306 exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Erythrocytes are ______ and shaped ______

A

Non-nucleated and shaped biconcave disk with flexible membrane

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2
Q

RBC’s are not released into the blood until they ______

A

mature

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3
Q

RBC’s lose their nucleus at (time)

A

maturation

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4
Q

RBC’s proliferate in the _______ with nucleus

A

bone marrow

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5
Q

mature RBC’s in the blood do not have a ______

A

nucleus

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6
Q

Polychromasia is

A

There are lots of immature RBC’s in the bloodstream when there should not be.

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7
Q

Polychromasia is a sign that ____

A

Mature RBC’s are being destroyed

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8
Q

The birth of RBC’s is called _____

A

Hematopoiesis

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9
Q

Iron stored in the liver is called __

A

Ferritin

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10
Q

Iron in the blood plasma is called _____

A

Transferrin

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11
Q

RBC’s live for _____

A

120 days

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12
Q

Hemoglobin is broken down into ____ and _____

A

heme and globin

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13
Q

heme is _____

A

the blood protein that binds to iron

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14
Q

globin is ____

A

the blood protein that binds oxygen

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15
Q

____ and _____ are recycled by the ____ when RBC’s die off

A

heme and globin are recycled by the spleen

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16
Q

When RBC’s are destroyed, _____ is recycled and _____ is wasted

A

heme is recycled and reused and globin is wasted

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17
Q

DMT-1 is

A

the major iron transporter enzyme

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18
Q

Transferrin is

A

enzyme responsible for iron metabolism

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19
Q

Hepcidin

A

Liver protein that allows iron to be released into the system

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20
Q

Four most severe signs of Anemia

A
  1. fainting
  2. chest pain
  3. angina
  4. myocardial infarction
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21
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

% of red blood cell mass in 100ml of plasma

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22
Q

MCV stands for ____

A

mean corpuscular volume

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23
Q

MCV (mean corpuscular volume) measures

A

average size of your red blood cells

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24
Q

Microcytic refers to ____

A

Low MCV

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25
Q

Normocytic refers to ____

A

regular MCV

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26
Q

Macrocytic refers to ____

A

high MCV

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27
Q

Four types of anemia’s with Microcytic RBC’s

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassemia
Chronic Anemia
Lead Poisoning

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28
Q

Five types of anemia’s with Normocytic RBC’s

A

acute bleeding
aplastic
hemolytic
low erythropoietin
malignancy

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29
Q

Two types of anemia’s with Macrocytic RBC’s

A

pernicious
low folate

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30
Q

3 main all causes of Anemia

A
  1. Loss
  2. Increased Destruction (Hemolysis)
  3. Deficiency in necessary components to form RBC’s
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31
Q

How long does it take for RBC’s to be replaced after acute severe blood loss?

A

3-4 weeks

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32
Q

Chronic unknown blood loss leads to _______ anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia

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33
Q

Chronic blood loss anemia is asymptomatic until hemoglobin levels reach _____

A

8g/dl or less

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34
Q

Dysfunction of bone marrow stem cells in aplastic anemia effects ______ cells

A

Both cells lines myeloid and lymphoid

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35
Q

Aplastic Anemia is

A

Decreased or impaired production from the bone marrow

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36
Q

Four causes of Aplastic Anemia

A

Chemotherapy and Radiation
Infections such as Mono or Hepatitis
Autoimmune such as SLE or RA
Leukemia’s

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37
Q

Acute chest syndrome is where _____

A

sickle cells occlude blood vessels in heart and lungs

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38
Q

Thalassemia is _____

A

Genetic defect resulting in the body not making enough hemoglobin.

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39
Q

Thalassemia is most common in people from ______ descent.

