3SQ3 Flashcards

1
Q

which is a CB1 receptor agonist?

a. opioids
b. cannabinoids
c. LSD
d. mescaline

A

b. cannabinoids

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2
Q

drug used for treatment of alcoholism and opioid addiction

a. naloxone
b. naltrexone
c. methadone
d. buprenorphine

A

b. naltrexone

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3
Q

partial agonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptor used smoking cessation

a. acamprosate
b. bupropion
c. naloxone
d. varenicline

A

d. varenicline

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4
Q

endogenous cannabinoids

a. 2-arachidonoyl glycerol
b. anandamide
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

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5
Q

non-selective opioid antagonist and partial agonist used for treating addiction

a. baclofen
b. methadone
c. naltrexone
d. rimonabant

A

c. naltrexone

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6
Q

a recalcitrant, chronic, and stubbornly relapsing disease that is very difficult to treat

a. addiction
b. withdrawal
c. relapse
d. dependence

A

a. addiction

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7
Q

compulsive, relapsing drug use despite negative consequences, at times triggered by cravings that occur in response to contextual cues

a. addiction
b. withdrawal
c. relapse
d. dependence

A

a. addiction

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8
Q

antidote for opioid overdose

a. flumazenil
b. naloxone
c. methadone
d. morphine

A

b. naloxone

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9
Q

antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity

a. flumazenil
b. naloxone
c. methadone
d. morphine

A

b. naloxone

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10
Q

clinically used as cough suppressant

a. morphine
b. nalbuphine
c. dextromethorphan
d. naloxone

A

c. dextromethorphan

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11
Q

Kappa agonist and mu agonist

a. buprenorphine
b. nalbuphine
c. tapentadol
d. tramadol

A

b. nalbuphine

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12
Q

this activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei

a. ramelteon
b. suvorexant
c. buspirone
d. flumazenil

A

a. ramelteon

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13
Q

thiopental

a. requires a loading dose
b. partial agonist at 5-HT
c. induction agent for anesthesia
d. binds more selectively to Bz receptors

A

c. induction agent for anesthesia

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14
Q

phenobarbital

a. requires a loading dose
b. partial agonist at 5-HT
c. induction agent for anesthesia
d. binds more selectively to Bz receptors

A

a. requires a loading dose

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15
Q

buspirone

a. requires a loading dose
b. partial agonist at 5-HT
c. induction agent for anesthesia
d. binds more selectively to Bz receptors

A

b. partial agonist at 5-HT

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16
Q

zaleplon

a. requires a loading dose
b. partial agonist at 5-HT
c. induction agent for anesthesia
d. binds more selectively to Bz receptors

A

d. binds more selectively to Bz receptors

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17
Q

facilitates GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening frequency

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepene
c. both
d. neither

A

a. barbiturate

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18
Q

binds to GABA-A receptors

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepene
c. both
d. neither

A

a. barbiturate

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19
Q

oxymorphone

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

b. strong agonist

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20
Q

naltrexone

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

d. antagonist

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21
Q

buprenorphine

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

a. mixed agonist-antagonist

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22
Q

steeper dose response curve

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepene
c. both
d. neither

A

a. barbiturate

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23
Q

morphine

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

b. strong agonist

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24
Q

codeine

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

c. moderate agonist

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25
Q

nalmefene

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

d. antagonist

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26
Q

propoxyphene

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

e. weak agonist

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27
Q

pentazocine

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

a. mixed agonist-antagonist

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28
Q

analgesic mechanism

a. kappa receptor
b. mu receptor
c. delta receptor
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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29
Q

respiratory depressant action

a. kappa receptor
b. mu receptor
c. delta receptor
d. all of the above

A

b. mu receptor

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30
Q

sedative actions

a. kappa receptor
b. mu receptor
c. delta receptor
d. all of the above

A

b. mu receptor

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31
Q

benzodiazepine

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist
b. NMDA receptor agonist
c. Dopamine transporter blocker
d. reverses serotonin transport
e. GABA receptor modulator

A

e. GABA receptor modulator

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32
Q

cocaine

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist
b. NMDA receptor agonist
c. Dopamine transporter blocker
d. reverses serotonin transport
e. GABA receptor modulator

A

c. Dopamine transporter blocker

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33
Q

ecstasy

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist
b. NMDA receptor agonist
c. Dopamine transporter blocker
d. reverses serotonin transport
e. GABA receptor modulator

A

d. reverses serotonin transport

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34
Q

nicotine

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist
b. NMDA receptor agonist
c. Dopamine transporter blocker
d. reverses serotonin transport
e. GABA receptor modulator

A

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist

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35
Q

phenycyclidine

a. acetylcholine receptor agonist
b. NMDA receptor agonist
c. Dopamine transporter blocker
d. reverses serotonin transport
e. GABA receptor modulator

A

b. NMDA receptor agonist

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36
Q

clinically used for moderate pain

a. morphine
b. nalbuphine
c. dextromethorphan
d. naloxone

A

b. nalbuphine

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37
Q

this binds to GABA A receptors

a. nicotine
b. alcohol
c. benzodiazepines
d. phencyclidine

A

c. benzodiazepines

38
Q

this pyrazolopyrimidine is used for sleep disorder

a. benzodiazepine
b. eszopicione
c. zolpidem
d. zaleplon

A

d. zaleplon

39
Q

exogenous cannabinoids

a. THC
b. CBD
c. both
d. neither

40
Q

nonselective opioid antagonist and partial agonist used for treating addiction

a. baclofen
b. methadone
c. naltrexone
d. rimonabant

A

c. naltrexone

41
Q

in substance abuse the old term physical dependence is now known as

a. addiction
b. withdrawal
c. relapse
d. dependence

A

d. dependence

42
Q

which is a serotonin receptor partial agonist

a. opioids
b. cannabinoids
c. LSD
d. mescaline

43
Q

THC analog for now used for treatment of chemotherapy-induced emesis

a. dronabinol
b. nabilone
c. methadone
d. rimonabant

A

b. nabilone

44
Q

methadone

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

b. strong agonist

45
Q

oxycodone

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

c. moderate agonist or b. strong agonist

46
Q

nalbuphine

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

c. moderate agonist

47
Q

naloxone

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

a. mixed agonist-antagonist

48
Q

tramadol

a. mixed agonist-antagonist
b. strong agonist
c. moderate agonist
d. antagonist
e. weak agonist

