3.03 General Surgery - Small Bowel Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is angiodysplasia?

A

A vascular abnormality of the gastrointestinal tract, caused by the formation of arteriovenous malformations between previously healthy blood vessels.

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2
Q

Where in the GI tract does angiodysplasia most commonly affect?

A
  • caecum
  • ascending colon
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3
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of:

a) acquired angiodysplasia

b) congenital angiodysplasia

A

a) chronic and intermittent contraction of the colon reduces submucosal venous drainage, giving rise to dilated and tortuous veins. This results in the loss of pre-capillary sphincter competency and forms small arteriovenous communications, characterised by a small tuft of dilated vessels.

b) causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangectasia

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4
Q

What are the clinical features of angiodysplasia?

A
  • rectal bleeding
  • anaemia

In severe cases, acute haemorrhage can occur.

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5
Q

How is angiodysplasia investigated?

A
  • blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, clotting)
  • ODG / colonoscopy to exclude malignancy
  • mesenteric angiography to locate and plan intervention
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6
Q

How is angiodysplasia managed?

A

Endoscopic argon plasma exposure.

Bowel resection if:
- continuation of severe bleeding despite endoscopic management
- severe acute life-threatening GI bleed
- multiple angiodysplastic lesions identified

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7
Q

What are the complications of angiodysplasia?

A

Around 15% of patients will have severe haemorrhage.

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8
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, usually considered infective in origin.

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9
Q

Differences in the length of time between ingestion of food and development of symptoms can often reveal the causative agent.

Give the symptom onset expected if gastroenteritis is of:

a) bacterial toxins cause

b) viral cause

c) bacterial cause

d) parasitic cause

A

a) hours

b) days

c) weeks

d) months

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10
Q

Define:

a) diarrhoea

b) acute diarrhoea

c) chronic diarrhoea

d) dysentery

e) travellers’ diarrhoea

A

a) 3 or more loose stools or stools with increased liquid per day.

b) lasting less than 14 days

c) lasting longer than 14 days

d) gastroenteritis characterised by loose stools with blood and mucus

e) more than 3 loose stools within 24 hours of foreign travel, with or without cramps, nausea, fever, or vomiting.

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11
Q

What are the risk factors for gastroenteritis?

A
  • poor food preparation
  • immunocompromised
  • poor personal hygiene
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12
Q

What are the clinical features of gastroenteritis?

A
  • cramp-like abdominal pain
  • diarrhoea (+/- blood or mucus)
  • vomiting
  • night sweats
  • weight loss

OE dehydration and pyrexia

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13
Q

What specific questions should be asked when taking a history from a patient with diarrhoea?

A
  • bowel movements (blood, mucus, watery)
  • affected friends or family
  • recent travel abroad
  • recent use of antibiotics*

*can suggest potential C. difficile infection

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14
Q

How is gastroenteritis managed?

A
  • rehydration, encouraging oral intake where possible
  • education to prevent future episodes
  • exclusion from work / school until 48hrs from last episode of vomiting or diarrhoea
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15
Q

Give some possible viral causes of gastroenteritis and discuss how they may present.

A
  • Norovirus: most common form of viral gastroenteritis in adults, presenting with abdominal pain, watery diarrhoea and vomiting. Typically resolves within 1-3 days.
  • Rotavirus: results in severe diarrhoea among infants and young children. Typically resolves within 1 week.
  • Adenovirus: common cause of diarrhoea in children.
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16
Q

Give some possible bacterial causes of gastroenteritis and discuss how they may present.

A
  • Campylobacter: a Gram -ve bacillus being the most common cause of food poisoning, presenting with a prodrome of fatigue, fever or myalgia, followed by nausea, abdominal cramps and diarrhoea.
  • E. coli: a Gram -ve bacillus, transmitted through contaminated food. Enterotoxigenic E. coli is the most common cause of Traveller’s diarrhoea.
  • Salmonella: a Gram -ve bacillus, transmitted through undercooked poultry or raw eggs; presents with fever, vomiting, abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhoea.
  • Shigella: a Gram -ve bacillus, acquired from contaminated dairy products and water; presents with fever, abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea.
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17
Q

Give some possible bacterial toxin causes of gastroenteritis and discuss how they may present.

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus: found in meat and dairy products; even re-heating the food does not destroy the exotoxin.
  • Bacillus cereus: usually found in reheated rice; causes rapid-onset vomiting and abdominal cramps.
  • Clostridium perfringes: usually found in reheated meat dishes; causes diarrhoea and less commonly vomiting.
  • Vibrio cholera: usually found in contaminated water supplies; causes profound watery painless diarrhoea.
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18
Q

Give some possible parasitic causes of gastroenteritis and discuss how they may present.

A

Parasites are most common cause of Traveller’s diarrhoea.

  • Cryptosporidium: causes a self-limiting watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps; diagnosis made with stool culture for ova, cysts and parasites.
  • Entamoeba histolytica: anaerobic parasite acquired from faecally-contaminated food or water; presents with bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever. Diagnosis made with stol culture for ova, cysts and parasites. Treated with metronidazole.
  • Giardia intestinalis: transmitted through direct contact or faeco-oral route; causes acute disease (diarrhoea, fever, fatigue, nausea and bloating) or chronic disease (steatorrhoea, malabsorption, weight loss). Diagnosis by stool culture for ova, cysts and parasites. Treated with metronidazole.
  • Schistosoma: acute schistosomiasis develops around a month after infection from contaminated water; presents with fever, malaise, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases can cause chronic liver disease.
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19
Q

What is the main pathogen for hospital acquired gastroenteritis?

