Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MicroBiology Exam 2 > 3/8: Chlamydia, Ricketts, Spirochetes > Flashcards

3/8: Chlamydia, Ricketts, Spirochetes Flashcards

1
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis general info

A

gram negative, obligate intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: Chalmydia trachomatis has peptidoglycan in cell wall

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis has different ____ that have different ____ that cause ____

A

different biovars that have different tissue tropisms that cause different diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 cycles of the biphasic life cycle of chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. elementary bodies (EB) = infectious form

2. reticulate bodies (RB) = replicative form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the cycle between elementary bodies and reticulate bodies. What bacteria is it associated with?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

TARP proteins on EB attach to target cell, induce endocytosis.

Uses STP within cell to convert to RB and grow. This prevents lysosomal fusion to phagosome.

Once threshold of RBs is reached, converts back to EB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CPAF factor in chlamydia trachomatis regulates ____

A

apoptosis of the cell

CPAF releases EBs that go on to infect other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is spread only in humans through ____ contact

A

direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common bacterial STI in the world?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Chronic follicular conjunctivitis is spread via direct contact with ____

A

(chlamydia trachomatis)

fomites, fingers, flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chronic follicular conjunctivitis is characterized by ____

A

(chlamydia trachomatis)

follicular hypertrophy
(inflammatory nodules that cover conjunctiva which scratch the cornea and cause blindness of years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Urethral infection of chlamydia trachomatis affects __% of general population and has a ___ incubation period

A

5% general population

2-6 week incubation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

chlamydia trachomatis infections _______ of women.

infects ____ of men and women

A

women: columnar epithelial cells of endocervix, upper genital tract

men and women: urethra, conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Initial attachment of chlamydia trachomatis is mediated by ____ followed by ____

A

MOMP followed by endocytosis of bacteria

LGC biovars can also enter through breaks in skin/mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

After chlamydia trachomatis is acquired, primary injury is due to ____

A

inflammation via IL-8 release (frim infected epithelium and chlamydia LPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If immune system cannot control chlamydia trachomatis infection, _____ aggregate in the ___ causing ____

A

lymphocytes and macrophages aggregate in the submucosa

causing necrosis, fibrosis, scarring — leading to infertility in female repro tract or blindness if persistant in eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immunity against chlamydia trachomatis is incomplete. What does that mean?

A

50% of women still shed bacteria 1 year after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____ is the most protective against chlamydia trachomatis.

A

TH1

Th2 response is associated with chronic infection that have worse complications present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 eye diseases that can be caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. trachoma

2. inclusion conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 3 genital infections caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. urethritis/epididymitis
  2. cervicitis, salpingitis, urethral syndrome
  3. lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe trachoma

A

chlamydia trachomatis eye infection

chronic conjunctivitis that can lead to scarring of cornea

often causes blindness 15-20 years after infection was contracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe inclusion conjunctivitis

A

chlamydia trachomatis eye infection

acute infection of newborns 5-12 days after birth or even adults

not associated with blindness

if left untreated, can persist 3-12 months and in few cases will lead to infant pneumonia syndrome which usually clears on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe urethritis/epididymitis

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection in men can cause difficulty urinating or can cause urethral discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe cervicitis/salpingitis/urethral syndrome

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection in women

unusuallyt asymptomatic vaginal discharge with 5-30% developing pelvic inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describel ymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection

