1.02 - Core Surgical Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 main types of injury that can occur during surgery.

A
  1. Bisection from sharp dissection
  2. Blunt injury from instrumentation or retraction
  3. Diathermy injury from the instrument directly or burns from the pads
  4. Entrapment pressure or incarceration due to suturing or closure of structures
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2
Q

What structures are most frequently damaged during surgical procedures?

A
  • Vascular structures: arteries and veins
  • Neurological structures: nerves and nerve plexuses
  • Musculoskeletal structures: tendons, ligaments and muscles
  • Abdominal viscera: small bowel, large bowel, bladder, ureter, spleen and liver.

NB: patients should be consented before any operation about the risks of damage to local structures.

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3
Q

Injury to local structures in surgery can be reduced by:

A
  • excellent anatomical knowledge
  • suitable planning of the surgical approach
  • careful and meticulous dissection
  • retracting vulnerable structures carefully

Post-operatively, the patient should be examined for signs of damage to the local structures.

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4
Q

Define inflammation.

A

The initial physiological response to tissue damage, such as that caused by mechanical, thermal, electrical, irradiation, chemical or infection.

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5
Q

Give the 4 characteristic features of acute inflammation.

A

Acute inflammation begins within seconds to minutes following injury to tissues. It is characterised by four key features:

  1. Rubor (redness) secondary to vasodilation and increased blood flow.
  2. Calor (heat) due to a localised increase in temperature, and increased blood flow.
  3. Tumour (swelling) resulting from increased vascular permeability, allowing fluid loss into the interstitial space.
  4. Dolor (pain) caused by stimulation of local nerve endings, from mechanical and chemical mediators.
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6
Q

What are the two stages of acute inflammation?

A
  1. vascular phase
  2. cellular phase
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7
Q

Outline the changes that occur during the vascular phase of acute inflammation.

A

a) small blood vessels adjacent to the injury vasodilate and blood flow to the area increases.

b) endothelial cells initially swell, then contract to increase the space between them, thus increasing the permeability of the vascular barrier.

c) exudation of fluids leads to a net loss of fluid from the vascular space into the interstitial space, resulting in oedema.

d) increased production of tissue fluid acts as a medium for which inflammatory proteins can migrate through; it may also help to remove pathogens and cell debris via lymphatic drainage.

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8
Q

Outline the changes that occur during the cellular phase of acute inflammation.

A

Neutrophils are attracted to the site of injury by the presence of chemotaxins - for example IL-8 and histamine - that are released into the blood immediately after the insult.

a) margination - neutrophils line up against the endothelium

b) rolling - neutrophils are in close contact with and roll along the endothelium

c) adhesion - neutrophils connect to the endothelial wall

d) emigration - neutrophils move through the vessel wall to the affected area

Once in the region, neutrophils recognise the foreign body and begin phagocytosis.

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9
Q

What is the predominant cell of acute inflammation?

A

The neutrophil

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10
Q

Following the process of acute inflammation, what are the possible outcomes?

A

a) complete resolution - total repair and destruction of the insult

b) fibrosis and scar formation - occurs in stages of significant inflammation

c) chronic inflammation - from persisting insult

d) formation of an abscess - result of pyogenic infection

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11
Q

What is an abscess?

A

A localised collection of pus surrounded by granulation tissue, forming when the primary insult is a pyogenic bacterium and extensive tissue necrosis occurs.

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12
Q

Outline how an abscess forms.

A

The initial inflammatory exudate forces the tissue apart, leaving a centre of necrotic tissue with the neutrophils and pathogens. The abscess acts as a harbour for the infection, and can result in pain and destruction of local structures as it expands.

Over time, the acute inflammation will cease and - if not surgically drained - the abscess will be replaced by scar tissue.

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13
Q

Name 3 mediators responsible for vasodilatation in acute inflammation.

A
  • histamine
  • bradykinin
  • prostaglandins (PGE2)
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14
Q

Name the mediator responsible for mast cell degranulation in acute inflammation.

A

Complement proteins (C3a, C5a)

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15
Q

Name 3 mediators responsible for chemotaxis in acute inflammation.

A
  • IL-8
  • complement proteins (C5a)
  • histamine
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16
Q

Name 3 mediators responsible for lysosomal granule release in acute inflammation.

A
  • complement proteins (C5a)
  • IL-8
  • PAF
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17
Q

Name the mediator responsible for phagocytosis in acute inflammation.

A

Complement proteins (C3b)

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18
Q

Name 3 mediators responsible for pain in acute inflammation.

A
  • prostaglandins (PGE2)
  • bradykinin
  • histamine
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19
Q

Name 3 mediators responsible for fever in acute inflammation.

A
  • IL-1, IL-6
  • TNF-a
  • prostaglandins (PGE2)
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20
Q

What is the aetiology of chronic inflammation?

A

Chronic inflammation is the ongoing inflammatory response from an unresolved insult, resulting as a continuation of acute inflammation or arising de-novo.

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21
Q

What is the predominant cell of chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages - acting to engulf and destroy foreign material and/or pathogens.

Lymphocytes - act to coordinate the response between the innate and adaptive immune cells.

