3. NUCLEIC ACID ISOLATIOON - LEC Flashcards

1
Q

Release of nucleic acid from the cell

A

Nucleic acid isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The initial release of the cellular material is achieved by

A

breaking the cell wall and nuclear membranes with cell lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The target material is _____ nucleic acid isolation

A

purified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First isolated DNA from human cells through alkaline lysis method

A

Miescher 1869

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Demonstrate semi-conservative replication of DNA

A

Meselson and Stahl 1958

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Procedures used extensively for extraction of 1-50 kb plasmid DNA from bacteria during the early days of recombinant DNA technology

A

Alkaline lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Expected DNA yield for blood(1ml, 3.5-10 x 10^6 WBs/mL) and buffy coat (1ml blood)

A

50-200ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Expected DNA yield for bone marrow (1mL)

A

100-500ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Expected DNA yield for cultured cells (10^7 cells)

A

30-70ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Expected DNA yield for solid tissue (1mg)

A

1-10 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Expected DNA yield for lavage fluids (10ml)

A

2-250ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Expected DNA yield for Mitochondria (10-mg tissue, 10 cells)

A

1-10ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Expected DNA yield for plasmid DNA, bacterial culture (100ml overnight culture)

A

350ug - 1 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Expected DNA yield for bacterial culture (0.5mL, 0.7 absorbance units)

A

10-35ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Expected DNA yield for feces (1mg; bacteria, fungi)

A

2-228 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Specimens adequate for analysis without DNA amplification

A

Blood
Buffy coat
Bone marrow
Cultured cells
Solid tissue
Lavage fluids
Mitochondria
Plasmid DNA, bacterial culture
Bacterial culture
Feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Specimens adequate for analysis with DNA amplification

A

Serum plasma, CSF
Dried blood
Saliva
Buccal cells
Bone, teeth
Hair follicles
Fixed tissue
Feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Expected DNA yield for Serum, Plasma, CSF (0.5mL)

A

0.3-3 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Expected DNA yield for dried blood (0.5-1 cm diameter spot)

A

0.04-0.7 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Expected DNA yield for Saliva (1ml)

A

5-15 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Expected DNA yield for buccal cells (1mg)

A

1-10 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Expected DNA yield for bone, teeth (500mg )

A

30-50 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Expected DNA yield for hair follicles

A

0.1-.0.2 ug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Expected DNA yield for fixed tissue (5-10x10 micron sections ; 10mm)

