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past paper > 2016 > Flashcards

2016 Flashcards

1
Q

a) Four causes of candidosis

A
  • Prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • Long term corticosteroid use
  • Immunocompromised
  • Diabetes
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Poorly fitting dentures
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2
Q

b)Name the organisation and virulence factor responsible for candidiasis

A
  • C. Albicans
  • Hyphae
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3
Q

c)What are the stages of biofilm formation

A
  • Adhesion
  • Colonisation
  • Accumulation
  • Complex community
  • Dispersal
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4
Q

d) How would you test for this organism and suggest a lab identification method

A
  • Swab/ oral rinse
  • PCR for C. Albicans DNA and if positive present
    Next gene sequencing
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5
Q

a) What is the gold standard study design method

A
  • Systematic Review (and meta-analysis) of RCTs
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6
Q

e) Give the method of action for fluconazole and nystatin

A

Flucanzole= Affect the ergoserol and inhibit it to be synthesised leading to destabalising of cell membrane

Nystatin(polyene)=They bind to ergosterol in the cell membrane directly and lead to cell death

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7
Q

f) Name 3 other study designs and explain them

A
  • Case control study: Takes a group of people with the disease and a group without and looks retrospectively at risk factor exposure
  • Cohort Study: Take a group of people measure their exposure to risks following up after a period of time
  • Cross sectional study: Take a group of people at a set point in time and determine their prior exposure to risks and current health status
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8
Q

a) Draw an audit flow chart

A

Plan for audit → Select criteria → Measure performance → Make improvements → Sustain improvements

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9
Q

b) What are the principles of waste disposal

A
  • Segregation of waste
  • Safe handling of sharps
  • Safe storage of waste
  • Use of appropriate disposal pathways
  • Documentation
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10
Q

c) Name 3 regulations for waste disposal. (3 marks)

A
  • Hazardous waste directive (2011)
  • Health and safety at work act (1974)
  • Environmental protection act (1990)
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11
Q

e) Name one agent that can be used to clean blood spillages (1 mark)

f) What concentration would they be used at and what is the active agent (2 marks)

A
  • Sodium hypochlorite
  • 10,000ppm
  • Chloride
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12
Q

c) Short and long term consequences of overhanging restorations

A
  • Food may become trapped between teeth
  • Overhang acts as a plague retentive factor
  • Secondary caries
  • Gingivitis
  • Food trap
  • Difficulty cleaning
  • Microleakage
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13
Q

b)Two reasons for mesial overhang of restoration of 46 + 47. (2 marks

A

-Poor adaptation of matrix band
-Excessive force used when condensing amalgam

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14
Q

two methods to correct overhang and preferred method

A
  • By retreatment - replace restoration. Use wedges to ensure well adapted.
  • Finishing strips interproximal
  • Preferably replace restoration
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15
Q

a) Patient presents with EDP# and exposed RTC give 5 functions of a provisional restoration in this scenario (5 marks)

A
  • Provide coronal seal for RCT
  • Provides aesthetics
  • Improve speech
  • Improve masticatory function
  • Maintain space
  • Allow for optimum home care OH
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16
Q

b) Name three types of prefabricated crowns

A
  • Polycarbonate
  • Clear plastic crown filled with composite
  • Preformed malleable composite crowns
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17
Q

a) How would you manage an ED# in an 8 year old boy. (2 marks

A

-Assess for soft tissue damage
-If patient has fragments rebond to tooth or place composite bandage
-Sensibility testing
-Definitive restoration

18
Q

c) Four things included on trauma stamp. (4 marks

A
  • Sinus
  • Tender to percussion
  • ECL
  • EPT
  • Mobility
  • Colour
  • Radiograph
  • Percussion note
19
Q

b) Explain the pattern of distribution seen in nursing bottle caries

A
  • Nursing position of tongue protects lower incisors
  • Upper incisors experience cariogenic environment due to bottle top resting against palate
  • Upper incisors experience greater level of caries due to earlier eruption and therefore longer exposure
  • If habit persist other present teeth will be affected
  • Mainly upper anterior and upper/lower molars
20
Q

c) Explain four causes of nursing bottle caries. (2 marks)

