3 - Operations Management Processes Flashcards

1
Q

What do operating processes produce and deliver?

A

Goods and services to customers.

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2
Q

Why was managing operations considered critical in the late twentieth century?

A

Inspired by the remarkable results achieved by Japanese manufacturers.

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3
Q

What are the four operations management processes?

A
  • Develop and sustain supplier relationships
  • Produce products and services
  • Distribute and deliver products and services to customers
  • Manage risk
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4
Q

What is one objective for effective supplier relationships?

A

Lower the total ‘cost of ownership.’

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5
Q

What does the total cost of ownership include?

A
  • Purchase price
  • Costs of design and engineering
  • Ordering materials
  • Receiving materials
  • Inspecting materials
  • Returning materials
  • Moving materials
  • Storing materials
  • Scrapping obsolete materials
  • Reworking products due to defective materials
  • Delays from late deliveries
  • Expediting materials
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6
Q

True or False: The best suppliers are defined as low-price only.

A

False.

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7
Q

What does activity-based costing (ABC) enable companies to do?

A

Assign aggregate procurement costs to the procurement activities.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Companies strive to find suppliers that accept electronic orders and deliver products with no _______.

A

Defects.

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9
Q

What are some objectives for managing supplier relationships?

A
  • Lower the cost of ownership
  • Achieve just-in-time supplier capability
  • Develop high-quality supplier capability
  • Use new ideas from suppliers
  • Achieve supplier partnership
  • Outsource mature, noncore products and services
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10
Q

What initiatives have been applied to improve process performance?

A
  • Reengineering
  • Business process redesign
  • Continuous improvement
  • Activity-based management
  • Total quality management
  • Time-based management
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11
Q

What is a measure for improving process responsiveness?

A

Cycle time from start of production until product completion.

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12
Q

What does the distribution process aim to lower?

A

Cost-to-serve.

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13
Q

What are key objectives in risk management?

A
  • Reduce the costs associated with financial distress
  • Decrease taxes
  • Reduce monitoring costs
  • Provide internal funds for investment
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14
Q

What can effective risk management reduce for key undiversified investors?

A

The risks they face due to wealth concentration in the company.

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15
Q

Fill in the blank: Companies can manage risk by modifying their _______.

A

Operations.

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16
Q

What are some ways companies can employ to manage risk?

A
  • Adjust capital structure
  • Employ targeted financial instruments such as derivatives
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17
Q

What does a high level of debt influence regarding risk?

A

It increases the likelihood of financial distress.

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18
Q

True or False: Companies should seek to insulate themselves completely from all kinds of risks.

A

False.

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19
Q

What is a measure of purchasing process quality?

A

Percentage of orders that arrive with the correct volume and mix of items.

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20
Q

What percentage of purchases made electronically is used as a measure?

A

Percent of purchases made electronically (EDI or Internet).

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The time from completion of product/service until ready for use by customer is called _______.

A

Lead time.

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22
Q

What is the cash-to-cash cycle?

A

Days of accounts receivable plus days of inventory less days of payables.

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23
Q

What does EBITDA stand for?

A

Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation, and Amortization

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24
Q

What is the relationship between high-debt companies and profitability?

A

High-debt companies can benefit from the tax shield of interest payments and leverage high returns for shareholders.

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25
Q

What financial instruments can companies use to hedge exposure risks?

A

Insurance, futures, swaps, and options

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26
Q

What are some measures for managing financial risk?

A
  • Bad debt percentage
  • Percent of uncollectible receivables
  • Exposure or losses from interest rate fluctuations
  • Debt-to-equity ratio
  • Interest coverage ratio
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27
Q

What are the four important elements of an attractive value proposition?

A
  • Competitive prices and low total cost of supply
  • Perfect quality
  • Speedy, timely purchase
  • Excellent selection
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28
Q

What is the objective of a company striving to be the low-cost producer?

A

To be profitable at the lowest price point in the industry

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29
Q

What is the ideal customer experience regarding product quality?