A

Chlostridium difficile

A Gram -ve bacillus that develops following the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, disrupting the normal microbiota of the bowel.

20
Q

Describe the virulence factors of C. difficile.

A

Exotoxins A&B produce an immune response from the bowel, resulting in inflammatory exudate on the colonic mucosa. Presents with severe bloody diarrhoea.

21
Q

What are the complications of C. difficile gastroenteritis?

A

Potentially develops into toxic megacolon if not prompty treated with oral metronidazole or vancomycin.

Severely dilated bowel with high risk of perforation.

22
Q

Give some non-infective causes of gastroenteritis.

A
  • radiation therapy
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Ulcerative colitis
23
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

Occurs when abdominal viscera of omentum pass through the femoral ring and into the potential space of the femoral canal.

24
Q

What are the risk factors for femoral hernia?

A
  • female sex
  • pregnancy
  • raised intra-abdominal pressure
  • increasing age
25
Q

What are the clinical features of femoral hernia?

A
  • small lump in groin
  • otherwise asymptomatic*

*due to anatomy of femoral canal, 30% of femoral hernia cases will present as an emergency (obstruction or strangulation).

26
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a lump in the groin?

A
  • inguinal hernia
  • femoral
27
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a lump in the groin?

A
  • inguinal hernia
  • femoral hernia
  • femoral canal lipoma
  • lymph node
  • femoral artery aneurysm
28
Q

How is a femoral hernia investigated?

A

CT abdomen-pelvic will demonstrate a femoral hernia.

29
Q

How is a femoral hernia managed?

A

Surgically managed within 2 weeks of presentation due to high risk of strangulation.

Surgery involves reducing the hernia and then narrowing the femoral ring with sutures or a mesh plug to reduce risk of future femoral herniation.

30
Q

The serious complications of a hernia that require urgent intervention are:

A
  • irreducible / incarcerated
  • obstruction
  • strangulation (ischaemia)
31
Q

What is

a) direct

b) indirect

inguinal herniation?

A

a) bowel enters the inguinal canal through a weakness in the posterior wall of the canal, medial to the inferior epigastric vessels (Hesselbach’s triangle).

b) bowel enters the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring, lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

32
Q

What are the risk factors for inguinal herniation.

A
  • male sex
  • increasing age
  • raised intra-abdominal pressure
  • high BMI
33
Q

What are the clinical features of inguinal herniation?

A
  • lump in groin
  • mild to moderate discomfort
  • worse with activity or standing
34
Q

When examining a hernia, what are the specific features to note?

A
  • cough impulse
  • location
  • reducible on lying down or with gentle pressure
  • if it enters the scrotum, can you get above it / separate from testes?
35
Q

How is inguinal hernia investigated?

A

Imaging only considered in patients if there is diagnostic uncertainty.

Ultrasound first line in outpatient setting. If features of obstruction or strangulation, CT imaging required.

36
Q

How is an inguinal hernia managed?

A

Only offer surgical intervention if symptomatic or strangulated.

Surgical repair via open mesh or laparoscopy.

37
Q

What is the pathophysiology of small intestine adenocarcinoma?

A

Arise from pre-existing adenomas through a sequential accumulation of genetic abnormalities, occurring over several years.

Tumour suppressor gene p53, and oncogene KRAS, linked to small bowel adenocarcinoma.

38
Q

What are the risk factors for small bowel adenocarcinoma?

A
  • increasing age
  • Crohn’s disease
  • coeliac disease
  • smoking
  • obesity
  • low fibre intake
  • high intake of red meat
  • alcohol intake
39
Q

What are the clinical features of small bowel tumours?

A
  • initially asymptomatic
  • abdominal pain
  • vomiting
  • constipation
  • abdominal mass
  • cachexia
  • jaundice
  • hepatomegaly
  • ascites
40
Q

How is small bowel cancer investigated?

A
  • bloods (CEA)
  • upper GI endoscopy and histology
  • MRI enterography
  • endoscopic ultrasound
  • PET-CT to stage
41
Q

How is small bowel tumour managed?

A

Surgical resection with adjuvant chemotherapy.

42
Q

What is a gastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumour (GEP-NET)?

A

Neuroendocrine tumours origination from the neuroendocrine cells in the gastrointestinal tract of pancreas, all of which have malignant potential.

43
Q

What are the risk factors for GEP-NETs?

A
  • female gender
  • family history of NETs
44
Q

What are the general symptoms of GEP-NETs?

A
  • vague abdominal pain
  • nausea and vomiting
  • abdominal distention
  • bowel ibstruction
45
Q

Small bowel functioning GEP-NETs most commonly present with which symptoms?

A

Carcinoid syndrome: oversecretion of serotonin, prostaglandins and gastrin causes symptoms of flushing, palpitations, intermittent abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

46
Q

How are GEP-NETs investigated?

A
  • CgA blood test (raised)
  • pancreatic polypeptide (PP) if CgA normal
  • CT imagine
  • endoscopy with histology
47
Q

How are GEP-NETs managed?

A

Surgical resection of affected bowel.

If liver metastases present, curative liver resection sometimes possible.