2.01 Trauma and Orthopaedics - General Principles Flashcards

1
Q

What is a fracture?

A

A discontinuity of bone resulting from mechanical forces, which exceed the bone’s ability to withstand them.

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2
Q

What is an insufficiency fracture?

Give some disease states that may increase the risk of insufficiency fractures occurring.

A

An insufficiency fracture occurs when a bone fractures as a result of forces that would normally be insufficient to cause a fracture, due to weakening of the skeleton.

Metabolic disorders (e.g. osteoporosis) or genetic abnormalities (e.g. osteogenesis imperfecta) can increase cause weakening of the skeleton.

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3
Q

What are fatigue fractures?

A

Fractures that occur as a result of chronic application of abnormal stresses (e.g. running), which result in the accumulation of microfractures faster than the body can heal.

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4
Q

What are pathological fractures?

A

Fractures that occur in bone weakened by a lesion, for example metastases or bone cysts.

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5
Q

What should be included when describing the location of a fracture?

A
  • which bone is fractures
  • which part of the bone is affected (ie. epiphysis, physis, metaphysis, diaphysis)
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6
Q

What is the difference between a complete and an incomplete fracture?

A

Complete fractures extends all the way across the bone (most common).

Incomplete fractures do not cross the bone completely (more common in children).

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7
Q

What are the 4 types of complete fracture?

A

a) transverse fracture - fracture line that is perpendicular to the axis of the bone.

b) oblique fracture - fracture line that is oblique across the bone.

c) spiral fracture - helical fracture path in the diaphysis of long bones.

d) comminuted fracture - a fracture in more than two parts of the bone.

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8
Q

What are the 3 types of incomplete fracture?

A

a) bowing fracture - the plastic deformity caused by stress beyond the bone’s capacity for elastic recoil.

b) buckle (torus) fracture - a complete minimally impacted fracture with an intact periosteum, occurring at the metaphysis.

c) greenstick fracture - the cortex breaks on one side.

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9
Q

Describe the following types of fracture displacement:

a) fracture translation

b) fracture angulation

c) fracture rotation

d) fracture shortening

A

a) describes the movement of fractured bones away from each other.

b) describes the normal axis of the bone has been altered so the fractures bone points in a different direction.

c) describes where there has been rotation of the distal fracture fragment in relation to the proximal portion.

d) describes the movement of fractures bones towards each other.

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10
Q

Which are the three main phases of fracture healing?

A
  1. Inflammatory phase
  2. Reparative phase
  3. Remodelling phase
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11
Q

Outline what happens during the inflammatory phase of fracture healing.

A

Immediately at the time of the fracture, a haematoma forms within the space between fracture ends, stopping additional bleeding and providing structural and biochemical support for the influx of inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, chondroblasts and the ingrowth of capillaries.

At the end of the inflammatory phase (approx. 1 week), a soft callus has formed.

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12
Q

Outline what happens during the reparative phase of fracture healing.

A

Over the next few weeks, the primary callus is transformed into a bony callus by the activation of osteoprogenitor cells.

The osteoprogenitor cells lay down woven bone, which stabilises the fracture site.

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13
Q

Outline what happens during the remodelling phase of fracture healing.

A

The remodelling phase lasts months to years, representing the gradual formation of compact cortical bone influenced by mechanical stresses placed upon the bone.

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14
Q

Generally, what is the surgical management in traumatic orthopaedic complaints?

A

Reduce - Hold - Rehabilitate

In the context of high-energy injuries, resuscitation following Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) may be needed.

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15
Q

What are the principles of fracture reduction?

A

Reduction involves restoring anatomical alignment of a fracture, allowing for:

  • tamponade of bleeding
  • reduction in traction on surrounding soft tissues, reducing swelling
  • reduction in traction on transversing nerves, reducing risk of neuropraxia
  • reduction of traction on traversing blood vessels, restoring any affected blood supply.
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16
Q

How is fracture reduction typically performed?

A

Reduction is painful and requires analgesia, therefore:

  • where regional or local blockade is sufficient, this is analgesia of choice
  • where this is not sufficient, patient may require a short period of conscious sedation

Specific manouevres can be employed to correct the deforming forces that resulted in injury, typically performed closed in the emergency room. However, some fractures need to be reduced open intra-operatively.

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17
Q

What are the principles of fracture ‘hold’?

A

Hold is the generic term used to describe immobilising a fracture, commonly via simple splints or plaster casts.

The definitive method of holding the fracture might be surgical intervention.