A

Mediterranean

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40
Q

Red blood cells in Thalassemia are ______ in MCV

A

Microcytic

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41
Q

Red blood cells in Thalassemia are _____ in color

A

Hypochromic (light color)

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42
Q

Red blood cells in Thalassemia ______ in size

A

varies in size

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43
Q

Most common anemia worldwide _____

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

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44
Q

______ does not allow iron to be recycled

A

Chronic bleeding

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45
Q

Iron deficiency RBC’s are ____ in MCV

A

microcytic

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46
Q

Iron deficiency RBC’s are ______ in color

A

Hypochromic (light in color)

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47
Q

Observable signs of Iron deficiency anemia

A

cyanosis
brittle nails
pica
poor wound healing
headache

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48
Q

Pernicious Anemia is ____

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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49
Q

Two main functions of Vitamin B12

A

DNA synthesis
Nuclear Maturation

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50
Q

Intrinsic factor is ___

A

The enzyme in the stomach that absorbs Vitamin B12

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51
Q

Red blood cells produced by Pernicious (B12) anemia are _____

A

Large (macrocytic) and oval shaped

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52
Q

Signs/symtoms of pernicious anemia

A

bleeding gums
impaired sense of smell
parenthesis of extremities
unsteady gait

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53
Q

pernicious anemia is also called ____

A

megaloblastic anemia

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54
Q

polycythemia can be the result of increased erythrocyte production due to _______

A

hypoxia

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55
Q

relative polycythemia is due to ______

A

loss of plasma

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56
Q

absolute polycythemia is due to _____

A

increased number of red cells

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57
Q

2 Red blood cell changes in the Elderly

A

Hemoglobin levels decline with age

cannot replace hemoglobin as quickly in times of stress

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58
Q

official definition for hemostasis or coagulation

A

the arrest of bleeding or circulation of the blood

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59
Q

thrombocyte life span

A

5-10 days

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60
Q

old thrombocytes are removed via _____

A

macrophages in the spleen

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61
Q

thrombopoetin is secreted by the (3 organs)

A

liver, kidneys, spleen

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62
Q

platelets are made from _____

A

megakaryocytes

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63
Q

platelets are stored in the ______

A

spleen

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64
Q

prostacyclin is _____

A

an enzyme released by the endothelium that results in vasodilation just like nitric oxide

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65
Q

adenosine diphosphatase (ADP) prevents _____

A

platelet aggregation

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66
Q

von willebrand factor is ____

A

glycoprotein in endothelium that promotes hemostasis specifically platelet adhesion

67
Q

lactated ringer’s solution contains _____

68
Q

never give lactated ringer’s solution with blood transfusions because ______

A

it contains calcium and calcium causes clotting cascade to happen

69
Q

calcium is factor _______

70
Q

Vitamin K is the building block for making ______ and ______

A

clotting factors and Protein C&S

71
Q

factor responsible for adhesion

A

von willebrand

72
Q

Chronological order of coagulation steps

A
  1. vessel spasm
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. blood coagulation ending with fibrin
  4. clot retraction (pulls clot together tightly)
  5. clot dissolution
73
Q

prostaglandin thromboxane A2 increases vasospasm by ______

A

vasoconstriction

74
Q

Primary hemostasis is the act of ______

A

Forming the platelet plug

75
Q

Two factors responsible for platelet activation

A

ADP - Fibrinogen
Thromboxane A2

76
Q

ADP is a _____

A

Fibrinogen

77
Q

Bilirubin is a breakdown product of

A

hemoglobin in which increased amounts can point to early erythrocyte destruction

78
Q

_____ is needed to make hemoglobin

79
Q

common finding of acquired autoimmune TTP _____

A

mucosal bleeding

80
Q

TTP is

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

81
Q

the result (final step) of both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways is ______

A

activation of factor X, leading to conversion of prothrombin II to thrombin IIa

82
Q

______ does not blanch with pressure

83
Q

von willebrand factor is directly involved in _____ 3 things

A

primary hemostasis
platelet aggregation
platelet adhesion

84
Q

two things needed for the bone marrow to synthesize RBC’s

A

erythropoietin and Iron

85
Q

ADP causes the platelet membrane to become ______

A

rough and stick to bind together easier

86
Q

calcium is released from ____ and serves as a _____ on the surface of the platelet where coagulation factors can bind.

