2/20: Corynebacterium, Listeria, Bacillus, Mycoplasma, Myobacteria Flashcards

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1
Q

Cornebacterium diptheria general info

A

gram positive, aerobic

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2
Q

Pathogenic cornebacterium diptheria resides on _____

A

oropharynx

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3
Q

Pathogenic cornebacterium diptheria produces ____

A

diptheria toxin encoded on lysogenic bacteriophage

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4
Q

Non-pathogenic form of cornebacterium diptheria is called ___

these inhabit ____

A

diptheroids

These inhabit pharynx, nasopharynx, distal urethra, skin

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5
Q

Diptheria
caused by local (like _____) effects of diptheria toxin
and by systemic (like ____) effects of diptheria toxin

A

local - severe pharyngitis or tonsilitis

systemic - circulation of toxin ib lood can cause acute myocarditis

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6
Q

The toxin in cornebacterium diptheria is type ___ toxin

it is ___ endotoxin.

Describe the roles of the alpha and beta subunits.

A

type II toxin
a-b endotoxin (2 protein complex)

beta subunit binds to cell, endocytosis brings into cell

low pH of endocytic vacuole causes unfolding

alpha subunit translocated to the cytoplasm and inhibits protein synthesis

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7
Q

Cornebacterium diptheria is spread via ___

A

droplets, direct contact, fomites (less often)

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8
Q

T/F: Cornebacterium is found regularly in US

A

false

less than 10 cases per year because we use VACCINE

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9
Q

Describe the diagnosis of cornebacterium diptheria

A

clinically, then grown on selective media

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10
Q

Describe the immune response to cornebacterium diptheria

A

the toxin is antigenic

stimulates production of antibodies during inrection

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11
Q

What is the inactivated form of cornebacterium diptheria toxin used as a vaccine?

What is the immune response to this?

A

formalin = inactivated toxin used as vaccine

this is still antigenic - stimulates antibody production

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12
Q

Describe the prevention of diptheria

A

Immunizations provide protection against infections

Done in 3-4 shots in the first years of life, boosters every 10 years

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13
Q

Describe the treatment of diptheria

A

early administration of antitoxin, pencicllin, cephalosporin, erythromycin, tetracycline

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14
Q

Describe listeria monocytogenes general info

A

gram positive, bacilli (can resemble cornyebacterium and streptococci), aerobic (distinguishes it from strep)

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15
Q

How do we distinguish listeria monocytogenes from cornebacterium diptheria in terms of BACTERIOLOGY?

A

listeria monocytogenes = tumbling motility on fluid media at templs below 30* C, grows well on rich media at temps as low as 0* C

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16
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is the only listeria species that is _____ in humans

A

pathogenic

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17
Q

Listeriosis usually only presents itself when there is ____

A

widespread infection

associated w/ listeria monocytogenes

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18
Q

Foodborne outbreaks of listeriosis, symptoms = _____

A

nausea, stomach pain, diarrhea

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19
Q

widespread infection of listeriosis symptoms - ______

A

fever, malaise, occasional bacteremia

can cause encephalitis ad meningitis

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20
Q

What are the 3 main virulence factors of listeria monocytogenes?

A
  1. internalin
  2. lysteriolysin O
  3. actin polymerization
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21
Q

Why is internalin is a major virulence factor for listeria monocytogenes?

A

internalin attach to the host cells so that the bacteria can be taken up by endocytosis

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22
Q

Why is lysteriolysin O a major virulence factor for listeria monocytogenes?

A

lysteriolysin O lyses the endocytic vacuole and the bacteria is spread to the cytoplasm to replicate

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23
Q

Why is actin polymerization a major virulence factor for listeria monocytogenes?

A

actin polymerization allows it to properl itself from cytoplasm to the neighboring cell

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24
Q

Where is listeria monocytogenes found?

A

ubiquitous to soil, water, GI tracts of animals

foodborn pathogens spread from deli meat, dairy, uncooked food stored at low temps

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25
Q

Why is listeria monocytoenes hard to eliminate?

A

because of formation of biolfilm

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26
Q

Who is most susceptible to infection of listeria monocytogenes?

A

infants and elderly

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27
Q

How do we diagnose infection of listeria monocytogenes?

A

blood/CSSF culture which would show beta-hemolytic gram positive rods

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28
Q

The immune response for listeria monocytogenesis infection requires _____

A

innnate response (neutrophils killing bacteria)

and adaptive response (t-cell immunity for clearing infection and long-term protection)

29
Q

Wha tis the treatment for monocytogenesis?

how is this different fro immunocopromised patients?

A

ampicillin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

immunocompromised patients = ampicillin + gentamycin

30
Q

How can listeria monocytogenes be prevented?

A

avoid unpasteurized dairy products

thoroughly cook animal products

31
Q

Describe bacillus anthrasis general info

A

gram positive, spores, forming long chain rods, aerobic, non-motile, grows well on rich media

32
Q

Bacillus anthrasis contain endospores making it ______

A

very hardy, can survive well for decades in an environment

33
Q

Bacillus anthrasis dwell in the ___

A

soil

34
Q

Bacillus anthrasis produces ____ (potent endotoxin)

A

anthrax A

35
Q

Human anthrax is usually an ______

A

ulcerative sore on an exposed part of the body

usually resolves without complications

36
Q

How is human anthrax caused?