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18
Q

When is traction indicated when immobilising a fracture?

A

Most commonly needed where the muscular pull across the fracture sight is strong and the fracture is inherently unstable, fore example:

  • neck of femur fractures
  • femoral shaft fracture
  • acetabular fracture
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19
Q

When applying plaster cast, what is the most important principles to remember in the following cases:

a) for the first two weeks

b) if there is axial instability

A

a) plasters are not circumferential, allowing the fracture to swell. If this is not adhered to, the cast will become tight and the patient is left at risk of compartment syndrome.

b) if the fracture is able to rotate along its axis, the plaster should cross both the joint above and below

NB: for most fractures, the plaster needs only to cross the joint immediately distal to it.

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20
Q

What advice should be given to a patient when their fracture is immobilised (ie. wearing plaster cast or splint)?

A
  • advise the patient whether they can weight bear
  • if the patient is immobilised and is non-weight bearing, it is common to provide thromboprophylaxis
  • provide advice about the symptoms of compartment syndrome
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21
Q

What are the principles of fracture rehabilitation?

A

Most patients need to undergo an intensive period of physiotherapy following fracture management, to reduce stiffness and improve recovery.

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22
Q

Give some possible differentials for an acutely swollen joint.

A
  • septic arthritis
  • haemarthrosis
  • crystal arthropathies
  • rheumatological causes
  • osteoarthritis
  • musculoskeletal injury
  • sponyloarthropathies
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23
Q

What is gout?

A

An inflammatory arthritis caused by the collection of monosodium urate crystals in a joint, due to hyperuricaemia leading to crystalisation of urate in the joint space.

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24
Q

Presentation of gout.

A
  • acutely swollen joint (commonly 1st MTPJ)
  • painful
  • episodic (triggers including stress, illness, dehydration) with long symptom-free remission periods

Extra-articular features include gouty tophi or uric acid nephropathy.

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25
Q

How is gout diagnosed?

A

Joint aspiration and microscopy, showing thin, needle shaped, negatively bifringent monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid.

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26
Q

What is the treatment for:

a) acute gout

b) recurrent gout episodes

A

a) NSAIDs, for example ibuprofen or naproxen

b) prophylactic agents, for example allopurinol

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27
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

An inflammatory arthritis caused by deposits of calcium pyrophosphate crystals within the joint.

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28
Q

What are the risk factors for pseudogout?

A
  • advanced age
  • hyperparathyroidism
  • hypophosphatemia
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29
Q

Presentation of pseudogout.

A

Psuedogout often mimics the presentation of gout, but most commonly affects the knee and wrist:
- acutely swollen joint
- painful
- episodic (triggers including stress, illness, dehydration) with long symptom-free remission periods

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30
Q

How is pseudogout diagnosed?

A

Joint aspiration and microscopy, showing positively bifringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.

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31
Q

What is the treatment for pseudogout?

A
  • treated acutely using NSAIDs, for example ibuprofen or naproxen
  • treat any underlying cause identified (e.g. hypophosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism)
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32
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

An autoimmune disease that affects the articular cartilage between joints, giving rise to arthritic symptoms.

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33
Q

Presentation of rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Small joints in the hands and feet are most commonly affected, sparing DIPJ.

  • swollen, painful, and red joints
  • stiffness worse in the morning
  • joints affected symmetrically
  • fatigue
  • pyrexia
  • weight loss
  • rheumatoid nodules
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34
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed?

A
  • raised CRP and ESR (inflammatory markers)
  • raised rheumatoid factor (FR)
  • raised ACPA
  • radiographic changes
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35
Q

What is the typical radiographic appearance of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • soft tissue swelling
  • periarticular osteopenia
  • juxta-articular erosions
  • narrowed joint space
  • subluxations
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36
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Treatment usually initiated by rheumatologists:
- NSAIDs for pain
- DMARDs, for example sulfasalazine or methotrexate
- biological agents, for example infliximab or etanercept

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37
Q

Which criteria can be used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The diagnostic criteria for RA is the EULAR classification - if EULAR ≥6/10 then definite RA is indicated.

38
Q

What are the spondyloarthropathies?

A

A group of conditions comprising of:
- psoriatic arthritis
- ankylosing spondylitis
- reactive arthritis
- enteropathic arthropathy

They are classified as being seronegative conditions (RF negative) and are associated with HLA-B27.

39
Q

Presentation of spondyloarthropathies.

