycles did czeisler et al find

A

13-65

144
Q

ao3: what did duffy et al suggest about s/w cycles

A

some people have a natural preference for going to bed early and rising early (‘larks’) whereas others prefer the opposite (‘owls’)

145
Q

what are infradian rhythms

A

biological rhythms which last longer than 24 hours

146
Q

what are ultradian rhythms

A

biological rhythms which last under 24 hours

147
Q

how long does the menstrual cycle last

A

28 days

148
Q

what happens when levels of oestrogen are high

A

an egg is released

149
Q

roughly which day of the menstrual cycle is an egg released

A

day 14

150
Q

what happens when levels of progesterone are high

A

the lining of the uterus is built up and maintained

151
Q

give examples of infradian rhythms

A

the menstrual cycle
seasonal affective disorder (sad)

152
Q

who studied the role of exogenous factors in a menstrual cycle

A

stern and mcclintock

153
Q

outline stern and mcclintock’s study

A

studied 29 women with a history of irregular periods
samples of pheromones were gathered from 9 of the women at different stages of their menstrual cycles, via a cotton pad placed on
their armpit
the pads were treated, frozen and rubbed on the upper lip of the other participants

154
Q

what were the findings of stern and mcclintocks study

A

68% women experienced changes to their cycle which brought them closer to their ‘odour donor’

155
Q

what does sad stand for

A

seasonal affective disorder

156
Q

what is sad

A

a depressive disorder with a seasonal pattern

157
Q

what time of year do people with sad become depressed and why

A

symptoms are triggered during the winter months when the number of daylight hours becomes shorter
the lack of light in the morning means melatonin is secreted for longer, this has a knock-on effect on the production of serotonin

158
Q

give an example of an ultradian rhythm

A

stages of sleep

159
Q

how many stages of sleep are there and how long do they last

A

5 stages
altogether last 90 minutes

160
Q

how can we differentiate the sleep stages

A

characterised by different brain waves which can be detected by an eeg

161
Q

what brain waves are present in sleep stages 1 and 2

A

alpha waves

162
Q

what brain waves are present in sleep stages 3 and 4

A

delta waves

163
Q

what does rem stand for

A

rapid eye movement

164
Q

what happens during rem sleep

A

Makes sense of information. Makes connections between previously stored and newly stored information, such as the periodic table, beatles lyrics
helps us deal with emotions - sleep therapy through dreaming

165
Q

why is sleep therapy through dreaming so useful

A

some parts of brain (amygdala) are 30% more active than when awake

166
Q

what happens during nrem sleep

A

fact based memory, maintains memories but also salvages those that appeared to be lost the night before
light sleep renews ability to learn new information by clearing the hippocampus
deep sleep allows storage and our ability to recall information
it is also involved in restocking our immune system

167
Q

what stages of sleep are light sleep

A

one and two

168
Q

what stages of sleep are deep sleep

A

three and four

169
Q

ao3: what did penton-voak et al suggest

A

suggested that mate choice varies across the menstrual cycle
women generally prefered feminised male faces (representing kindness) when picking a partner for a long-term relationship.
however, during the ovulation phase women preferred more masculine faces (representing ‘good genes’ to be passed onto offspring)

170
Q

ao3: what did terman find in relation to sad

A

found that the rate of sad is more common in northern countries, where the winter nights are longer, than southern countries

171
Q

ao3: what did sanassi find about light therapy

A

light therapy is effective in reducing the effects of sad in about 80% of people

172
Q

ao3: what did dement and kleitman find about rem sleep

A

monitored the sleep patterns of 9 adults in a sleep lab
brain activity was recorded on an eeg and the researchers controlled ev’s (caffeine, alcohol)
rem activity during sleep was highly correlated with the experience of dreaming
brain activity varied according to how vivid dreams were, and participants woken during dreaming could recall their dream

173
Q

ao3: what did tucker et al find about duration of sleep

A

studied participants over 11 consecutive days and nights and found large differences between participants in terms of duration of each sleep stage, particularly stages 3 and 4
suggested that these differences are likely to be biologically determined

174
Q

what is the scn and where is it located

A

a tiny bundle of nerve cells located in the hypothalamus in each hemisphere of the brain

175
Q

when does the scn receive info

A

continues even when our eyes are closed

176
Q

what does the scn do

A

passes information on day length and light to the pineal gland

177
Q

what does the scn do in relation to melatonin production

A

info about light to the pineal gland, which secretes melatonin when there’s no light

178
Q

who studied the scn in chipmunks

A

decoursey et al

179
Q

what was decoursey et al’s procedure

A

destroyed scn connections in the brains of 30 chipmunks who were then returned to their natural habitats and observed for 80 days

180
Q

what was the findings of decoursey et al’s studies

A

the s/w cycle of the chipmunks disappeared and by the end of the study a significant proportion of them had been killed by predators

181
Q

what did ralph et al do

A

bred ‘mutant’ hamsters with a 20-hour s/w cycle

182
Q

what were the findings of ralph et al’s study

A

when scn cells from the foetal tissue of mutant hamsters were transplanted into the brains of normal hamsters, their cycles also defaulted to 20 hours

183
Q

who studied the scn in hamsters

A

ralph et al

184
Q

what do exogenous zeitgebers do

A

reset our biological clocks through entrainment

185
Q

define entrainment

A

the process of making something have the same pattern or rhythm as something else

186
Q

what is the main exogenous zeitbeger in humans

A

light

187
Q

what key processes does light affect

A

sleep wake cycle
blood circulation
hormone secretion

188
Q

who studied light as an exogenous zeitbeger

A

campbell and murphy

189
Q

what was the procedure of campbell and murphy’s study

A

15 participants woken at various times and a light pad was shone on the back of their knees

190
Q

what did campbell and murphy hypothesise for their study

A

light may be detected by skin receptor sites.

191
Q

what were the findings of campbell and murphy’s study

A

resulted in a deviation in the participants’ usual s/w cycle of up to 3 hours

192
Q

what was the conclusion of campbell and murphy’s study

A

light is a powerful EZ that does not necessarily rely on the eyes to exert an influence

193
Q

what is an effective way of beating jet lag

A

adapting to local times for eating and sleeping (rather than responding to own feelings of hunger and fatigue)

194
Q

when do circadian rhythms begin

A

6 weeks of age

195
Q

when are rhythms entrained

A

16 weeks of age

196
Q

ao3: outline miles et al’s study and findings

A

studied a young man, blind from birth, with a circadian rhythm of 24.9 hours
despite exposure to social cues, his circadian rhythm could not be adjusted and consequently he had to take sedatives and stimulants to keep pace with the 24hr world