A

6-50 u

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Expected DNA yield for feces (animal cells, 1mg)
2-100 ug
26
Blood and bone marrow specimens preferred tube
Yellow tube with ACD Acid citrate dextrose for molecular studies
27
Other tubes for blood and bone marrow
Tripotassium / K3 (purple) Sodium Heparin (brown) and Lithium Heparin (green) - cytogenetics studies Non-additive tubes (Red) - cell free from specimen
28
Sample preparation of bacteria and fungi
Enzyme digestion Alkaline extraction Mechanical Disruption Boiling extraction
29
Proteinase K: digests proteins Lysozyme digests other cell organelles gentle procedure
Enzymatic digestion
30
Most common way of preparing bacteria and fungi samples 1% sodium dodecyl sulfate and 0.2 M NaOH EDTA as chelating reagent Glucose for destroying the cell wall
Alkaline Extraction
31
not usually used as it may also destroy the nucleic acid grinding if it is solid glass beads with vigorous shaking if plasmid
Mechanical Disruption
32
Method used if the sample is treated with lysoenzyme Diluted sucrose Triton X-100 detergent Tris buffer Edta
Boiling extraction
33
Sample preparation for nucleated cells in suspension
Differential density-gradient centrifugation Differential osmotic fragility of RBCs and WBCs
34
Whole blood or bone marrow mixed with isotonic saline is overlaid with Ficoll preferred method since it does not penetrate the cell membrane
Differential density-gradient centrifugation
35
Incubation in hypotonic water will result in the lysis of RBC and WBC
Differential osmotic fragility of RBCs and WBCs
36
released from solid tumors and transplanted organs
Exosomes
37
Sources of circulating nucleic acids Isolation of cell-free nucleic acid requires procedures to concentrate the target nucleic acid before isolation use of plasma for the purpose of diagnostic and prognostic analysis
Liquid biopsy
38
Liquid biopsy sources
Plasma, CSF, ascites, pleural fluid
39
Extracellular viruses is detected with
Liquid Biopsy
40
Sample preparation for tissue samples
Frozen tissue Grinding Mincing Fixed tissue
41
least damaging among tested fixatives
Neutral buffer formalin
42
worst fixatives for DNA recovery
Mercury based fixatives such as Bouin's and B5
43
How many base pairs can be obtained from a fixed tissue
100 base pairs
44
Frozen tissue can be grinded in
liquid nitrogen and homogenizing tissue
45
what do we use for deparaffinization
xylene and xylol
46
DNA isolation method
1. DNA Isolation chemistries 2. Proteolytic Lysis of Fixed Material 3. Rapid Extraction Methods 4. Isolation of Mitochondrial DNA
47
1. DNA Isolation chemistries
a. Organic Isolation Methods b. Inorganic Isolation Methods c. Solid-Phase Isolation
48
Not used organic isolation method today since they are carcinogenic
Phenol and chloroform
49
Isolation of small amounts of DNA from challenging samples such as fungi can be facilitated by pre-treatment with
Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide CTAB
50
Detergent that will separate the polysaccharide from the DNA (chitin)
Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide CTAB
51
can be added in first step or last step of the procedure (organic isolation method) - Purpose in the 1st step: to remove the presence of RNA - Purpose in the last step: to remove residual RNA
RNAse
52
dissolves hydrophobic contaminants such as lipids and lypoproteins
Phenol and Chloroform
53
Most preferred salt for organic isolation method
Sodium acetate and sodium chloride
54
Alternative salt for organic isolation method
Potassium acetate and lithium chloride
55
Procedure of organic isolation method
a. Lysis b. Acidification c. Centrifuge d. Extraction e. Precipitation f. The DNA at the bottom still has residual salts g. Resuspend them in buffer, Tris-EDTA or distilled water .
56
Organic isolation uses ________ for lysis
Sodium hydroxide and SDS
57
What do we use for acidification
Acetic acid and Salt
58
In what step will we add equal amount of phenol and chloroform
Extraction
59
In extraction we will form 3 layers which are the
> Aqueous phase: hydrophilic components > Ampiphilic phase: both hydrophobic & hydrophilic components > Organic phase: lipids & hydrophobic organic elements.
60
What will we use to precipitate the DNA
ethanol
61
This method was developed due to dangers of organic isolation
Inorganic isolation
62
Inorganic isolation main disadvantage
Salt precipitates protein and not other contaminants
63
high salt solution is used (Na acetate, NaCl, potassium acetate, lithium chloride) Also called as “SALTING OUT"
Preparation of Inorganic isolation Method
64
method that uses silica based products more rapid
Solid phase isolation
65
source of silica
Diatomaceous earth
66
Commonly used to isolate viral and bacterial DNA from serum, plasma, or cerebrospinal fluid.