A
  • present with axial arthritis (those affecting spinal and sacroiliac joints)
  • affect any joint in the body as oligoarthritis or monoarthritis
  • can cause enthesitis and dactylitis
40
Q

What is haemarthrosis?

A

Bleeding into a joint space

41
Q

Give some causes of haemarthrosis.

A
  • trauma, for example ACL tear (most common)
  • bleeding disorders, for example haemophilia
  • pts taking anticoagulants
42
Q

How is haemarthrosis diagnosed?

A
  • routine bloods, including clotting factors (raised)
  • joint aspiration, to make a definitive diagnosis
43
Q

How is haemarthrosis treated?

A

Initial treatment includes RICE:
- rest
- ice
- compression
- elevation of joint

The majority of cases can be managed conservatively by ensuring sufficient analgesia for the pain, however some traumatic haemarthrosis may require surgical intervention.

44
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

The infection of a joint, with the potential to cause irreversible articular damage leading to severe osteoarthritis.

45
Q

What are the main causative organisms that lead to septic arthritis?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus (most common in adults)
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea (more common in sexually active patients)
  • Salmonella (more common in those with sickle cell disease)
46
Q

What is the aetiology of septic arthritis?

A

Bacteria ‘seeds’ to the joint from:
- bacteraemia (e.g. recent cellulitis, UTI)
- direct inoculation (ie. following joint prosthesis)
- spread from adjacent osteomyelitis

47
Q

What are the risk factors for developing rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • increasing age
  • pre-existing joint disease (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis)
  • diabetes mellitus
  • immunosuppression
  • chronic kidney disease
  • joint prosthesis
  • intravenous drug use
48
Q

Presentation of septic arthritis.

A
  • single swollen joint
  • severe pain
  • pyrexia (absence should not rule out septic arthritis)
  • red, swollen and warm joint
  • pain on active and passive movement - may be unable to tolerate any passive movement
  • effusion may be present
  • unable to weight bear

It requires a high index of suspicion and can affect both native and prosthetic joints.

49
Q

What are the differentials for a patient presenting with a single, painful, swollen joint?

A
  • septic arthritis (main)
  • worsening osteoarthritis
  • haemarthrosis
  • crystal arthropathies (e.g. gout, pseudogout)
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • reactive arthritis
  • Lyme disease
50
Q

What investigations should be initiated if septic arthritis is suspected?

A
  • joint aspiration should be sent for gram stain (mainstay of diagnosis)
  • routine bloods (FBC, CRP, ESR, urate levels)
  • blood cultures should be sent (at least two separate samples)

It is important that cultures and joint aspiration are sent where possible prior to starting antibiotics.

51
Q

What imaging is used to assess the joint in septic arthritis?

A

A plain radiograph is often performed - in early stages no evidence of the disease is present, but in later stages radiographic features include:
- soft tissue swelling
- fat pad shift
- joint space widening

Further imaging is rarely performed.

52
Q

What is the management of septic arthritis?

A
  • empirical antibiotic treatment
  • surgical irrigation and debridement for infected native and prosthetic joints
  • revision surgery for prosthetic joints
53
Q

What are the main complications of septic arthritis?

A
  • osteoarthritis (severe)
  • osteomyelitis

Early intervention will reduce the risk of developing these complications.

54
Q

Which criteria can be used to differentiate between septic arthritis and transient synovitis in a child with a painful hip?

A

Kocher criteria:
- unable to weight-bear (+1)
- pyrexia (+1)
- elevated WCC (+1)
- elevated ESR (+1)

A score of 3 or more gives a 93% probability of septic arthritis.

55
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

An infection of the bone, mostly of bacterial and acute origin.

Some cases can be chronic and rarely can even be fungal.

56
Q

Which bones are most commonly affected by osteomyelitis in:

a) adults

b) children

A

a) the vertebrae

b) long bones

57
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of oesteomyelitis?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus (most common)
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa (more common in intravenous drug users)
  • Salmonella (more common in patients with sickle cell disease)

It can be caused by:
- haematogenous spread
- direct inoculation (e.g. following open fracture or penetrating injury)
- direct spread from nearby infection (e.g. septic arthritis)

58
Q

What is the pathophysiology of osteomyelitis?

A

Once bacteria enter the bone tissue, they express adhesins that allow them to propagate, spread, and seed further into the tissue.

In chronic cases, infection can lead to devascularisation and subsequent necrosis of the affected bone.

59
Q

What are the risk factors for developing osteomyelitis?

