314 exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

SPICES framework is

A

assessment tool used for older patients

S - sleep disorders
P - Problems eating or feeding
I - Incontinence
C - Confusion
E - Evidence of Falls
S - Skin Breakdown

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2
Q

PQRSTU pain assessment

A

P - provoking factors
Q - Quality / Quantity
R - Region / Radiation
S - Severity
T - Timing
U - Understanding

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3
Q

older client who live at home maintain independence longer if engaged in ________

A

strength and flexibility exercises

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4
Q

pain is considered chronic if it has lasted for ______

A

3 months

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5
Q

cancer pain can either be _____ or ______

A

acute or chronic

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6
Q

examples of somatic pain

A

cuts, headaches, pelvic pain

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7
Q

examples of visceral pain

A

abdominal pain, chest pain, back pain

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8
Q

to best combat dehydration _____ should be drank

A

water

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9
Q

green tea and grapefruit juice will ______ the effects of doxorubicin

A

enhance the side effects

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10
Q

_____ should be avoided for pain control in head injuries

A

opioids

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11
Q

premenopausal women taking tamoxifen are at risk for early _______

A

osteoporosis

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12
Q

hyperkalemia can be seen on an EKG as _______

A

higher peaked T waves

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13
Q

_____ race variations are at higher risk for neutropenia when taking Vincristine (oncovin)

A

Asian

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14
Q

chemotherapy can cause cognitive issues for clients. This is termed ____

A

chemo - brain

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15
Q

NADIR is when

A

blood counts are at their lowest during the chemotherapy treatment period

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16
Q

_______ foods should be avoided when taking mechlorethamine

A

citrus or citric

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17
Q

dastininb may cause an imbalance of ______ and ________

A

phosphorus and calcium

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18
Q

acetaminophen with codeine is commonly called a _____ type of medication

A

combination

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19
Q

legal documents and consents should be signed before giving _______

A

narcotics

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20
Q

when handling chemotherapy drugs you should use _____

A

PPE

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21
Q

chemotherapy medication infiltrates, apply ______ packs for 15-20 minutes at least 4 times per day

A

heat packs

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22
Q

In HPV, ____ is used for girls and _____ is used for boys

A

gardisil, cervarix

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23
Q

vincristine can cause peripheral _______

A

neuropathy

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24
Q

a patient on rituximab should report ______ immediately

A

low grade fever

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25
Q

exposed radioactive devices should be placed into a ______

A

lead container

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26
Q

elderly patients have diminished ______ and ______

A

taste and smell

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27
Q

most common reason for elderly acute onset confusion

A

polypharmacy

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28
Q

most common reason for adverse drug events in older adults

A

polypharmacy

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29
Q

older patients may be ______ history givers

A

poor recollection of history

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30
Q

avoid _______ patients at all cost

A

restraining

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31
Q

for older patients _______ restraints every ________

A

release restraints every 1-2 hours and walk/turn/toilet

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32
Q

check patient every _________ when under restraints

A

30 - 60 minutes

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33
Q

recidivism definition

A

relapse to criminal behavior

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34
Q

______ leads to high readmission rate and reoccurring health co morbidities

A

poorly coordinated care

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35
Q

developmental tasks definition

A

transitions that occur in normal successful adulthood

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36
Q

transitions definition

A

health or illness events that require an individual to make modifications in his or her lifestyle

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37
Q

social age defines

A

what is considered an appropriate behavior in each stage of the life cycle.

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38
Q

______ is the leading cause of disability

A

pain

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39
Q

hierarchy of pain measures in order

A
  1. obtain a self-report
  2. search for potential causes
  3. observe behaviors
  4. obtain information from others
  5. attempt a trial of pain medication
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40
Q

pain assessment in advanced dementia scale - BNFBC

A

breathing -
negative vocalization -
facial expression -
body language -
consolability -

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41
Q

caffeine ______ the effects of acetaminophen

A

enhances absorption and strengthens analgesic effects of acetaminophen

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42
Q

contraceptives ______ the effects of acetaminophen

A

reduce

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43
Q

maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen if prescribed

A

3200 mg per 24 hours if prescribed

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44
Q

maximum daily dosage of ibuprofen if used OTC

A

1200 mg OTC

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45
Q

ibuprofen mechanism of action

A

blocks cox 1 and cox 2 to inhibit prostaglandins

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46
Q

overdose protocol for ibuprofen

A

Time and charcoal lavage

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47
Q

Reye’s syndrome cut off age

A

19 years or younger

48
Q

unique side effect of aspirin

49
Q

NSAID’s cause _____ which result in _____ blood pressure

A

sodium retention which results in increased blood pressure.

50
Q

maximum daily dosages of celecoxib and valdecoxib

A

800 mg per day

51
Q

activation of serotonin receptors in the brain cause ______

A

vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

52
Q

5-HT receptor agonists do what

A

activates serotonin receptors in the brain

53
Q

Sumatriptan mechanism of action

A

5-HT receptor agonists that vasoconstricts cerebral vassals to relieve headaches

54
Q

avoid use of opioids if the patient has ______ or ______

A

head trauma or asthma

55
Q

expected morphine dosage

A

2-10 mg IV

56
Q

maximum dosage of morphine per day

A

30 mg IV maximum per day

57
Q

before administering morphine, make sure that _______

A

legal documents are signed

58
Q

two serious adverse reactions to morphine include

A

respiratory depression and hypotension (shock)

