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MicroBiology Exam 2 > 3/8: Chlamydia, Ricketts, Spirochetes > Flashcards

3/8: Chlamydia, Ricketts, Spirochetes Flashcards

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1
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis general info

A

gram negative, obligate intracellular bacteria

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2
Q

T/F: Chalmydia trachomatis has peptidoglycan in cell wall

A

false

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3
Q

Chalmydia trachomatis has different ____ that have different ____ that cause ____

A

different biovars that have different tissue tropisms that cause different diseases

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4
Q

What are the 2 cycles of the biphasic life cycle of chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. elementary bodies (EB) = infectious form

2. reticulate bodies (RB) = replicative form

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5
Q

Describe the cycle between elementary bodies and reticulate bodies. What bacteria is it associated with?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

TARP proteins on EB attach to target cell, induce endocytosis.

Uses STP within cell to convert to RB and grow. This prevents lysosomal fusion to phagosome.

Once threshold of RBs is reached, converts back to EB.

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6
Q

CPAF factor in chlamydia trachomatis regulates ____

A

apoptosis of the cell

CPAF releases EBs that go on to infect other cells

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7
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is spread only in humans through ____ contact

A

direct

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8
Q

What is the most common bacterial STI in the world?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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9
Q

Chronic follicular conjunctivitis is spread via direct contact with ____

A

(chlamydia trachomatis)

fomites, fingers, flies

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10
Q

Chronic follicular conjunctivitis is characterized by ____

A

(chlamydia trachomatis)

follicular hypertrophy
(inflammatory nodules that cover conjunctiva which scratch the cornea and cause blindness of years)

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11
Q

Urethral infection of chlamydia trachomatis affects __% of general population and has a ___ incubation period

A

5% general population

2-6 week incubation period

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12
Q

chlamydia trachomatis infections _______ of women.

infects ____ of men and women

A

women: columnar epithelial cells of endocervix, upper genital tract

men and women: urethra, conjunctiva

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13
Q

Initial attachment of chlamydia trachomatis is mediated by ____ followed by ____

A

MOMP followed by endocytosis of bacteria

LGC biovars can also enter through breaks in skin/mucosa

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14
Q

After chlamydia trachomatis is acquired, primary injury is due to ____

A

inflammation via IL-8 release (frim infected epithelium and chlamydia LPS)

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15
Q

If immune system cannot control chlamydia trachomatis infection, _____ aggregate in the ___ causing ____

A

lymphocytes and macrophages aggregate in the submucosa

causing necrosis, fibrosis, scarring — leading to infertility in female repro tract or blindness if persistant in eye

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16
Q

Immunity against chlamydia trachomatis is incomplete. What does that mean?

A

50% of women still shed bacteria 1 year after infection

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17
Q

____ is the most protective against chlamydia trachomatis.

A

TH1

Th2 response is associated with chronic infection that have worse complications present

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18
Q

What are the 2 eye diseases that can be caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. trachoma

2. inclusion conjunctivitis

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19
Q

What are the 3 genital infections caused by chlamydia trachomatis

A
  1. urethritis/epididymitis
  2. cervicitis, salpingitis, urethral syndrome
  3. lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
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20
Q

Describe trachoma

A

chlamydia trachomatis eye infection

chronic conjunctivitis that can lead to scarring of cornea

often causes blindness 15-20 years after infection was contracted

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21
Q

Describe inclusion conjunctivitis

A

chlamydia trachomatis eye infection

acute infection of newborns 5-12 days after birth or even adults

not associated with blindness

if left untreated, can persist 3-12 months and in few cases will lead to infant pneumonia syndrome which usually clears on its own

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22
Q

Describe urethritis/epididymitis

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection in men can cause difficulty urinating or can cause urethral discharge

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23
Q

Describe cervicitis/salpingitis/urethral syndrome

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection in women

unusuallyt asymptomatic vaginal discharge with 5-30% developing pelvic inflammatory disease