A

-Young children being given high sugar drinks
-Young children being given acidic drinks
-Children being put to bed with a nursing bottle
-Use of a bottle instead of feeding cup from 6 months

21
Q

b) List four signs of late stage dementia. (2 marks)

A
  • Inability to recognise familiar people
  • Physical frailty
  • Difficulty eating
  • Incontinence
22
Q

c) Name two cognitive tests for dementia. (2 marks)

A

Mini mental state examination (MMSE)

Blessed dementia scale

23
Q

d) Three ways a dental practice can be made dementia friendly. (3 marks)

A
  • Reception desk visible from the entrance
  • Walls a different colour from floor
  • Doors to staff only rooms should be same colour as walls
  • Ensure there is good levels of natural lighting
24
Q

a) What are the causes of malocclusion locally? (2 marks)

A
  • Variation in tooth number
  • Variation in tooth size or form
  • Abnormalities of tooth position
  • Soft tissue abnormalities
  • Local pathology
25
Q

b) Name four abnormalities of tooth number that can cause malocclusion. (4 marks

A

Supernumerary teeth
- Hypodontia
- Retained primary teeth
- Early loss of permanent teeth
- Unscheduled loss of permanent teeth

26
Q

b) What is a Multi – Disciplinary Team? (1 mark)

c) List three members that may be present in a multidisciplinary beam. (3 marks)

A

A team made up of individuals of different specialities working together to provide complete patient care

-Dentist
-Oncologist
-Cardiologist
-GMP

27
Q

b) What is SIMD and what is it based off?

A

Scottish index of multiple deprivation
- Based on access to services, education, employee, housing, income, crime and health

28
Q

c) What are two roles of epidemiology?

A

Measurement of amount and distribution of disease

Development of preventative programmes

Assess risk of disease

29
Q

d) Define incidence (1 mark)

A

The number of new cases of a disease in a set time frame

30
Q

e) Define prevalence (1 mark)

A
  • The number of people with a disease in the population at a given point in time
31
Q

b) What is work hardening? (3 marks)

A
  • Words done at temperatures below recrystallisation temperature such as bending, rolling or swaging
  • This causes slip so any dislocations in the lattice collect at grain boundaries
  • This results in a stronger, harder material
32
Q

c) What is meant by springiness? (1 mark)

A
  • The ability to undergo large deflections without permanent deformation
33
Q

d) What are two disadvantages of self-cure PMMA? (2 marks

A
  • Water absorption can cause expansion
  • Poorer colour stability
  • Poorer mechanical properties
  • Unreacted monomer can act as irritant
34
Q

a) In our patients INR diary which two pieces of information are important? (2 marks)

A
  • Date of test
  • Value of INR
35
Q

d) The patient’s INR is unstable how would General practitioner GP assess this? (2 marks)

A
  • High variation in INR between testing dates
  • Modify dose of Warfarin
36
Q

a) How is facial palsy caused by inferior alveolar dental block IDB? (2 marks)

A

Needle positioned too far posteriorly into parotid gland
- Facial nerve runs through the parotid so is anaesthetised
- Dense fascia in this area slows diffusion prolonging paralysis of facial muscles

37
Q

b) Describe three differences between stroke and a facial palsy. (3 marks)

A
  • Ability to raise eyebrows in stroke
  • Strobe lesions are on the opposite side than effected
  • Ability to scrunch forehead with stroke
38
Q

c) Explain the neural anatomy which accounts for these differences. (3 marks)

A
  • A stroke affects nerve in the brain resulting in supra nuclear lesion
  • The afferent nerve fibres in the brain cross sides before reaching the nucleus of the facial nerve therefore affects the opposing side
  • Above the forehead there is partial nerve supply from CNVII of the same side so can still be moved
  • Facial palsy is due to lesion after the nucleus and so all branches are affected
39
Q

ow would you determine if impression for ceramic inlay is usable? (3 marks)

A
  • Check for airblows
  • Sufficient detail of prepared tooth
  • Check for distortion
  • Even and appropriate thickness of impression material
40
Q

b) List four potential faults with the impression. (4 marks)

A
  • Air blows
  • Voids
  • Tears
  • Drags
  • Insufficient sulcus depth
  • Inappropriate material

past paper (6 decks)

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