Solid phase isolation
67
Preparation of solid phase isolation
a. 1st washing adsorption b. 2nd washing - elution
68
Proteolytic Lysis of fixed materials procedure
a. use xylene to remove the wax b. use 70% ethanol to rehydrate c. place the sample in a Tris-EDTA buffer d. add proteinase K to lyse the proteins in the sample
69
Cation-chelating resin
chelex
70
A suspension of 10% resin beads is mixed with the specimen, and the cells are lysed by boiling
Rapid extraction method
71
This method is most commonly used in forensics and purification of DNA
Rapid Extraction Method
72
Isolation of Mitochondrial DNA two types
a. Centrifugation (2-step centrifugation) b. Isolation of total DNA
73
speed of the first step of centrifugation in isolating mitochondrial DNA
700 to 2600 x g
74
What is the purpose of the first centrifugation step in mitochondrial DNA isolation?
Separate cell debris from supernatant containing mitochondria.
75
What is produced after the first low-speed centrifugation?
lower layer (cell debris), upper layer (supernatant).
76
What does the second high-speed centrifugation step yield?
Mitochondrial pellet and supernatant
77
Why is 1% SDS detergent used in mitochondrial DNA isolation?
To lyse mitochondria and remove proteins.
78
What is the role of cold ethanol in mitochondrial DNA isolation?
To precipitate mitochondrial DNA.
79
What buffer is used to resuspend mitochondrial DNA after precipitation?
Tris-EDTA buffer.
80
What method is used for total DNA isolation during mitochondrial DNA extraction?
Chemical extraction or proteolytic lysis
81
Why must RNases be eliminated during RNA isolation?
RNases degrade RNA, so they must be eliminated or inactivated.
82
What temperatures are ineffective in deactivating RNases?
-20°C, 100°C, and 121°C do not deactivate RNases.
83
What temperature is required to decontaminate glassware for RNA isolation?
Glassware must be decontaminated at 400°C for four to six hours.
84
What are the types of RNA found in total RNA?
rRNA, mRNA, and tRNA.
85
What are RNase-free (RNF) conditions?
Conditions where RNase enzymes are eliminated to prevent RNA degradation.
86
What is the RNA yield from 1 mL of blood?
1-10 µg.
87
What is the RNA yield from 1 mL of buffy coat ?
5-10 µg.
88
What is the RNA yield from 1 mL of bone marrow?
50-200 µg.
89
What is the RNA yield from 10^7 cultured cells?
50-150 µg.
90
How should RNA samples be stored to prevent degradation?
Frozen in liquid nitrogen or immersed in a buffer that inactivates RNases.
91
What is the RNA yield from 1 mg of buccal cells?
1-10 µg.
92
What is the RNA yield from 1mm2 of fixed tissue?
0.2-3 µg.
93
What is the RNA yield from 1 mg of solid tissue?
0.5-4 ug
94
What is the RNA yield from 0.5ml of bacterial culture?
10-100 ug
95
Which sample type is preferred for human RNA testing?
Bone marrow.
96
Can viral RNA be isolated from cell-free fluids?
Yes, using spin columns or beads.
97
RNA isolation methods
Organic Isolation Solid Phase Isolation Proteolytic lysis and Fixed material Isolation of PpolyA (messenger) RNA
98
What is used for RNA organic isolation?
Detergent or phenol with high salt (0.2 to 0.5 M NaCl).
99
What are the RNase inhibitors used in RNA isolation?
Guanidine isothiocyanate (GITC) and 2-mercaptoethanol.
100
What is the ratio of reagents in organic RNA extraction?
25:24:1 (acid phenol:chloroform alcohol).
101
What is the role of chloroform in RNA isolation?
Enhances nucleic acid extraction by protein denaturation and phase separation.
102
What is the pH of the organic phase in RNA isolation?
pH 4-6 (acidic).
103
What is used to optimize RNA adsorption in solid-phase isolation?
Commercial reagents supplied with silica-based columns
104
What type of RNA does the solid matrix in RNA isolation adsorb?
Single-stranded RNA.
105
Fixatives used in extraction of RNA
10% buffered neutral formullin Acetone Zambionis Clarke's Paraformaldehyde Methacam Formalin-alcohol acetic acid Carmoy's Zenkar's Boun's
106
What is the desirability and size range of 10% Buffered Neutral Formalin?
Desirability: Good Size Range: 20-50 kh
107
What is the desirability and size range of Acetone?
Desirability: Good Size Range: 20-50 kh
108
What is the desirability and size range of Zambionis?
Desirability: Not as good Size Range: 02-20 kh
109
What is the desirability and size range of Clarke's?
Desirability: Not as good Size Range: 08-10 kh
110
What is the desirability and size range of Paraformaldehyde?
Desirability: Not as good Size Range: 02-50 kh
111
Question: What is the desirability and size range of Methacam?
Desirability: Not as good Size Range: 07-15 kh
112
What is the desirability and size range of Formalin-Alcohol?
Desirability: Not as good Size Range: 10-40 kh
113
What is the desirability and size range of Acetic Acid?
Desirability: Less desirable Size Range: 01 kh
