2011 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

_______________________________ is a lipophilic yeast that commonly causes otitis externa in dogs and cats

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

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2
Q

_______________________________ is a systemic fungal organism that subclinically infects a large percentage of the population in the Mississippi and Ohio River Valley states.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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3
Q

_______________________________ is an endophyte fungus commonly found in fescue grass.

A

Acremonium coenophialum

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4
Q

_______________________________ is a large yeast that buds on a broad base that is most commonly identified in transtracheal washings

A

Balstomyces dermatitidis

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5
Q

_______________________________ is an organism that causes chronic infections of the nasal, ocular and pharyngeal mucosa leading to the formation of polyps

A

Rhinosporidium seebri

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6
Q

____________________________ is the most common fungal organism causing clinically significant infections of mucosal surfaces

A

Candida albicans

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7
Q

_______________________________ is a yeast that has a predilection for growing in neural tissues.

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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8
Q

_______________________________ is a mycotoxin commonly found along with deoxynivalenol (DON or vomitoxin).

A

Zearalone

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9
Q

_______________________________ is a common term for dermatophytosis of the comb or wattles of birds.

A

favus

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10
Q

_______________________________ is a tumor-like lesion caused by a fungal organism

A

Mycetoma

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11
Q

____________ is used to demonstrate the capsule of Filobasidiella neoformans

A

India Ink

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12
Q

List two good reasons why it is relatively difficult to obtain an accurate diagnosis of mycotoxicosis?

A

usually a chronic illness

difficult to isolate from feed or muscle

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13
Q

T or F Trichophyton verrucosum causes non-proliferative lesions on cattle.

A

False

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14
Q

T or F Microsporum canis is a zoophilic dermatophyte

A

True

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15
Q

T or F A white, fluffy colony that turns Dermatophyte Test Medium yellow within two weeks is most likely a dermatophyte.

A

False

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16
Q

T or F The genus Ascomyces has been reserved for all the dermatophytes.

A

False

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17
Q

T or F The only basidiomycete capable of producing systemic disease in animals is Cryptococcus neoformans.

A

False

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18
Q

T or F Bat feces are known to commonly contain spores of Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

False

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19
Q

T or F Aflatoxin can be produced by both Aspergillus flavus and Fusarium roseum.

A

False A. flavus and A. parasiticus

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20
Q

T or F Aflatoxin can accumulate in the muscle tissues of humans

A

True

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21
Q

T or F Coccidioides immitis grows in soil and produces high numbers of sporangia containing thousands of sporangiospores that are readily inhaled

A

False

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22
Q

T or F The perfect states of all the dermatophytes have been described

A

False

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23
Q

Which of the following are the main causes of chromomycosis?

a. Dematiacious fungi
b. Ascomycetes
c. Deuteromycetes
d. Yeasts
e. Dimorphic fungi

A

a. Dematiacious fungi

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24
Q

Which of the following is a common natural habitat of Cryptococcus neoformans?

a. Pigeon and other bird and bat feces.
b. Rotted hay and straw in livestock bedding..
c. Soil in desert climates
d. Sawdust bedding that has gotten wet and started to rot.
e. All the above.

A

a. Pigeon and other bird and bat feces.

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25
Q

Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?

a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Mucor
d. Microsporum canis
e. Trichophyton verrucosum

A

b. Blastomyces dermatitidis

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26
Q

Mycotic respiratory infection in penguins:

a. Has been commonly associated with species of Penicillium.
b. Is transmitted primarily through moldy feed grains fed to penguins in zoos.
c. Is usually a type of brooder pneumonia that the birds become infected with at an early age.
d. Has been linked to global warming.
e. None of the above.

A

Is usually a type of brooder pneumonia that the birds become infected with at an early age

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27
Q

Which of the following is most likely to infect via inhalation and be disseminated via a hematogenous route?

a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Rhizopus
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Candida albicans
e. Scopulariopsis

A

c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

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28
Q

____________ and _____________ are the full names of the two distinct growth forms of Chlamydia and Chlamydophila species.

A

Elementary bodies

reticular bodies

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29
Q

___________ is a long-acting macrolide class antimicrobial commonly used for treatment of respiratory disease in cattle and swine

A

Draxxin

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30
Q

__________ is a commonly used antimicrobial that is susceptible to cleavage by beta-lactamase.

A

Penicillin

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31
Q

___________ is a commonly used antimicrobial that inhibits DNA-gyrase.

A

Fluoroquinolones

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32
Q

_______________________________ is the only member of the Rickettsiales that commonly infects the intestinal mucosa

A

Neorickettsia risticii

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33
Q

_______________________________ is an organism that causes abortions and other reproductive problems in cattle and severe hepatitis and nephritis in dogs

A

Leptospira interrogans

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34
Q

_______________ is the cause of anterior uveitis (periodic opthalmia) in horses.

A

Leptospira interrogans serovar pomona

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35
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of follicular conjunctivitis and polyarthritis in lambs

A

Chlamydophila abortus

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36
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of terminal pancytopenia in German Shepherd dogs

A

Ehrilichia canis

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37
Q

_______________________________ is an organism that has been essentially eradicated from the U.S. commercial turkey population through egg dipping, egg heating and the use of artificial insemination with negative semen

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

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38
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of bacillary dysentery in primates.