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • immunosuppression (e.g. AIDS, long term steroid treatment)
  • alcohol excess
  • intravenous drug use
  • open fractures
  • septic arthritis
60
Q

Why is diabetes mellitus a risk factor for osteomyeleitis.

A

Complications of diabetes mellitus include diabetic neuropathy, which can give rise to the diabetic foot.

Soft tissue infection of the foot can increase the risk of osteomyelitis developing. It is therefore important to suspect osteomyelitis in any diabetic patient with deep or chronic foot infection.

Any suspected case should have an MRI scan to confirm the diagnosis.

61
Q

Presentation of osteomyelitis.

A
  • severe pain*
  • low grade pyrexia
  • overlying swelling and erythema
  • tenderness
  • inability to weight bear

*in patients with diabetic foot, pain may be absent due to peripheral neuropathy.

62
Q

What are the main differentials for suspected cases of osteomyelitis?

A
  • septic arthritis
  • traumatic injuries
  • primary or secondary bone tumours
63
Q

What is Potts disease?

A

An infection of the vertebral body and intervertebral disc by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, causing patients to present with back pain and/or neurological features.

The infection initially starts in the intervertebral disc before spreading to the paradiscal regions, typically affecting the thoracolumbar region of the spine.

MRI imaging is the gold standard for suspected cases. Most cases require a prolonged course of anti-TB medication, however surgical intervention may be required for abscess drainage if extensive spinal destruction is present.

64
Q

What are the investigations indicated when osteomyelitis is suspected?

A
  • routine blood tests (FBC, CRP, ESR)
  • blood cultures should be performed
  • plain film radiograph
  • definitive diagnosis achieved through MRI imaging
  • bone biopsy at debridement
65
Q

Give some complications that may arise as a result of osteomyelitis.

A
  • overwhelming sepsis and death
  • premature epiphyseal closure in children, leading to growth disturbances
  • recurrence of infection
  • chronic osteomyelitis (esp. if immunocompromised)
66
Q

What is the management of osteomyelitis?

A

Long-term IV antibiotic therapy tailored to any cultures available.

67
Q

When is surgical intervention indicated in osteomyelitis?

A
  • patient clinically deteriorates
  • limb shows evidence of deterioration
  • imaging shows progressive bone destruction

Curettage of the area may be required to prevent chronic osteomyelitis from developing - in severe cases, amputation may be required.

68
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

A fracture in which there is direct communication between the fracture site and the external environment, most often through the skin.

Note, pelvic fractures can be internally open via the vagina or rectum.

69
Q

Outline the two mechanisms by which a fracture may become open.

A
  1. in-to-out injury: the sharp bone penetrates and breaks the skin from beneath.
  2. out-to-in injury: a high energy injury penetrates the skin, traumatising the tissue and subtending soft tissues and bone.
70
Q

What are the most common fractures to become open?

A
  • tibial
  • phalangeal
  • forearm
  • ankle
  • metacarpal
71
Q

Describe the outcomes of open fracture in reference to:

a) skin

b) soft tissues

c) neurovascular injury

d) infection

A

a) range from a small wound to significant tissue loss, whereby coverage will not be achieved without the aid of plastics surgery.

b) this can range from little tissue devitalisation to significant muscle / tendon / ligament loss requiring reconstructive surgery.

c) nerves and vessels may be compressed due to limb deformity, go into arteriospasm, develop intimal dissection or be transected altogether.

d) the rate of infection is very high following open fracture, due to direct contamination, reduced vascularity, systemic compromise and the need for insertion of metalwork for fracture stabilisation.

72
Q

What system can be used to classify open fractures?

A

Gustilo-Anderson classification:

  • Type 1: <1cm wound and clean
  • Type 2: 1-10cm wound and clean
  • Type 3A: >10cm wound and high-energy, with adequate soft tissue coverage
  • Type 3B: >10cm wound and high energy, without adequate soft tissue coverage
  • Type 3C: any injury with vascular injury
73
Q

What investigations are indicated when a patient presents with an open fracture?

A
  • plain film radiograph of affected areas
  • basic blood tests (incl. clotting screen)
  • Group & Save blood test
74
Q

What is the initial management of an open fracture?

A
  1. Suitable resuscitation and stabilisation - ATLS may be required.
  2. Assess neurovascular status.
  3. Photograph the wound and remove any gross debris.
  4. Urgently realign and splint the limb - reassess neurovascular status.
  5. Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics and a tetanus vaccination.

An out-of-theatre washout is not indicated - instead, the wound should be dressed with a saline-soaked gauze.

75
Q

What is the surgical management of an open fracture?