distinctively different STD caused only by INVASIVE BIOVARS that get into broken skin and cause transient genital lesions followed by swollen lymph nodes in groin (bubo) and can also cause hemorrhagic ulcerative proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
We used to diagnose chlamydia trachomatis infections by ____ now, ___
used to use swab of infected region now can use nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
26
Treatment for non-LGV chlamydia trachomatis infection: Treatment for LGV chlamydia trachomatis infection:
non-LGV: azithromycin LGV: doxycycline
27
Rickettsiae general info
gram negative, small coccobacilli, aerobic, use host GLUTAMATE
28
Rickettsiae is ___ intracellular parasite of eukaryotes
obligate
29
Rickettsiae are __-borne
arthropod
30
Describe the cell envelope of Rickettsiae
LPS + 2 other large OMP (outer membrane protein)
31
Rickettsiae undergo ____ of it's genome, leading to loss of many core metabolic capabilities. This results in it's dependency on ____
reductive evolution dependency on host
32
Rickettsiae are slow growing and divide via ____ in host cell cytoplasm/nucleus
binary fission
33
The ____ on rickettsiae attach to many cell types (specifically on the ____)
OMP attach to many cell types, specifically endothelium. Are then taken into cell via endocytosis
34
How do rickettsiae escape phagosome?
using phospholipase
35
Rickettsiae bacteria is found in ____
tick saliva
36
When a tick with rickettsiae bites a human, this causes ____.
necrotic eschar
37
What is the main disease associated with Rickettsiae?
rickettsiosis
38
What are the 2 main kinds of rickettsiosis?
1. spotted fever group | 2. typhus group
39
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis aka ___
rocky mountain spotted fever
40
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis is caused bY ___
rickettsia rickettsii
41
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis highest incidence between _____, in ages ___, most fatal in children under ___.
April-September Ages 60-69 Fatal in children under 10
42
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis has tropism for ___
endothelium
43
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis incubation period ____
6-7 days
44
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis most common symptom: _____ Describe the details of this symptom
erythematous macule rash develops on day 2-3. can become petechial rash begins on extremities and spread to trunk rash on palms/soles = diagnostic
45
Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis is left untreated can cause ____
complications that lead to death like blood clots, low platelets, encephalitis, VASCULAR COLLAPSE (leading to renal/heart failure)
46
How do you diagnose spotted fever group of rickettsiosis
hazardous to culture, difficult to diagnose until a week later when antibodies are already created begin therapy based on clinical signs, symptoms, patient history, followed by SEROLOGICAL DIAGNOSIS to confirm when using indirect fluorescent antibody or skil lesion biopsy
47
Treatment of spotted fever group of rickettsiosis
doxycycline within first week | there may not be a treatment after that....
48
The typhus group of rickettsiosis causes 3 different diseases. What are they?
1. epidemic typhus fever 2. endemic murine typhus 3. scrub typhus
49
Epidemic typhus fever is caused by _____ spread by ____
caused by rickettsia prowazekii spread by LICE
50
____ is the only epidemic rickettsial disease
epidemic typhus fever
51
In what populations is epidemic typhus fever found?
NOT IN US primarily in homeless populations/refugee camps in Africa, latin america, asia Some southeastern US flying animals can cause occassional sylvatic case
52
Describe how epidemic typhus fever infects humans
bacteria circulates in blood, infects lice on the human, kills lice 7-21 days later but presents in their poop 5-10 days after infection when lice feed, they poop which allows bacteria to re-enter the bloodstream
53
What are the symptoms of epidemic typhus fever?
incubation period/symptoms begin 1-2 weeks after infection 20-80% of patients get maculopapular rash (starting on trunk and spreading to spreading to extremities)
54
How do you diagnose epidemic typhus fever?
clinical history used to begin treatment, serology to confirm
55
What is the treatment for epidemic typhus fever?
doxycycline - must begin immediately | if untreated - fatality rate is 10-60% and increases with age
56
Endemic murine typhus is caused by ____ Transmitted by ____
caused by rickettsia typhi transmitted by rat flea in similar way louse-borne typhus is transmitted
57
Scrub typhus caused by ____ transmitted by ____
caused by orienta tsutsugamushi transmitted by chiggers as they feed
58
Scrub typhus initial lesion is ____
necrotic eschar fever slowly increases over a week maculopappular rash appears on trunk and then extremities (starting on trunk then extremities)
59
Scrub typhus is treated with ____
doxycycline
60
Bartonella is ____ intracellular parasite
facultative
61
Bartonella prefers to infect ____
endothelium | then erythrocytes
62
Bartonella is an opportunistic pathogen spread by ________
ticks, FLEAS, flies, mosquitoes
63
Bartonella can cause co-infections with ___
lyme disease
64
What are the 2 diseases associated with bartonella?
cat scratch disease | trench fever
65
Cat-scratch disease is caused by ____ Spread by ____ Prevention by ____ Symptoms: ____
bartonella hensealae spread by cat scratch or bite, or by cat fleas prevention: controlling fleas main symptom: swollen lymph nodes
66
Trench fever is caused by ____ spread by ____ target population ____