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24
Q

Describel ymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

chlamydia trachomatis infection

distinctively different STD caused only by INVASIVE BIOVARS that get into broken skin and cause transient genital lesions followed by swollen lymph nodes in groin (bubo) and can also cause hemorrhagic ulcerative proctitis

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25
Q

We used to diagnose chlamydia trachomatis infections by ____

now, ___

A

used to use swab of infected region

now can use nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

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26
Q

Treatment for non-LGV chlamydia trachomatis infection:

Treatment for LGV chlamydia trachomatis infection:

A

non-LGV: azithromycin

LGV: doxycycline

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27
Q

Rickettsiae general info

A

gram negative, small coccobacilli, aerobic, use host GLUTAMATE

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28
Q

Rickettsiae is ___ intracellular parasite of eukaryotes

A

obligate

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29
Q

Rickettsiae are __-borne

A

arthropod

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30
Q

Describe the cell envelope of Rickettsiae

A

LPS + 2 other large OMP (outer membrane protein)

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31
Q

Rickettsiae undergo ____ of it’s genome, leading to loss of many core metabolic capabilities.

This results in it’s dependency on ____

A

reductive evolution

dependency on host

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32
Q

Rickettsiae are slow growing and divide via ____ in host cell cytoplasm/nucleus

A

binary fission

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33
Q

The ____ on rickettsiae attach to many cell types (specifically on the ____)

A

OMP attach to many cell types, specifically endothelium.

Are then taken into cell via endocytosis

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34
Q

How do rickettsiae escape phagosome?

A

using phospholipase

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35
Q

Rickettsiae bacteria is found in ____

A

tick saliva

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36
Q

When a tick with rickettsiae bites a human, this causes ____.

A

necrotic eschar

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37
Q

What is the main disease associated with Rickettsiae?

A

rickettsiosis

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38
Q

What are the 2 main kinds of rickettsiosis?

A
  1. spotted fever group

2. typhus group

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39
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis aka ___

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

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40
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis is caused bY ___

A

rickettsia rickettsii

41
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis highest incidence between _____, in ages ___, most fatal in children under ___.

A

April-September
Ages 60-69
Fatal in children under 10

42
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis has tropism for ___

A

endothelium

43
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis incubation period ____

A

6-7 days

44
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis most common symptom: _____

Describe the details of this symptom

A

erythematous macule rash

develops on day 2-3. can become petechial

rash begins on extremities and spread to trunk
rash on palms/soles = diagnostic

45
Q

Spotted fever group of rickettsiosis is left untreated can cause ____

A

complications that lead to death

like blood clots, low platelets, encephalitis, VASCULAR COLLAPSE (leading to renal/heart failure)

46
Q

How do you diagnose spotted fever group of rickettsiosis

A

hazardous to culture, difficult to diagnose until a week later when antibodies are already created

begin therapy based on clinical signs, symptoms, patient history, followed by SEROLOGICAL DIAGNOSIS to confirm when using indirect fluorescent antibody or skil lesion biopsy

47
Q

Treatment of spotted fever group of rickettsiosis

A

doxycycline within first week

there may not be a treatment after that….

48
Q

The typhus group of rickettsiosis causes 3 different diseases. What are they?

A
  1. epidemic typhus fever
  2. endemic murine typhus
  3. scrub typhus
49
Q

Epidemic typhus fever is caused by _____

spread by ____

A

caused by rickettsia prowazekii

spread by LICE

50
Q

____ is the only epidemic rickettsial disease

A

epidemic typhus fever

51
Q

In what populations is epidemic typhus fever found?

A

NOT IN US
primarily in homeless populations/refugee camps in Africa, latin america, asia

Some southeastern US flying animals can cause occassional sylvatic case

52
Q

Describe how epidemic typhus fever infects humans

A

bacteria circulates in blood, infects lice on the human, kills lice 7-21 days later but presents in their poop 5-10 days after infection

when lice feed, they poop which allows bacteria to re-enter the bloodstream

53
Q

What are the symptoms of epidemic typhus fever?