A

released from the platelet, serves as a binding site for coagulation factors

87
Q

thromboxone A2 is made from platelets through thromboxone A synthase, what is the action of thromboxone A2?

A

potent vasoconstriction

88
Q

instrinsic pathway:

A

factors within the blood that activate platelets

89
Q

extrinsic pathway:

A

factors in response to changes in blood vessels like injury or trauma

90
Q

example of an extrinsic response

A

platelets are exposed to collagen and are activated

91
Q

PTT measures the ______

A

Intrinsic pathway

92
Q

PT measures the ______

A

extrinsic pathway

93
Q

Warfarin measures the _____

A

extrinsic pathway

94
Q

heparin measures the ____

A

Intrinsic pathway

95
Q

merging of the two clotting pathways occurs at _____

A

Activation of factor X = Xa

96
Q

what can be triggered directly by snake venom, amniotic fluid, embolism, and acute pancreatitis?

A

merging of the two clotting pathways (intrinsic and extrinsic)

97
Q

three main coagulation inhibitors

A

adequate blood flow
antithrombin III
proteins C and S

98
Q

Adequate blood flow functions to ____

A

clearance of coagulation factors by the liver

99
Q

Antithrombin III functions to ______

A

inactivates thrombin and decreases the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

100
Q

Proteins C and S function to ______

A

vitamin K dependent proteins. they inactivate co-factors Va and VIII.

101
Q

Plasminogen is ______ in the blood and is activated by _____

A

inactive in the blood and is activated by tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)

102
Q

Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) converts ______ to _______ and then ______

A

tpa converts plasminogen to plasmin and they digests the fibrin strand

103
Q

TPA is produced by (3 organs)

A

endothelium, liver, kidney

104
Q

factors that are synthesized from vitamin K

A

II, VII, IX, X

105
Q

antiplatelet medications work on ______

A

canceling out ADP thus stopping platelet aggregation

106
Q

thrombocytopenia is any platelet count below _____

107
Q

highest risk for bleeding when platelets are under _____

108
Q

normal prothrombin time (PT)

A

11-12.5 seconds

109
Q

normal INR time for DVT

A

2-3 for DVT

110
Q

normal INR time for heart valve replacement

111
Q

normal partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

A

30 - 40 seconds

112
Q

normal D dimer

113
Q

virchow’s triad of thrombosis influencers

A
  1. injury to endothelium
  2. alterations in blood flow
  3. hypergoagulability
114
Q

factor V leiden mutation leads to

A

prolonged and uncontrolled clotting increasing the risk of venous thrombosis

115
Q

factor V leiden mutation is linked to

A

pregnancy having abruptio placenta and 3x increase in thromboembolic events

116
Q

factor V leiden is an _______ disorder

A

inherited autosomal dominant

117
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome

A

autoimmune disorder resulting recurrent in arterial and venous thrombosis

118
Q

turbulence refers to

A

disruption of flow through the vessel: platelets contact endothelium

119
Q

stasis refers to:

A

decrease in clearance of clotting factors by the liver and slowed inflow of clotting inhibitors.

120
Q

6 P’s to evaluate arterial insufficiency

A

Pallor
Pulselessness
Paralysis of extremity
Paresthesia of affected extremity
Pain
Pressure

121
Q

older adults have increases in ______ and reductions in ______

A

increased platelet aggregability and decreased fibrinolytic response

122
Q

with anticoagulats: _____ is used acutely and ______ is used chronically for maintenance

A

heparin works faster and is used acutely, warfarin is used chronically for maintenance