A

Zero defects with products or services

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30
Q

What does ‘speedy, timely purchase’ refer to in customer value?

A

Rapid, reliable delivery of goods and services

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31
Q

What is a critical measure of timely service delivery from a customer’s perspective?

A

Lead time experienced by the customer

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32
Q

What is the significance of ‘excellent selection’ in operations management?

A

It relates to the range of products, merchandise, and services offered to customers

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33
Q

What do companies use to benchmark their unit costs?

A

Competitors’ costs

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34
Q

What is the purpose of activity-based costing (ABC)?

A

To represent how individual products and customers use different quantities of the services supplied by indirect and support resources

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35
Q

What is the effect of improved operations on financial performance?

A

Increased revenues from satisfied customers

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36
Q

What is a key objective of learning and growth in operations management?

A

Develop skills in quality management and process improvement

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37
Q

What percentage of employees should achieve six sigma ‘black belt’ status?

A

Objective to increase the percentage of employees with this qualification

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38
Q

What role does technology play in operational performance?

A

Automates processes, provides rapid feedback, and improves quality and processing times

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39
Q

What organizational culture is necessary for continuous improvement?

A

A culture encouraging new ideas, solutions, and knowledge sharing

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40
Q

What is one objective related to customer satisfaction in operations management?

A

Deliver zero-defect products and services

41
Q

Fill in the blank: Companies should measure the lead time ______.

A

[from order to delivery]

42
Q

True or False: Companies that sell homogeneous products aim to have the highest costs per unit.

43
Q

What is a critical measure for assessing the effectiveness of operations management?

A

Percent of perfect orders (defect-free products and services delivered)

44
Q

What should organizations do to share best practices?

A

Identify innovations and disseminate them rapidly across units

45
Q

What can improve asset productivity in operations?

A

Better capacity planning and process improvements

46
Q

What is the significance of knowledge management systems in operations management?

A

They enable sharing of best practices and innovations

47
Q

What are some measures of customer profitability?

A
  • Customer’s cost of ownership
  • Customer’s profitability from own company’s products and services
48
Q

What is the objective related to financial efficiency in operations?

A

Maximize use of existing assets

49
Q

What is the relationship between cost reduction and customer satisfaction?

A

Cost reductions should lead to increased customer satisfaction and revenue

50
Q

What does the term ‘wing-to-wing’ time refer to?

A

The total time an engine is out of service for the customer

51
Q

What is a measure of the company’s operational effectiveness?

A

Sales/asset ratio

52
Q

What is the objective behind using supply chain management software?

A

To reduce the cost of supplier relationships

53
Q

What is the primary purpose of an ABC model?

A

To accurately trace organizational expenses to procurement, manufacturing, distribution, or delivery processes.

54
Q

What does Activity-Based Management (ABM) aim to achieve?

A

Actions that increase efficiency, lower costs, and enhance asset utilization.

55
Q

What are the potential financial benefits from ABM?

A
  • Reduced costs
  • Higher revenues
  • Cost avoidance
56
Q

What is the first step in the ABM process?

A

Develop the business case.

57
Q

Why may managers be unaware of cost reduction opportunities?

A

Focus has historically been on improving frontline manufacturing and service operations.

58
Q

What does collecting ABC process cost information reveal?

A

How much existing spending occurs in inefficient activities.

59
Q

True or False: The ABC process cost information can motivate managers to launch change initiatives.

60
Q

What is the second step in the ABM process?

A

Establish priorities.

61
Q

Why is it important to establish priorities in ABM?

A

To focus improvement programs on activities with the highest potential payoff.

62
Q

Fill in the blank: The scarcest resource in an organization is _______.

63
Q

What is the third step in the ABM process?

A

Provide cost justification.

64
Q

What did managers initially think about the costs associated with Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A

They were skeptical that producing fewer defective items could be accomplished without increasing costs.

65
Q

What happens after the initial wins in TQM implementation?

A

Further improvements may not always come for free.