bartonella quintana spread by body lice affects homeless alcoholic men in france and U.S.
67
Describe spirochetes morphology
spiral/corkscrew, motile, flexible peptidoglycan cell wall with outer bi-layered membrane hard to see under routine microscopy
68
What are the main spirochetes important in medicine?
treponema pallidium | borrelia burgdorferi
69
Many spirochettes are part of normal ____
flora of oral cavity
70
What is trench mouth?
named from WWI troops correlated with severe malnutrition, neglect of basic oral hygiene spirochetes + anaerobic flora cause necrotizing, ulcerative infection of gums, oral cavity, pharynx
71
Describe treponema pallidium general info
highly motile spirochete, no LPS, easily killed, hard to study, causes syphilis
72
Describe the biology of treponema pallidium
``` minimalistic pathogen (relies on host for basic needs) strict anaerobe , slow growing ```
73
Treponema pallidum is acquired by ____
direct sexual contact with someone who has an active primary or secondary lesion (teriary = not contagous), contaminated needles
74
Congenital syphilis is acquired through ____
(treponema pallidum) acquired through transplacental transmission from mom to baby
75
In developed countries, incidence of primary/secondary syphilis and congenital syphilis is ____
on the rise
76
Treponema pallidium pathogenesis can reach ____
subepithelial tissues through unapparent breaks in skin/mucous membrane where it slowly multiplies without detection sopread to blood spread
77
Primary lesion of treponema pallidum causes ___
endarteritis (inflammation of inner lining of artery) causing necrotic ulceration later
78
Primary syphilis general info
associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes) 3 wks after exposure, primary lesion forms at contact point, 40% of the time it's painless, non-itchy 7-10 days later, lymp node enlargement without treatment, lesion will spontaneously heal 4-6 weeks
79
Secondary syphilis general info
associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes) occurs 2-8 weeks after primary infection in 1/3 patients macolupapular rash appears on palms/soles, sometimes on trunk and extremities lesions are HIGHLY contageous. 2/3 patients will develop LATENT SYPHILIS, 1/3 spontaneously clears
80
Latent syphilis general info
associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes) no clinical symptoms, serological positive tests occassional relapse can occur pregnant women can transmit this to the fetus
81
Secondary syphilis: 2/3 patients develop latent syphilis other 1/3 of patients develop ____. When would this take place?
teriary syphilis. associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes) Occurs 15-20 years later in numerous ways
82
Tertiary syphilis can occur in what ways? is this contagious?
1 neurosyphilis (neuro deficits) - common HIV patients 2 ocular syphilis - permanent blindness 3 cardiovascular syphilis - can lead to aneurysms 4 gumma - localized granuloma reaction found all over body THIS IS NOT CONTAGIOUS
83
All stages of syphilis are.... diagnosed via ____ treated via ____
diagnosed via serological detection of antibodies treated with penicillin
84
T/F Borrelia burgdorferi has no LPS
true
85
Borrelia burgdorferi is visible with ____ staining
giemsa or wright stains
86
Why is borrelia burgdorferi reliant on host cell?
lacks genes for many esential nutrients
87
Describe the genome of borrelia burgdorferi
partitioned genome that contains many icrcular and linear plasmids
88
borrelia burgdorferi has ___ different subspecies, and multiple classes of ___
18 diff subspecies multiple classes of OMPs (OspA and OspC, differently expressed depending on whether the bacteria is inside a tick or mammal)
89
Borrelia burgdorferi primarily live on ___
rodents, TICK LARVAE feed on the mice adn get the bacteria
90
borrelia burgdorferi is mainly contracted in ___
spring/summer when nymphs are feeding on hosts as part of life cycle
91
borrelia burgdorferi ID level
less than 20
92
borrelia burgdorferi has a life cycle that lasts 2 years, includes 3 blood meals. Describe these 3 meals.
1. larvae hatch from UNINFECTED EGGS, feed on infected host, acquire bacteria 2. infected larvae molt into nymphs, feed on host and infect them with bacteria 3. nyphs molt into adults which feed on DEER and mate (lyme disease only present when they feed on DEER)
93
NO DEER = NO DISEASE | this is associated with what bacteria
borrelia burgdorferi (spirochetes)
94
Describe primary lyme disease symptoms
associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi symptoms begin within 1 month appear as bull's eye rash (erythema migrans) at bite site fever, myalgia, joint pain
95
Describe secondary lyme disease symptoms
associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi happens in 50% of patients, develops secondary lesions that resemble the primary one. can develop days to months after primary rash involves nervous and cardiovascular systems - cranial nerve palsies - bilateral bell's - atrioventricular block leading to heart enlargement - arthritis
96
Chronic lyme's idsease is likely an ____
associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi likely an autoimmune state
97
Diagnosis of borrelia burgdorferi diseases ____
based on exposure and clinical findings can be hard for the 30% who don't develop this rash sEROLOGY can be used for later stage detection
98
Prevention of borrelia burgdorferi diseases via ___
wearing protective clothing to reduce chances of getting tick promptly remove tick if found (bc they must feed for 48-72 hours)
99
Treatment of borrelia burgdorferi via ___
doxycycline or b-lactams

MicroBiology Exam 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions