245D Flashcards

0
Q

What is an aversive stimulus?

A

Any object, event, or situation that is presented immediately following a behavior in an attempt to suppress the behavior. Typically, an aversive stimulus is unpleasant or penalizes or confines.

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1
Q

What is an aversive procedure?

A

The application of an aversive stimulus contingent upon the occurrence of the behavior for the purposes of reducing or a eliminating the behavior.

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2
Q

What is a deprivation procedure?

A

The removal of a positive reinforcer following a response resulting in, or intended to result in, I decrease in the frequency, duration, or intensity of that response. Oftentimes the positive reinforcer available is goods, services or activities to which the person is normally entitled. The removal is often in the form of a delay or postponement of the positive reinforcement.

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3
Q

How is emergency use of manual restraint defined?

A

Using a manual restraint when a person poses an imminent risk of physical harm to self or others and is the least restrictive intervention that would achieve safety. Property damage, verbal aggression, or a person’s refusal to receive or participate in treatment or programming on their own do not constitute an emergency.

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4
Q

What is an incident?

A

Any occurrence which involves a person and requires the program to make a response that is not part of the programs ordinary provision of services to that person and includes:
serious injury of a person, a person’s death, any medical emergency/unexpected serious illness/significant unexpected change in an illness/medical condition of the person that requires the program to call 911/physician treatment/hospitalization, any mental health crisis that requires the program to call 911/medical health crisis intervention team, an act or situation involving a person that requires the program call 911/law-enforcement/the fire department, a person’s unauthorized or unexplained absence from a program, conduct by a person receiving services against another person receiving services (when meeting certain criteria for putting a person in harm or fear of harm).

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5
Q

What is meant by “least restrictive alternative?”

A

The alternative method for providing supports and services that is least intrusive and most normalized given the level of supervision and protection required for the person. This level of supervision and protection allows risk-taking to the extent that there is no reasonable likelihood that serious harm will happen to the person or others.

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6
Q

What is manual restraint?

A

Physical intervention intended to hold the person immobile or limit a person’s voluntary movement by using body contact as the only source of physical restraint.

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7
Q

What is mechanical restraint?

A

The use of devices, materials, or equipment attached or adjacent to the person’s body, or the use of practices that are intended to restrict freedom of movement or normal access to one’s body or body parts, or limits the person’s voluntary movement or holds of the person immobile as an intervention precipitated by a person’s behavior.
(Except for devices worn by the person that trigger electronic alarms to warn staff that a person is leaving a room or area, which do not, in and of themselves, restrict freedom of movement, or the adaptive aids or equipment or orthotic devices ordered by a healthcare professional used to treat or manage a medical condition.)

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8
Q

What is a positive support transition plan?

A

The plan required in section 245D.06, subdivision 5, paragraph (b), to be developed by the extended support team to implement positive support strategies to: eliminate the use of prohibited procedures, avoid the emergency use of manual restraint, and prevent the person from physically harming self or others.

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9
Q

What is seclusion?

A

Placement of a person alone in a room from which exit is prohibited by a staff person or a mechanism such as a lock, a device, or an object positioned to hold the door closed or otherwise prevent the person from leaving the room.

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10
Q

How is time-out defined?

A

Removing a person involuntarily from an ongoing activity to a room, either locked or unlocked, or otherwise separating a person from others in a way that prevents social contact and prevents the person from leaving the situation if the person chooses. This does not include voluntary movement to such locations.

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11
Q

When must a person be informed of their individual rights?

A

Within five working days of service initiation and annually thereafter.

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12
Q

What are the person’s service-related rights?

A

The right to participate in the development and evaluation of the services provided to the person, have services and supports identified in the coordinated needed service and support plan (and addendum) provided in a manner that respects and takes into consideration the person’s preferences, refuse or terminate services and be informed of the consequence of doing so, know in advance limits to the services available from the license holder including the license holder’s knowledge/skill/ability to meet the person service and support needs, know conditions and terms governing the provision of services including the license holder’s admission criteria and policies and procedures related to temporary service suspension and service termination, a coordinated transfer to ensure continuity of care when there’ll be a change in the provider, know what the charges are for services regardless of who will be paying for them and to be notified of changes in those charges, know in advance whether services are covered by insurance/government funding/other sources and be told of any charges the person or other private party may have to pay, receive services from an individual who is competent and trained and who has professional certification/licensure was required and who meets additional qualifications identified in the person’s coordinated service and support plan (or addendum).

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13
Q

What are the person’s protection rights?

A

Right to have personal/financial/service/health/medical information kept private and to be a advised of disclosure, access records and recorded information about the person in accordance with applicable state and federal law/regulation/rule, be free from maltreatment, be free from restraint/timeout/seclusion except for emergency use of a manual restraint to protect the person from imminent danger to self or others, receive services in a clean and safe environment where the license holder is the owner/lessor/tenant of the service site, be treated with courtesy and respect and receive respectful treatment of the person’s property, reasonable observance of cultural and ethnic practice and religion, be free from bias and harassment regarding age/race/gender/disability/spirituality/sexual orientation, be informed of and use the license holder’s grievance policy and procedures, know the name/number/other contact information of protection and advocacy services and how to file a complaint with these offices, assert these rights personally or have them asserted by the persons family or representative without retaliation, give or withhold written informed consent to participate in any research or experimental treatment, associate with other persons of the person’s choice, personal privacy, and engage in chosen activities.