123
Q

if anticoagulants are contraindicated: ______ can be placed

A

a greenfield filter can be placed in the inferior vena cava

124
Q

greenfield filter prevents ______

A

traveling emboli from reaching the lungs by trapping them in the vena cava

125
Q

major side effect of thrombolytic therapy

A

hemorrhage

126
Q

contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy

A

internal bleeding
thrombocytopenia
use of anticoagulants
intracranial surgery
CVA
recent seizure
recent MI
recent surgery or trauma
arterial puncture site
lumbar puncture
aneurysm
AV (arteriovenous) malformation
blood pressure above 185/110

127
Q

Risks for increased bleeding

A

liver disease
thrombocytopenia
HIV and other viral infections
Hypersplenism
Clotting factor deficiencies

128
Q

Hemophilia A is a ______ linked disorder

A

X-linked recessive disorder

129
Q

in Hemophiliac patients, avoid _____

A

Aspirin, antiplatelets, and NSAIDS

130
Q

cryoprecipitate (cryo) is

A

the portion of plasma that is rich in factor III

131
Q

von willebrand disease is the most _________

A

most common hereditary bleeding disorder

132
Q

von willebrand disease is ________ trait

A

autosomal dominant and occurs in both males and females

133
Q

in von willebreand disease, factor ____ has _____

A

factor VIII has two separate proteins where von willebrand factor larger than factor VIII protein. Acts as a carrier

134
Q

how to recognize von willebrand disease

A

spontaneous bleeding from mucous membranes and nosebleeds, excessive bleeding from wounds and heavy periods

135
Q

drugs that increases platelet destruction

A

thiazide diuretics, heparin, alcohol

136
Q

biggest risk for heparin induced thrombocytopenia

137
Q

Idiopathic or immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

A

disorder of platelet consumption | IgG destroys platelets

138
Q

How to see ITP

A

petechial rash and bruising 1-4 weeks after and infection was acquired

hemorrhagic bullae of gums, lips, and other mucous membranes

139
Q

ITP can be the result of

A

viral infection

140
Q

bullae are

A

large purulent blisters

141
Q

mainline treatments for ITP

A

corticosteriods, splenectomy, iv immunoglobins

142
Q

Thrombotic thombocytopenia purpura is (TTP)

A

platelet destruction not associated with or caused by the immune system

143
Q

in thrombotic thrombocytopenia pupura (TTP)

A

platelets and fibrin strands build up in smaller vessels and damage platelets and RBC’s flowing by

144
Q

TTP results in

A

thrombi formation, bleeding, and thrombocytopenia

145
Q

cause of TTP

A

mutation in ADAM gene

146
Q

DIC - disseminated intravascular coagulation is ________ a primary disease process

A

not a primary disease process

147
Q

DIC results in

A

thrombosis and hemorrhage at the same time

148
Q

both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways ultimately result in ___

A

thrombin generation

149
Q

DIC is through the ______ pathway

150
Q

_____ can trigger DIC

A

endothelial damage exposing the subendothelial collagen layer

151
Q

in DIC, there is a widespread of _______ deposited into the micro circulation

152
Q

in DIC, hemorrhaging occurs as a result of _____

A

depletion of clotting factors and platelets due to excessive clotting beforehand

153
Q

platelet destruction NOT caused by immune system

154
Q

platelet aggregation is induced by the release of ______

A

thromboxane A2

155
Q

clot dissolution is regulated by ______ and ______ activators

A

thrombin and plasminogen activators

156
Q

thalassemia is where

A

there is anemia and hypoxia resulting from the bone marrow not making enough hemoglobin

157
Q

RBC’s come from

A

proerythroblasts

158
Q

tissue factor is also known as _____ and is released upon ______

A

factor III and is released upon extrinsic tissue damage

159
Q

______ stimulates platelet production

A

thrombopoetin

160
Q

thrombopoetin is made by the ______

161
Q

polycythemia is recognized as _____

A

hematocrit above 50%

162
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand disease

163
Q

parasthesia is _____

A

pins and needles tingling feeling