A

e. weak agonist

49
Q

cocaine

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines

50
Q

ecstasy

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines

51
Q

nicotine

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels

52
Q

phencyclidine

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels

53
Q

affinity to mu receptors

a. endorphins > enkephalins
b. endorphins < enkephalins
c. endorphins = enkephalins

A

a. endorphins > enkephalins

54
Q

affinity to kappa receptors

a. endorphins > enkephalins
b. endorphins < enkephalins
c. endorphins = enkephalins

A

c. endorphins = enkephalins

55
Q

affinity to delta receptors

a. endorphins > enkephalins
b. endorphins < enkephalins
c. endorphins = enkephalins

A

b. endorphins < enkephalins

56
Q

alcohol

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels

57
Q

LSD

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors

58
Q

amphetamine

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines

59
Q

GHB

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors

60
Q

cannabinoids

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors

61
Q

ketamine

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels

62
Q

mescaline

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors

63
Q

buspirone

a. activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei
b. partial serotonin agonist is usec for generalized anxiety states
c. blocks orexins that promote sleep onset and duration
d. blocks its GABA-A receptor binding site

A

b. partial serotonin agonist is usec for generalized anxiety states

64
Q

tasimelteon

a. Activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei
b. partial serotonin agonist is usec for generalized anxiety states
c. blocks orexins that promote sleep onset and duration
d. blocks its GABA-A receptor binding site

A

a. Activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei

65
Q

ramelteon

a. Activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei
b. partial serotonin agonist is usec for generalized anxiety states
c. blocks orexins that promote sleep onset and duration
d. blocks its GABA-A receptor binding site

A

a. Activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei

66
Q

suvorexant

a. Activates the melanin receptors in suprachiasmatic nuclei
b. partial serotonin agonist is usec for generalized anxiety states
c. blocks orexins that promote sleep onset and duration
d. blocks its GABA-A receptor binding site

A

c. blocks orexins that promote sleep onset and duration

67
Q

opioid

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors
b. bind to ionotropic receptors and ion channels
c. bind to transporters of biogenic amines
d. all of the given
e. none of the given

A

a. activate g protein-coupled receptors

68
Q

crosses the placental barrier

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepine
c. both
d. neither

69
Q

has high affinity to GABA-B receptors

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepine
c. both
d. neither

A

d. neither

70
Q

hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme inducer

a. barbiturate
b. benzodiazepine
c. both
d. neither

A

a. barbiturate *

71
Q

clinically used for severe pain

a. morphine
b. nalbuphine
c. dextromethorphan
d. naloxone

A

a. morphine

72
Q

This imidazopyridine is used for sleep disorder

a. benzodiazepine
b. eszopiclone
c. zolpidem
d. zalepion

A

a. benzodiazepine

73
Q

blocks central muscarinic receptors

a. amphetamine
b. GHB
c. Ketamine
d. Psilocybin
e. Scopolamine

A

e. Scopolamine ***

74
Q

blocks DA uptake

a. amphetamine
b. GHB
c. Ketamine
d. Psilocybin
e. Scopolamine

A

a. amphetamine ***

75
Q

disinhibition of DA neurons

a. amphetamine
b. GHB
c. Ketamine
d. Psilocybin
e. Scopolamine

A

b. GHB ***

76
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist

a. amphetamine
b. GHB
c. Ketamine
d. Psilocybin
e. Scopolamine

A

c. Ketamine ***

77
Q

nonaddictive

a. amphetamine
b. GHB
c. Ketamine
d. Psilocybin
e. Scopolamine

A

c. Ketamine or d. Psilocybin ***

78
Q

Mechanism of Action: Nicotine

A

Acetylcholine receptors

79
Q

Has additive effects with ethanol

a. Benzodiazepine
b. Barbiturate
c. both
d. neither

80
Q

antagonized by flumazenil

A

Benzodiazepine

81
Q

exerts a calming effect

a. sedative
b. hypnotic
c. both
d. neither

A

d. neither ***

82
Q

Adverse effect/s with acute use of opioid analagesics

A

Urinary retention

83
Q

Adverse effect/s with acute use of opioid analagesics

A

respiratory depression

84
Q

Clinically used to treat pulmonary edema

85
Q

Function includes sedation

a. mu receptor
b. delta receptor
c. both
d. neither

A

a. mu receptor

86
Q

Function includes modulation of hormones

a. mu receptor
b. delta receptor
c. both
d. neither

87
Q

Quantitative Comparison of Sedative Hypnotic Dose for CNS effect:

a. Anesthesia > Coma
b. Anesthesia < Coma
c. Anesthesia = Coma

A

b. Anesthesia < Coma

88
Q

Delta-9-tetra-hydrocannabinol

89
Q

Most addictive drug in the group

90
Q

Synthetic analog of THC cannabinoid agonist

A

dronabinol

91
Q

Drugs of abuse that acts on G protein-coupled receptors