A

endospore germinates when it lands on human skin due to rich environment

37
Q

When human anthrax, edema is present at site of infection caused by ____

A

adenylate cyclase activity of the toxin

38
Q

What happens of the endospore of bacillus anthrasis is inhaled?

A

may cause pneumonia which could lead to respiratory failure/death

39
Q

What is the major virulence factor associated with bacillus anthrasis?

A

glutamic acid capsule (anti phagocytic)

40
Q

Anthrax primarily infects _____. How do they acquire this? How does this spread?

A

anthrax = toxin in bacillus anthrasis bacteria

primarily infects herbivores (cattle, horses) who acquire it from their pastures

humans can become infected when in contact with the animals (or in biological warfare)

41
Q

How do we diagnose bacillus anthrasis infection?

A

culture of skin lesion (ulcerative sore), sputum or blood, CSF

42
Q

Describe the immune response to bacillus anthrasis infection

A

specific mechanism unknown

experimental evidence says antibodies directed against toxin

43
Q

Describe preventative measures against bacillus anthrasis infection

A

euthanize animal

vaccinate!

44
Q

Describe mycoplasma and ureaplasma general info

A

smallest free living micro organisms
lacks cell wall
highly plemorphic (appear as coccoid bodies, filament,s bottle shaped)
cell boundary is a single trilaminar membrane that contains sterols

45
Q

Mycoplasma and ureaplasma : anaerobes or aerobes?

A

most are facultative anaeroes

exception: mycioplasma pneumoniae = aerobic

46
Q

How do mycoplasma and ureaplasma appear on special mycoplasma agar?

A

“fried egg”

47
Q

What toxin is associated with mycoplasma and ureaplasma?

A

CARDS toxin

48
Q

What does CARDS toxin do?

A

associated w/ mycoplasma and ureoplasma

interferes with ciliary action, causing nuclear vacuolization and fragmentation of trachael epithelial cells that lead to inflammation and de-squamation of mucosa

49
Q

What major disease do mycoplasma and ureaplasma cause?

A

walking pneumonia (infection of trachae, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli)

pharyngitis and otitis are common

50
Q

Mycoplasma and ureoplasma account for ___% of all pneumonia cases

A

10

51
Q

Mycoplasma and ureaplasma are acquired by ____

ID level _____
what time of year ____
outbreaks occur within ____)

A

acquired via droplet spread

low ID (100)

Occurs throughout the year commonly among teenagers

outbreaks occur within families or closed communities

52
Q

Describe the immunology of mycoplasma nad ureaplasma infection

A

b and t cell mediated responses

antibody titers peak at 2-4 weeks after infection

disappear gradually over 6-12 months

53
Q

Describe diagnosis of mycoplasma and ureaplasma infection

A

via COMPLEMENT FIXATION

cannot use traditional staining and culturing due to slow growth/lack of cell wall

54
Q

Describe treatment of mycoplasma and ureaplasma infections

A

macrolides, doxycycline, fluoroquinolones

55
Q

Descrine prevention of mycioplasma and ureaplasma infections

A

no vaccine

56
Q

T/F: mycoplasma and ureaplasma can cause STIs

A

true

mycoplasma genitalium and 2 species of ureaplasma may join n. gonorrhoeae and chlamydia trachomatis as STI causes

57
Q

Describe mycobacteria general info

A

slim, poorly staining, ACID FAST, obligate aerobes, non-motile

58
Q

Mycobacteria have
pathogenic species in ____
nonpathogenic species in ____

A

pathogenic - in animals

non pathogenic - in environment

59
Q

Mycobacteria are unique due to their ____ cell wall

A

lipid rich cell wall

60
Q

The main infection caused by mycobacteria is ____

What is this?

A

mycobacterium tuberculuosis

systemic infection usually manifested only by evidence of an immune response in most people

61
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can progress or reactivate after ____

When does this disease become particularly devastating?

A

after asymptomatic period (of years)

becomes particularly devastating when spreads outside of lungs and reaches CNS

62
Q

What are the symptosm of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

chronic pneumonia with fever, cough, blood sputum, weight loss

63
Q

1 cough generates ___ infected droplets of mycobacteria

A

3000

and it only takes less than 10 droplets to infect

64
Q

An infected droplet of mycobacterium is inhaled, it replicates in ____, spreads through ____ and into ___

A

replicates in alveoli, spreads through lymph, and into blood stream

multiples inside inactivated macrophages

65
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes ___ response.

If this is successful, ____
If this is unsuccessful, _____

A

TH 1 response (body’s attempt to activate the macrophages, because mycobacterium are replicating in INACTIVATE macrophages)

if successful - stops disease
if unsuccessful - delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) continues

66
Q

Describe the immune response to mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

TH 1 innate response

cytotoxic CD8+ lymphocytes may participate

67
Q

How do we diagnose mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

acid fast stain, PCR, tuberculin test, or quantiferon gold test

68
Q

What is the treatment for mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

first drug of isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampin, pyrazinamide

second drug of para-aminosalicylic acid, ethionamide, cycloserine, fluoriquinones

69
Q

What is the prevention for mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

BCG vaccine