114
What is the desirability and size range of Carmoy's?
Desirability: Less desirable Size Range: 07-15 kh
115
What is the desirability and size range of Zenkar's?
Desirability: Less desirable Size Range: 07-15 kh
116
What is the desirability and size range of Boun's?
Desirability: Less durable Size Range: 01 kh
117
Why is polyA RNA important?
It is important in gene expression.
118
What information does polyA RNA carry?
It carries information from the DNA.
119
Why is polyA RNA used instead of rRNA in isolation?
It is used instead of rRNA.
120
How does the isolation process affect the yield of mRNA?
Enrich the yield of mRNA.
121
What type of oligomers are used in the isolation of polyA RNA?
Uses single-stranded oligomers of thymine or uracil.
122
How does the polyA tail interact with oligomers in the isolation process?
PolyA tail binds with polyT or polyU oligomers.
123
How is polyA RNA eluted from the column?
PolyA RNA is eluted by washing the column with warmed, low-salt buffer.
124
How much polyA RNA is expected from 1 µg of total RNA?
1 µg of total RNA = 30-40 ng of polyA RNA.
125
How does the isolation process reduce degradation of RNA?
Lessens degradation by degrading nucleases
126
Measurement of Nucleic Acid- Quality and Quantity
1. Electrophoresis 2. Spectrophotometry 3. Fluorometry 4. Microfluidics
127
What is the purpose of using dyes in electrophoresis?
Uses dyes to visualize the sample preparation.
128
What types of nucleic acids does Ethidium Bromide stain?
both DNA and RNA
129
What does SybrGreen I stain?
Stains DNA.
130
What does SybrGreen II stain?
Stains RNA.
131
What is unique about Silver Stain compared to fluorescence stains, and how does its storage affect staining?
Not a fluorescence stain; longer storage turns all staining “red”.
132
Which dyes are used for DNA and RNA, and which is used for visual inspection?
Ethidium Bromide and SybrGreen I are used for DNA and RNA, while Silver Stain is used for visual inspection.
133
What does a bright signal indicate in the context of supercoiled plasmid DNA?
Bright signal from supercoiled plasmid DNA.
134
Where does high-molecular-weight chromosomal DNA typically appear on the gel?
Near top of the gel.
135
What are the two distinct bands of ribosomal RNA observed in RNA electrophoresis?
28S rRNA 18S rRNA
136
How is the concentration of a sample determined using fluorescent dyes in electrophoresis?
Fluorescent dyes quantified by the fluorescence intensity of the sample aliquot run on the gel; higher intensity = higher concentration.
137
Why is densitometry considered more accurate for measuring band intensity in electrophoresis?
More accurate since a standard measure of density is provided.
138
At what wavelength do nucleic acids absorb light?
Nucleic acids absorb light at 260 nm.
139
What principle does spectrophotometry follow?
Spectrophotometry follows the Beer-Lambert Law.
140
What are the absorptivity constants for double-stranded DNA and RNA?
50 = dsDNA 40 = RNA
141
What is the concentration equivalent of one optical density unit at 260 nm for double-stranded DNA and RNA?
One optical density unit at 260 nm is equivalent to: 50 mg/L (or 50 µg/mL) of double-stranded DNA 40 µg/mL of RNA
142
How do you calculate the DNA concentration from an absorbance reading of 0.200 and a 1/100 dilution?
A DNA preparation diluted 1/100 yields an absorbance reading of 0.200 at 260 nm. Multiply: 0.200 absorbance units × 50 µg/mL per absorbance unit × 100 = 1,000 µg/mL
143
How do you calculate the yield of DNA if the concentration is 1,000 µg/mL and the volume is 0.5 mL?
The yield is calculated using the DNA concentration and volume. 1,000 µg/mL × 0.5 mL = 500 µg
144
At what wavelength do organic compounds show peak absorbance?
Peak absorbance at 230 nm.
145
At what wavelength does phenol show peak absorbance?
Peak absorbance at 270 nm.
146
At what wavelength do proteins show peak absorbance?
Peak absorbance at 280 nm.
147
At what wavelength does particulate matter show peak absorbance?
Peak absorbance at >330 nm.
148
What does 3,5-diaminobenzoic acid 2HCI (DABA) bind to?
Binds to all deoxyribose such as dsDNA & ssDNA.
149
Which base pairs does Hoechst 33258 bind to?
Binds to adenine & thymine base pairs.
150
What is the detection limit of DNA using Hoechst 33258
Can detect 250 µg/mL of DNA.
151
Used for specifically detecting dna
Hoechst 33258
152
What technology is utilized in microfluidics?
Uses lab-on-a-chip technology.
153
Where is the sample applied in microfluidics?
Sample is applied to a multi-well chip.
154
How does the sample move in a microfluidic system?
Sample moves through microchannels across a detector.
155
What configurations can the instrument software generate in microfluidics?
Instrument software generates images in electropherogram (peak) or gel (band) configurations.