66
Q

What is the fourth step in the ABM process?

A

Track the benefits.

67
Q

How can organizations verify whether operational improvements yield actual benefits?

A

By periodically refreshing and updating the ABC model.

68
Q

What is the fifth step in the ABM process?

A

Measure performance for ongoing improvement.

69
Q

What are process drivers?

A

Local performance indicators that employees can track and improve.

70
Q

How does Activity-Based Management enable managers to achieve visible successes?

A

By identifying and quantifying opportunities for transformation and continuous process improvements.

71
Q

What is the role of strategy maps in quality programs?

A

They provide a high-level, strategic context and align quality programs with organizational objectives.

72
Q

What are key quality measures used in operations management?

A
  • PPM defects
  • Yield
  • Number of inspections
73
Q

True or False: The Balanced Scorecard provides explicit causal linkages through strategy maps.

74
Q

What does the BSC establish targets for?

A

Breakthrough performance, not merely to match existing best practices.

75
Q

What is a key difference between quality models and the Balanced Scorecard?

A

Quality models strive to improve existing processes, while the BSC identifies entirely new processes critical for achieving strategic objectives.

76
Q

What does the Balanced Scorecard (BSC) link together to drive performance?

A

Customer satisfaction and retention, internal process performance, human resource and information technology capabilities, and organizational alignment.

77
Q

How does the BSC assist in identifying new processes?

A

It often reveals entirely new processes critical for achieving strategic objectives.

78
Q

What is a key process for a company shifting to a differentiated customer intimacy strategy?

A

Working closely with targeted customers to anticipate their future needs.

79
Q

What must frontline employees transition to in a financial services company shifting strategy?

A

From reactive transaction processors to proactive financial planners.

80
Q

What does the BSC prioritize for process enhancements?

A

It identifies which processes must perform at or beyond current best practice levels.

81
Q

What is the purpose of benchmarking in the context of the BSC?

A

To assess all an organization’s processes by comparing them to industry best practices.

82
Q

What does the BSC provide guidance for?

A

Redeploying scarce resources toward processes and initiatives most critical for implementing the strategy.

83
Q

What is the difference between continuous improvement and reengineering?

A

Continuous improvement is often insufficient when processes are inefficient or technologically obsolete, requiring reengineering or discontinuous improvement.

84
Q

What does a strategy map provide to improvement programs?

A

Strategic focus and a clear line-of-sight impact from process improvements to important organizational outcomes.

85
Q

What are the four perspectives in a strategy map?

A
  • Customer perspective
  • Internal processes perspective
  • Learning and growth perspective
  • Financial perspective
86
Q

What was Thornton Oil’s vision for 2005?

A

To become a $1 billion company.

87
Q

What theme did Thornton settle on for its strategy?

A

Marketing excellence and growing its food franchise.

88
Q

What was a key objective related to customer experience for Thornton?

A

Providing low-price, quality gasoline.

89
Q

What objective did Thornton adopt to enhance its store offerings?

A

To develop its own brand items, such as Thornton’s coffee and pastries.

90
Q

What was one of the objectives under the theme of internal processes for Thornton?

A

Exploiting B2B/B2C opportunities using the Internet.

91
Q

What did Thornton aim to establish for its employees?

A

A ‘people-first culture.’

92
Q

What was one financial objective for Thornton’s strategy?

A

Optimize asset utilization.

93
Q

What was the increase in customer-service scores achieved by Thornton?

A

44 percent.

94
Q

What was the reduction in total turnover at Thornton after implementing the BSC?

A

48 percent.

95
Q

Fill in the blank: The Balanced Scorecard enhances _______ programs by linking them to high-level organizational outcomes.

A

[reengineering]

96
Q

True or False: The BSC sets performance targets that are always financial in nature.

97
Q

What was the impact of the BSC on Thornton’s operating expenses?

A

Total operating expenses were under or at budget every month.

98
Q

What is the purpose of applying quality management principles to identified critical processes?

A

To enhance the performance of these processes.