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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39
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in ruminants.

A

Clostridium hemolyticum

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40
Q

What is the major mechanism of action of the toxin involved in the Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) outbreak associated with consumption of sprouts in Germany in the summer of 2011?

A

NAD dependent ADP ribosylation of elongation factor II

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41
Q

The presence of multiple fimbrial types complicates immunization against which of the following:

a. Foot-rot in sheep.
b. Keratoconjunctivitis in cattle.
c. Edema disease in swine.
d. All the above
e. Only b and c above.

A

d. All the above

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42
Q

What is the basis of the protection afforded by the siderophore receptor protein (SRP) vaccine of salmonella?

a. The vaccine stimulates the production of antibody that can agglutinate the organism and limit infection.
b. The vaccine stimulates a cell mediated immune response against antigens common to all salmonella.
c. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody against core lipopolysaccharides present on all salmonella.
d. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody that limits the uptake of iron by all salmonella.
e. The vaccine stimulates an IgA response that is better able to prevent attachment of salmonella to the intestine.

A

d. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody that limits the uptake of iron by all salmonella.

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43
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause enteritis in Basque sheep herders in association with using their teeth to castrate lambs?

A

d. Chlamydophila pecorum

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44
Q

Trachoma in humans:

a. Is caused by Chlamydial infection.
b. Is manifested as a tracheitis.
c. Is relatively difficult to treat with antimicrobials.
d. Is only seen in South America.
e. Is a general term for tumor-like lesions of the ocular mucosa.

A

a. Is caused by Chlamydial infection.

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45
Q

A PCR test is commonly used to diagnose:

a. Canine leptospirosis
b. Equine neorickettsiosis
c. Porcine proliferative enteropathy
d. All the above
e. Only a and c above.

A

d. All the above

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46
Q

A “sterilizing immune response”:

a. Most commonly occurs with leptospiral infection of maintenance hosts.
b. Most commonly occurs when the host becomes severely ill but survives.
c. Most commonly occurs in birds infected with Chlamydophila psittaci.
d. Most commonly occurs with Pseudomonas aeruginosa skin infections in humans.
e. Most commonly occurs in cattle vaccinated against Mycoplasma bovis.

A

b. Most commonly occurs when the host becomes severely ill but survives.

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47
Q

Brucella melitensis:

a. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in goats.
b. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in humans.
c. Is commonly found in the goat populations in the Southwestern U.S.
d. Is only found in the bison in Yellowstone National Park
e. Is only found in South and Central America.

A

a. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in goats.

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48
Q

Dogs infected with Brucella canis:

a. Usually have no clinical signs.
b. May have a persistent bacteremia (may last 1-2 years).
c. May have epididymitis and testicular atrophy.
d. All the above
e. Only b and c above.

A

d. All the above

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49
Q

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase producers (ESBL) are a problem in which of the following?

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Pasteurella multocida
e. Chlamydophila abortus

A

a. Klebsiella pneumoniae

50
Q
  1. T or F An organism that has lipooligosaccharide instead of lipopolysaccharide is termed a rough organism.
A

True

51
Q
  1. T or F Enterotoxins are essentially identical to endotoxins.
A

False

52
Q
  1. T or F The flagella of spirochetes are located under the peptidoglycan layer.
A

False

53
Q
  1. T or F A single serovar of leptospira can belong to two different species of leptospira.
A

true

54
Q
  1. T or F Effective vaccination against leptospira usually protects against clinical disease but does not prevent against infection.
A

true

55
Q
  1. T or F Bacterial culture for Brachyspira hyodystenteriae is commonly done at 42 degrees Celsius.
A

True

56
Q
  1. T or F Brachyspira hyodysenteriae most commonly infects the terminal ileum.
A

false

57
Q
  1. T or F Vaccination against Potomac Horse Fever is almost always highly protective despite the existence of different serological variants of the the causative organism.
A

false

58
Q
  1. T or F Tertiary diseases associated with spirochetes are usually manifested as kidney failure.
A

fasle

59
Q
  1. T or F Lyme disease in Europe is caused by two additional geno-species of Borrelia.
A

True

60
Q
  1. T or F Species of Brucella that are rough are lacking both the A and M somatic antigens.
A

True

61
Q
  1. T or F Mycobacterium avium is the most common cause of tuberculosis in swine.
A

True

62
Q
  1. T or F Brucella suis has a tendency to more generalized spread in the host and can often infect bone as well as cause reproductive problems in swine.
A