A

Surgical debridement of the wound and the fracture site, removing devitalised tissues.

Ensure the wound is washed out with copious volumes of saline, and ensure definitive skeletal stabilisation. If there is significant soft tissue or vascular compromise, plastics or vascular surgeons should be consulted.

76
Q

How are bone tumours classified?

A

Primary and secondary (metastatic).

Primary bone tumours can be divided into benign and malignant types.

77
Q

What are the most common primary cancers that metastasise to the bones?

What is the most common site for bony metastases?

A

Most common primary sites are:
- renal
- thyroid
- lung
- prostate
- breast

The most common site for bony metastases is the spine.

78
Q

Give some risk factors for developing a primary bone cancer.

A
  • RB1 and p53 mutations associated with osteosarcomas
  • TSC1 and TSC2 mutation associated with chordomas
  • previous exposure to radiation
  • alkylating agents in radiotherapy
  • benign bone conditions (e.g. Paget’s diease)
79
Q

What are the clinical features of bone tumours?

A
  • pain
  • not associated with movement
  • worse at night
  • mass may be palpable

If a patient presents with a fracture without a history of trauma (ie. pathological fracture), a bone tumour may be suspected.

80
Q

What are the types of primary, benign bone tumour?

A
  • osteoid osteoma
  • osteochondroma
  • chondroma
  • giant cell tumour
81
Q

What are the types of primary, malignant bone tumour?

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • Ewing’s sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
82
Q

What is osteoid osteoma?

A

A primary, benign tumour of the bone that arises from osteoblasts.

They are small tumours located around the metaphysis of the long bones (ie. proximal femur or tibia).

Overall, they have a good prognosis, with most resolving spontaneously.

83
Q

What is an osteochondroma?

A

A primary, benign tumour of the bone that forms as an outgrowth from the metaphysis of long bones.

Most are detected incidentally as they are asymptomatic and slow growing.

Most can be managed conservatively through imaging.

84
Q

What is an osteosarcoma?

A

The most common primary, malignant tumour of the bone that most commonly affects the distal femur or proximal tibia.

Patients present with localised constant pain.

Aggressive surgical resection and systemic chemotherapy is treatment - prognosis poor due to tendency to metastasise to the lung and bone.

85
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

A paediatric malignant of bone arising from poorly differentiated neuroectodermal cells, most commonly affecting the diaphysis of long bones.

Patients present with pain.

Management is via chemotherapy followed by surgical excision. Radiation may be considered for local control in patients with unresectable primary tumours.

86
Q

What are the radiological features of:

a) benign bone tumours

b) malignant bone tumours

A

a) sharp and well-defined, lacking soft tissue involved and no cortical destruction.

b) poorly defined with rough borders, involving soft tissues and have cortical destruction.

See image.

87
Q

What is the normal pressure found within a fascial compartment?

A

0mmHg to 8mmHg

88
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

A critical pressure increase within a confined compartmental space, most commonly affecting the leg, thigh, forearm, foot, hand and buttock.

89
Q

What are the possible causes of compartment syndrome?

A

Compartment syndrome typically follows:
- high-energy trauma
- crush injury
- deep vein thrombosis
- burns
- fractures

May also be present if cast is fitted too tightly or post-surgery.

90
Q

Describe how compartment syndrome leads to leg ischaemia.

A
  1. Injury causes an increase in intra-compartmental pressure
  2. Veins compressed by pressure, increasing hydrostatic pressure within them.
  3. Fluid moves down its gradient into the compartment, increasing compartmental pressure further.
  4. Traversing nerves are compressed, causing sensory and/or motor defects (ie. paraesthesia)
  5. When intra-compartmental pressure reaches diastolic blood pressure, arterial inflow is compromised leading to ischaemia.
91
Q

What are the clinical features of compartment syndrome?

A
  • severe pain, disproportionate to injury and not improved by initial measures
  • paraesthesia (ie. due to compression of traversing nerves)
  • affected compartment feels tense compared to contralateral side
  • acute limb ischaemia (5Ps)

Compartment syndrome is a clinical diagnosis, therefore a high level of clinical suspicion is required, particularly in post-operative patients.

92
Q

How is compartment syndrome managed?

A

Early recognition and immediate surgical treatment via urgent fasciotomy.

  • keep the limb at a neutral level
  • give high-flow oxygen
  • remove all dressings, splints, casts, down to the skin
  • give analgesia
  • monitor renal function due to the effects of rhabdomyolysis / reperfusion injury