A

incubation period/symptoms begin 1-2 weeks after infection

20-80% of patients get maculopapular rash (starting on trunk and spreading to spreading to extremities)

54
Q

How do you diagnose epidemic typhus fever?

A

clinical history used to begin treatment, serology to confirm

55
Q

What is the treatment for epidemic typhus fever?

A

doxycycline - must begin immediately

if untreated - fatality rate is 10-60% and increases with age

56
Q

Endemic murine typhus is caused by ____

Transmitted by ____

A

caused by rickettsia typhi

transmitted by rat flea in similar way louse-borne typhus is transmitted

57
Q

Scrub typhus caused by ____

transmitted by ____

A

caused by orienta tsutsugamushi

transmitted by chiggers as they feed

58
Q

Scrub typhus initial lesion is ____

A

necrotic eschar

fever slowly increases over a week maculopappular rash appears on trunk and then extremities (starting on trunk then extremities)

59
Q

Scrub typhus is treated with ____

A

doxycycline

60
Q

Bartonella is ____ intracellular parasite

A

facultative

61
Q

Bartonella prefers to infect ____

A

endothelium

then erythrocytes

62
Q

Bartonella is an opportunistic pathogen spread by ________

A

ticks, FLEAS, flies, mosquitoes

63
Q

Bartonella can cause co-infections with ___

A

lyme disease

64
Q

What are the 2 diseases associated with bartonella?

A

cat scratch disease

trench fever

65
Q

Cat-scratch disease is caused by ____

Spread by ____
Prevention by ____
Symptoms: ____

A

bartonella hensealae

spread by cat scratch or bite, or by cat fleas

prevention: controlling fleas

main symptom: swollen lymph nodes

66
Q

Trench fever is caused by ____

spread by ____
target population ____

A

bartonella quintana

spread by body lice
affects homeless alcoholic men in france and U.S.

67
Q

Describe spirochetes morphology

A

spiral/corkscrew, motile, flexible peptidoglycan cell wall with outer bi-layered membrane

hard to see under routine microscopy

68
Q

What are the main spirochetes important in medicine?

A

treponema pallidium

borrelia burgdorferi

69
Q

Many spirochettes are part of normal ____

A

flora of oral cavity

70
Q

What is trench mouth?

A

named from WWI troops

correlated with severe malnutrition, neglect of basic oral hygiene

spirochetes + anaerobic flora cause necrotizing, ulcerative infection of gums, oral cavity, pharynx

71
Q

Describe treponema pallidium general info

A

highly motile spirochete, no LPS, easily killed, hard to study, causes syphilis

72
Q

Describe the biology of treponema pallidium

A 
minimalistic pathogen (relies on host for basic needs)
strict anaerobe , slow growing
73
Q

Treponema pallidum is acquired by ____

A

direct sexual contact with someone who has an active primary or secondary lesion (teriary = not contagous), contaminated needles

74
Q

Congenital syphilis is acquired through ____

A

(treponema pallidum)

acquired through transplacental transmission from mom to baby

75
Q

In developed countries, incidence of primary/secondary syphilis and congenital syphilis is ____

A

on the rise

76
Q

Treponema pallidium pathogenesis can reach ____

A

subepithelial tissues through unapparent breaks in skin/mucous membrane where it slowly multiplies without detection

sopread to blood spread

77
Q

Primary lesion of treponema pallidum causes ___

A

endarteritis (inflammation of inner lining of artery)

causing necrotic ulceration later

78
Q

Primary syphilis general info

A

associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes)

3 wks after exposure, primary lesion forms at contact point, 40% of the time it’s painless, non-itchy

7-10 days later, lymp node enlargement

without treatment, lesion will spontaneously heal 4-6 weeks

79
Q

Secondary syphilis general info

A

associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes)

occurs 2-8 weeks after primary infection in 1/3 patients

macolupapular rash appears on palms/soles, sometimes on trunk and extremities

lesions are HIGHLY contageous.