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14
Q

When must an incident be reported?

A

Within 24 hours of the incident occurring while services are being provided or within 24 hours of discovery or receipt of information that an incident occurred unless the license holder has reason to know that the incident has already been reported or is otherwise directed in a person’s coordinated service and support plan (or addendum).

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15
Q

Who do you report an incident to?

A

The Department of Human Services Licensing Division and the Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

16
Q

What are the prohibited procedures?

A

Chemical restraints, mechanical restraints, manual restraints, time out, seclusion, or any other aversive or deprivation procedure, as a substitute for adequate staffing, for a behavioral or therapeutic program to reduce or eliminate behavior, as punishment, or for staff convenience.

17
Q

What are permitted procedures?

A

Use of the instructional techniques and intervention procedures as described is permitted when used on an intermittent or continuous basis. Physical contact or instructional techniques must use the least restrictive alternative possible to meet the needs of the person, restraint maybe used as an intervention procedure to allow a healthcare provider to safely conduct the medical examination or provide medical treatment as ordered or to promote healing/recovery from an acute medical condition or to assist in the safe evacuation or redirection of a person in the event of an emergency and the person is imminent risk of harm.

18
Q

When can restraint be used?

A

When a person is imminently in danger of harming herself or others.

19
Q

When can emergency manual restraint be used?

A

Immediate intervention must be needed to protect the person or others from imminent risk of physical harm and the type of manual restraint used must be the least restrictive intervention to eliminate the imminent risk of harm and effectively achieve safety. The manual restraint must end when the threat of harm ends.

20
Q

When must manual restraint be terminated?

A

When the threat of harm ends.

21
Q

What is prone restraint and when can it be used?

A

Use of manual restraint that places a person in a facedown position, not including other restraints in which the person turns to this position but then is uprighted. Only in an emergency.

22
Q

When must emergency use of manual restraint be reported?

A

Within three calendar days after an emergency use of manual restraint

23
Q

How do you report emergency use of manual restraint?

A

Who was involved, what happened leading up to the incident, what less restrictive alternative measures were attempted, what was the state of the person who was restrained, was there any injury to the person or staff before or as a result of manual restraint, etc. Submit for internal review.

24
Q

When can most of the internal review of emergency manual restraint be completed?

A

Within 5 working days.

25
Q

What is the purpose of the expanded support team review?

A

Discuss the incident reported, to define the antecedent or event that gave rise to the behavior resulting in the manual restraint and identify the perceived function the behavior served; determine whether the person’s coordinated service and support plan addendum needs to be revised to positively and effectively help the person maintain stability and to reduce or eliminate future occurrences requiring emergency use of manual restraint.

26
Q

What is person-centered planning?

A

Providing services in response to the person’s identified needs, interests, preferences, and desired outcomes as specified in the coordinated service and support plan (and addendum), and in compliance with the requirements of this chapter. Services must be provided in a manner that supports the person’s preferences, daily needs, and activities and accomplishment of the person’s personal goals and service outcomes. Respects each person’s history/dignity/cultural background. Provides opportunities for the development and exercise of functional and age-appropriate skills/decision-making and choice/personal advocacy/communication. Provides the most integrated setting and inclusive service delivery.

27
Q

What is self-determination?

A

The person makes decisions independently, plans for the person’s own future, determines how money is spent for the person’s support, and takes responsibility for making these decisions.

28
Q

When must a preliminary coordinated service and support plan be developed?

A

Within 15 days of service initiation.

29
Q

When must of the preliminary service plan be reviewed and/or revised?

A

Within 60 days of service and initiation.

30
Q

What are the requirements to be a behavior professional?

A

Competences in ethical considerations, functional assessment, functional analysis, measurement of behavior and interpretation of data, selecting intervention outcomes and strategies, behavior reduction in the elimination strategies that promote least restrictive approved alternatives, data collection, staff and caregiver training, support plan monitoring, co-occurring mental disorders or neurocognitive disorder, demonstrated expertise with populations being served; must be a licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed physician, licensed clinical counselor, person with a Masters degree from an accredited school in one of the behavioral sciences or related fields (plus experience hours), or a registered nurse certified as a clinical specialist or nurse practitioner.

31
Q

What are the qualifications for a behavior analyst?

A

Must have obtained a baccalaureate degree, Masters degree, or PhD in a social services discipline or meet the qualifications of a mental health practitioner. In addition, a behavior analyst must have four years of supervised experience working with individuals who exhibit challenging behaviors as well as co-occurring mental disorders or neurocognitive disorder, received instruction in functional assessment/functional analysis, understanding of the function of behavior, design of positive practices behavior support strategies, the use of behavior reduction approved strategies used only in combination with behavior positive practices strategies.

32
Q

Can a behavior analyst work independently?

A

No, a behavior analyst must be under the direct supervision of a behavior professional.