59
Q

_______ indicate morphine overdose

A

pinpoint pupils

60
Q

overdose of meperidine may lead to _______ activity

A

seizure activity

61
Q

meperidine has a ______ than morphine

A

shorter duration of action

62
Q

with hydromorphone injection _______ direct solution injection

63
Q

butorphanol, buprenorphine, and nalbuphine

A

less euphoric than morphine and meperidine, less addictive, used in patients with history of opioid abuse and addiction

64
Q

butorphanol, buprenorphine, and nalbuphine last _____ hours

A

5 hours of duration

65
Q

Dtap is

A

diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine for children 6 weeks to 6 years old

66
Q

Tdap is

A

tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis vaccine for ages 10 and up

67
Q

Directed radiation therapy does what

A

slows and stops cell division at the tumor site

68
Q

Debulking

A

palliative treatment for patients whom the cancer is not reversable (improve quality of life but not cure)

69
Q

Proton beam is direct radiation therapy specifically to the tumor site. What is used to cut it out?

A

gamma knife therapy directly

70
Q

Brachytherapy is ________

A

removal radiation source is in direct contact with the patient so the patient is considered to be radioactive

71
Q

If the source of extraction is external, then the patient is not considered _______

A

radioactive

72
Q

Some effects of radiation take ______ to develop

73
Q

antineoplastic drugs are also referred to as ______

A

carpet bombers

74
Q

Biologic response modifiers (BRM’s) work to

A

boost specific immune response

75
Q

alkylating chemotherapy agents must ______ per day

A

drink 2 liters of fluid per day

76
Q

alkylating chemotherapy agents might cause _______

A

peripheral neuropathy

77
Q

The main alkylating agent of focus is _______

A

Mechlorethamine HCL (Mustargen)

78
Q

Anthracyclines - Doxorubicin toxicity leads to ____

A

cardio toxicity

79
Q

give doxorubicin through ____ lines only

A

large bore intravenous devices such as PICC lines and central lines

80
Q

green tea ______ doxorubicin’s effects

81
Q

St. John’s wort _______ doxorubicin’s effects

82
Q

4 G’s ______ doxorubicin’s effects

83
Q

an expected side effect of doxorubicin is _____ urine

A

pink or red

84
Q

doxorubicin causes high grade neutropenia in _____ patients

85
Q

Antimetabolic drug of focus

A

Fluorouracil (5-FU)

86
Q

Fluorouracil possess high risk for

A

pancytopenia - increased bleeding, increased risk for infection, and anemia

87
Q

pancytopenia trifecta

A

neutropenia
anemia
thrombocytopenia

88
Q

Plant alkaloid drug of focus

A

Vincristine (Oncovin)

89
Q

Vincristine mechanism of action

A

forces cancer cells into apoptosis

90
Q

Fluorouracil (5-FU) mechanism of action

A

stops DNA synthesis of cancer cells

91
Q

Vincristine is known to cause

A

peripheral neuropathy

92
Q

Leucovorin (folate analog) is administered to prevent _____ of vincristine

A

toxic effects

93
Q

Androgens are used for (chemotherapy)

A

used for advanced breast cancer in PRE menopausal women

94
Q

Antiestrogens are used for (chemotherapy)

A

blocking estrogen in estrogen dependent breast cancers

95
Q

SERMS are used for (chemotherapy)

A

similar to anti estrogens but with fewer low estrogen side effects in women

96
Q

Luteinizing hormone uses (chemotherapy)

A

suppresses FSH, and LH from pituitary. In men has the effect of reducing prostate size; in women will decrease ovary size.

97
Q

Aromatase Inhibitors uses (chemotherapy)

A

blocks conversion of testosterone to estrogen -> used for estrogen dependent tumors, commonly used in treatment of breast cancer in POST menopausal women.

98
Q

Tamoxifen may cause _____ and risk of fatty liver disease

A

hepatoxicity and so liver enzymes should be monitored

99
Q

In women, Tamoxifen has been liked to _______

A

endometrial cancer

100
Q

Tamoxifen has been shown to increase risk of _____ in stagnated patients

101
Q

HPV vaccine for girls 9 to 26

A

gardisil 9

102
Q

HPV vaccine for boys 9 to 26

103
Q

Tyrosine Kinases Inhibitors stem -

A

-nib

dasatinib

104
Q

dasatinib mechanism of action

A

blocks atp binding sites to prevent kinase activity

105
Q

kinases (enzymes) are

A

enzymes that carry out phosphorylation in metabolic reactions

106
Q

dasatinib causes (electrolytes)

A

electrolyte imbalances of calcium and phosphorus

107
Q

dasatinib causes (bone)

A

myelosuppression - assess for pancytopenia

108
Q

with all chemotherapy drugs, avoid use of (pharm)

A

proton pump inhibitors and antiacids

109
Q

Imatinib assess for

A

cardiac dysrhythmia

pancytopenia

110
Q

dasatinib assess for

A

cardiac dysrhythmia

pancytopenia

111
Q

bevacizumab (monoclonal antibody) mechanism of action

A

binds to VEGF which is needed for blood vessel growth within the tumor and stops it

same side effect profile as other chemo drugs

112
Q

-mab unique side effect (clotting)

A

may increase INR values if taken with warfarin (vastly increased bleeding)

113
Q

drug with highest risk for tumor lysis syndrome

A

rituximab (monoclonal antibody)

114
Q

Interferons ____ white blood cells to fight cancer

A

stimulates and assists white blood cells to fight cancer

115
Q

type 1 alpha interferons produced by ______

A

leukocytes

116
Q

type 2 beta interferons produced by _____

A

fibroblasts