2/3 patients will develop LATENT SYPHILIS, 1/3 spontaneously clears

80
Q

Latent syphilis general info

A

associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes)

no clinical symptoms, serological positive tests

occassional relapse can occur

pregnant women can transmit this to the fetus

81
Q

Secondary syphilis: 2/3 patients develop latent syphilis

other 1/3 of patients develop ____. When would this take place?

A

teriary syphilis.

associated w/ treponema pallidium (spirochetes)

Occurs 15-20 years later in numerous ways

82
Q

Tertiary syphilis can occur in what ways?

is this contagious?

A

1 neurosyphilis (neuro deficits) - common HIV patients
2 ocular syphilis - permanent blindness
3 cardiovascular syphilis - can lead to aneurysms
4 gumma - localized granuloma reaction found all over body

THIS IS NOT CONTAGIOUS

83
Q

All stages of syphilis are….
diagnosed via ____
treated via ____

A

diagnosed via serological detection of antibodies

treated with penicillin

84
Q

T/F Borrelia burgdorferi has no LPS

A

true

85
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi is visible with ____ staining

A

giemsa or wright stains

86
Q

Why is borrelia burgdorferi reliant on host cell?

A

lacks genes for many esential nutrients

87
Q

Describe the genome of borrelia burgdorferi

A

partitioned genome that contains many icrcular and linear plasmids

88
Q

borrelia burgdorferi has ___ different subspecies, and multiple classes of ___

A

18 diff subspecies

multiple classes of OMPs (OspA and OspC, differently expressed depending on whether the bacteria is inside a tick or mammal)

89
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi primarily live on ___

A

rodents, TICK LARVAE feed on the mice adn get the bacteria

90
Q

borrelia burgdorferi is mainly contracted in ___

A

spring/summer when nymphs are feeding on hosts as part of life cycle

91
Q

borrelia burgdorferi ID level

A

less than 20

92
Q

borrelia burgdorferi has a life cycle that lasts 2 years, includes 3 blood meals. Describe these 3 meals.

A
  1. larvae hatch from UNINFECTED EGGS, feed on infected host, acquire bacteria
  2. infected larvae molt into nymphs, feed on host and infect them with bacteria
  3. nyphs molt into adults which feed on DEER and mate
    (lyme disease only present when they feed on DEER)
93
Q

NO DEER = NO DISEASE

this is associated with what bacteria

A

borrelia burgdorferi (spirochetes)

94
Q

Describe primary lyme disease symptoms

A

associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi

symptoms begin within 1 month

appear as bull’s eye rash (erythema migrans) at bite site

fever, myalgia, joint pain

95
Q

Describe secondary lyme disease symptoms

A

associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi

happens in 50% of patients, develops secondary lesions that resemble the primary one. can develop days to months after primary rash

involves nervous and cardiovascular systems

  • cranial nerve palsies - bilateral bell’s
  • atrioventricular block leading to heart enlargement
  • arthritis
96
Q

Chronic lyme’s idsease is likely an ____

A

associated w/ borrelia burgdorferi

likely an autoimmune state

97
Q

Diagnosis of borrelia burgdorferi diseases ____

A

based on exposure and clinical findings

can be hard for the 30% who don’t develop this rash

sEROLOGY can be used for later stage detection

98
Q

Prevention of borrelia burgdorferi diseases via ___

A

wearing protective clothing to reduce chances of getting tick

promptly remove tick if found (bc they must feed for 48-72 hours)

99
Q

Treatment of borrelia burgdorferi via ___

A

doxycycline or b-lactams

MicroBiology Exam 2 (8 decks)

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