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22
Q

What is the function of macrophages in chronic inflammation?

A
  • phagocytosis of foreign material and/or pathogens
  • antigen presentation (APC) to the adaptive immune cells
  • fusion to form giant cells
  • secrete growth factors to aid cell repeair
  • secrete complement proteins and cytokines to help coordinate the immune response
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23
Q

Which type of giant cell would be present in response to a foreign body?

A

Foreign-body giant cell

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24
Q

Which type of giant cell would be present in response to mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Langhans giant cell

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25
Q

Which type of giant cell would be present in response to fat necrosis?

A

Touton giant cell

26
Q

What is the role of lymphocytes in chronic inflammation?

A

In chronic inflammation, lymphocytes work alongside APCs to process antigens, coordinating a suitable inflammatory response.

27
Q

Give the 2 main types of lymphocyte.

A
  1. B lymphocyte
  2. T lymphocyte
28
Q

Outline the role of B lymphocytes in chronic inflammation.

A

When B lymphocytes are appropriately activated, they differentiate into plasma cells. Plasma cells are essential for antibody production, which are used for:

  • neutralising microbes and toxins, to prevent infective and toxic effects of the antigen
  • promote natural killer cells to destroy targeted pathogens (antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity, ADCC)
  • facilitate easer phagocytosis by the innate immune cells (opsonisation)
29
Q

Outline the role of T lymphocytes in chronic inflammation.

A

T-helper lymphocytes (CD4+) act to coordinate further targeted inflammatory response, from both innate and adaptive immune cells.

T-killer lymphocytes (CD8+) act to coordinate the targeted destruction of infected cells.

30
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

In chronic inflammation, macrophages and lymphocytes can combine to form a granuloma, allowing the immune system to ‘wall off’ an agent particularly resistant to destruction.

A granuloma contains a collection of epithelioid cells (elongated macrophages), surrounding a core of lymphocytes and giant cells attempting to break down the particles.

NB as granulomatous inflammation progresses, fibroblasts lay down scar tissue.

31
Q

Give 3 disease states in which a granuloma may form.

A
  • tuberculosis (central core commonly becomes necrotic)
  • Crohn’s disease
  • rheumatoid arthritis
32
Q

What are the two main types of cutaneous wound healing?

A
  • primary intention
  • secondary intention
33
Q

When would healing via primary intention occur?

A

Healing by primary intention occurs in wounds with dermal edges that are close together (e.g. scalpel incision), and is usually faster than by secondary intention.

34
Q

Describe the four stages of wound healing by primary intention.

A
  1. Haemostasis - activation of platelets and cytokines forms a haematoma and causes vasoconstriction, to limit blood loss at the affected area.
  2. Inflammation - a cellular inflammatory response acts to remove any cell debris and pathogens.
  3. Proliferation - inflammatory cells release cytokines that drive the proliferation of fibroblasts and the formation of granulation tissue. Growth mediations (e.g. VEGF) promote angiogenesis, and the production of collagen by fibroblasts allows for closure of the wound after around a week.
  4. Remodelling - collagen fibres are deposited within the wound to provide strength in the region, with the fibroblasts subsequently undergoing apoptosis.

The end result of healing by primary intention is a complete return to function, with minimal scarring and loss of skin appendages.

35
Q

When sutures are used to close a wound, why is it important to ensure the correct tension of the sutures is applied?

A
  • too loose and the wound edges will not be properly opposed, limiting the primary intention healing and reducing wound strength
  • too tight and the blood supply may be compromised and lead to tissue necrosis and wound breakdown
36
Q

When would healing via secondary intention occur?

A

Healing by secondary intention occurs when the sides of the wound are not opposed, therefore healing must occur from the bottom of the wound upwards.

37
Q

Describe the four stages of wound healing by secondary intention.

A
  1. Haemostasis - activation of platelets and cytokines forms a large fibrin mesh, which fills the wound to limit blood loss.
  2. Inflammation - a cellular inflammatory response acts to remove any cell debris and pathogens (response stronger than in primary intention)
  3. Proliferation - granulation tissue forms at the bottom of the wound and fills it to the level of the original epithelium; once the granulation tissue reaches this level, the epithelia can completely cover the wound.
  4. Remodelling - the inflammatory response begins to resolve, and myofibroblasts facilitate contraction of the wound.
38
Q

Give 5 local factors that can affect wound healing.

A
  • type, size and location of wound
  • local blood supply
  • infection
  • foreign material / contamination
  • radiation damage
39
Q

Give 4 systemic factors that can affect wound healing.

A
  • increasing age
  • comorbidities (e.g. CVD, DM)
  • nutritional deficiencies (esp. Vitamin C)
  • obesity
40
Q

Outline the physiology in the formation of keloid scars.

A

Keloid scars form when there is excessive collagen production by fibroblasts, typically affecting people with darker skin.

41
Q

What are surgical site infections (SSIs)?

A

An infection that occurs when a pathogen gains entry to the body via a surgical environment.

SSIs are a leading cause of hospital morbidity, resulting in prolonged hospital stay, higher rates of re-operation and increased mortality rates.

42
Q

Define the tissues involved in the following SSIs:

a) superficial SSI

b) deep SSI

c) cavity space infection

A

a) limited to skin and subcutaneous tissue

b) affecting the fascial layer and muscular layers

c) within an abdominal or joint cavity

43
Q

Give 5 patient factors and 5 operation factors that increase the risk of surgical site infection.

A

Patient factors:
- increasing age
- poor glucose control
- obesity & smoking
- renal failure
- immunosuppression (e.g. HIV, corticosteroids)

Operation factors:
- preoperative shaving
- length of operation
- use of antimicrobial prophylaxis (protective)
- appropriate skin preparation (protective)
- appropriate gowning and sterile equipment (protective)

44
Q

How long after surgery does it take for the symptoms of an SSI to typically appear?

A

Symptoms of SSI typically appear 5 to 7 days post-procedure

NB can take up to three weeks, especially if a prosthesis is inserted.

45
Q

Which common clinical features are typical of SSIs?

A
  • spreading erythema
  • localised pain
  • pus or discharge from the wound
  • persistant pyrexia

In some cases, wound dehiscence can occur secondary to SSI developing.

46
Q

What is wound dehiscence?

A

Where a wound fails to heal, often re-opening a few days after surgery - most common in abdominal surgery.

47
Q

Define

a) superficial wound dehiscence

b) full thickness wound dehiscence

A

a) the skin wound alone fails, with the rectus sheath remaining intact (occurs secondary to SSI, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, or poor nutritional status).

b) the rectus sheath fails to heal and bursts, with protrusion of abdominal contents (occurs secondary to raised intra-abdominal pressure, poor surgical technique and if the patient is critically unwell).

48
Q

What is the management of superficial wound dehiscence?

A

Washing out the wound and simple wound care.

The patient should be advised the wound will now be required to heal via secondary intention, which can take several weeks.

49
Q

What is the management of full thickness wound dehiscence?

A

Provide suitable analgesia and start broad spectrum IV abx as a priority.

Cover the wound in a saline-soaked gauze and arrange return to theatre for re-closure of the wound.

50
Q

How can wound dehiscence be prevented?

A
  • optimising comorbidites
  • treat SSIs
  • avoid heavy lifting
  • encourage adequate post-surgical nutrition
51
Q

How should SSIs be managed?

A

Remove any sutures or clips to allow for the drainage of any pus.

Take a wound swab and send for culture to inform abx choice; in the meantime, begin empirical antibiotics.

52
Q

How can SSIs be prevented in

a) pre-operative phase

b) intraoperative phase

c) post-operative phase

A

a) give prophylactic abx; do not remove hair routinely; optimise comorbidities

b) prepare sskin at surgical site immediate before incision using an antiseptic preparation; change gloves or gowns if contaminated; wound irrigation at closure and use of antibiotics-impregnated sutures to close.

c) monitor wounds closely; refer to tissue viability nurse for advice on appropriate dressings if surgical wounds are healing via secondary intention.

53
Q

What are the 5 basic principles in the management of a wound or lacteration?

A
  1. Haemostasis
  2. Cleaning the wound
  3. Analgesia
  4. Skin closure
  5. Dressing and follow-up advice
54
Q

Describe how to achieve haemostasis in wound management.

A

In most wounds, haemostasis will be spontaneous.

In cases of significant injury or laceration of vessels, it may be necessary to apply pressure, elevate the limb, tourniquet or suture the wound.

55
Q

Describe how to clean the wound in wound management.

A
  1. Disinfect the skin around the wound with antiseptic
  2. Decontaminate the wound by manually removing any foreign bodies
  3. Debride any devitalised tissue where possible
  4. Irrigate the wound with saline
  5. Prescribe antibiotics for high-risk wounds or signs of infection
56
Q

Describe how to prescribe analgesia during wound management.

A

Infiltration with a local anaesthetic (e.g. lidocaine), in adjunct with regular systemic analgesia (e.g. paracetamol).

The maximum level of lidocaine you can inject for a wound is 3mg/kg.

57
Q

Describe how to close the skin during wound management.

A

To aid wound healing, the edges of the wound can be manually opposed using the following four methods:

  1. Skin adhesive strips (suitable if no risk factors for infection are present)
  2. Tissue adhesive glue (suitable for small lacerations with easily opposable edges)
  3. Sutures (suitable for lacerations greater than 5cm, deep dermal wounds, or wounds in locations that are prone to flexion, tension or wetting).
  4. Staples can be used for some scalp wounds
58
Q

Describe how to correctly dress a wound.

A

The first layer should be non-adherent (e.g. saline-soaked gauze) followed by an absorbent material to attract any wound exudate, and finally soft gauze tape to secure the dressing in place.

59
Q

Following initial wound management, what advise should be given to patients?

A
  • tetanus prophylaxis if individual is not up-to-date with or unsure of their tetanus status
  • seek medical attention for signs of infection
  • take simple analgesia (e.g. paracetamol)
  • keep the wound dry as much as possible, even if wearing a waterproof dressing
60
Q

How long following initial wound closure should sutures or adhesive strips be removed?

A

After 10-15 days

NB 3-5 days if on the head to reduce scarring.