True

63
Q
  1. T or F Most dogs with Brucella canis infections remain carriers after antimicrobial treatment.
A

true

64
Q

What is the mechanism of Listeriolysin O

A

Sequestration of cholesterol in phagosomal membrane

65
Q

What is the mechanism of Streptolysin O

A

Sequestration of cholesterol in cell membrane

66
Q

What is the mechanism of Mannheimia haemolytica leukotoxin

A

Pore-forming (RTX)

67
Q

What is the mechanism of Actinobacillus equuli leukotoxin

A

Pore-forming (RTX)

68
Q

What is the mechanism of Clostridium botulinum toxin

A

Protease activity

69
Q

What is the mechanism of E. coli STb toxin

A

opening of ion channels

70
Q

What is the mechanism of Cholera toxin

A

Adenylate Cyclase

71
Q

What is the mechanism of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis toxin

A

Phospholipase D

72
Q

What is the mechanism of Edema disease toxin

A

NAD-Dependent ADP Ribosylation of EF2

73
Q

What is the mechanism of Moraxella bovis leukotoxin

A

Pore-forming (RTX)

74
Q

_______________________________ causes rainbow trout fry syndrome

A

Flavobacterium psychrophilum

75
Q

_______________________________ casues culmnaris disease in warm water fish

A

Flavobacterium columnare

76
Q

_______________________________ pneumonia in rats

A

Pasteurella pneuomotropica

77
Q

_______________________________ causes pyleonephritis in swine

A

Actinobaculum suis

78
Q

_______________________________ cuases intestinal spirochetosis in humans and pigs

A

Brachyspira piloscoli

79
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of glanders in horses

A

Burhholderia mallei

80
Q

_______________________________ causes potomac horse fever horses

A

Neorickettsia risticii

81
Q

_______________________________ causes erythema chronicum migrans in humans

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

82
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of contagious footrot in sheep

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

83
Q

_______________________________ cuases liver abcess in cattle

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

84
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of UTI in almost all animals

A

E. coli

85
Q

_______________________________ causes ulcerative posthititis

A

Corynebacterium renale

86
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of fowl typhoid

A

Salmonella gallinarum

87
Q

_______________________________ causes flowl cholera

A

Pasteurella multocida type A

88
Q

_______________________________ causes coryza

A

Avibacterium paragallinarum

89
Q

_______________________________ cuases rhinotracheitis in turkeys

A

Bordetella avium

90
Q

_______________________________ is teh cause of calf diptheria

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

91
Q

_______________________________ is the cuase of human diptheria

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

92
Q

_______________________________ causes pneumonitis in cats

A

chlaymidia felis

93
Q

_______________________________ causes cat scratch fever

A

Bartonella henselae

94
Q

_______________________________ causes scromboid poisoning in humans

A

Morganella morgani

95
Q

_______________________________ causes heart water disease in cattle

A

Erhlichia ruminantum

96
Q

_______________________________ causes rocky mountain spotted fever in humans

A

Rickettsia ricketsii

97
Q

_______________________________ is the cause equine ehrlichosis and human granulocytic ehrlichiosis

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

98
Q

_______________________________ causes salmon poisoning in dogs

A

Neoricketsia helminthoeca

99
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of q fever humans

A

Coxiella burnetti

100
Q

_______________________________ is thh cause of meliodosis in horses

A

Burkholderia psuedomalleli

101
Q

_______________________________ causes enzootic abortions in sheep

A

Chlamydia abortus

102
Q

_______________________________ causes enzootic pneumonia in pigs

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

103
Q

_______________________________ causes meningoencephalitis in cattle

A

Histophilus somni

104
Q

_______________________________ causes menigitis in humans

A

Neisseria meningitidis

105
Q

_______________________________ causes pyometra in dogs

A

E. coli

106
Q

_______________________________ causes conjunctivitis in kittens

A

Chlamydiophila felis

107
Q

_______________________________ enterotoxcemia in sheep

A

Colstridium perferinges type D

108
Q

_______________________________ enterotoxemia in pigs

A

Clostridium perferingfes type C

109
Q

_______________________________ enterotoxemia in calves

A

Clostridum perferinges type C

110
Q

_______________________________ mesocolonic edema in pigs

A

Clostridum difficile

111
Q

_______________________________ causes tularemia in rabbits

A

Fracisella tularensis

112
Q

_______________________________ contagious caprine pleuropneuonia in goats

A

Mycoplasma capricolum subsp capripneumonia

113
Q

_______________________________ causes snuffles in rabbits

A

Pasteurella multocida type A

114
Q

_______________________________ causes atrophic rhinitis

A

Pasteurella multocida type D

115
Q

_______________________________ causes infectious anemia

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

116
Q

_______________________________ causes pigeon fever

A

Corynebacterium psudotuberculosis var equi

117
Q

_______________________________ causes caseous lymphandenitis

A

Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis var ovis

118
Q

_______________________________ causes contagious bovine pleuropneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides SC

119
Q

_______________________________ causes early embryonic death/infertility in cattle

A

Campylobacter fetus sbsp venearlis

120
Q

_______________________________ causes strangles in horses

A

Strep equi sub equi

121
Q

_______________________________ causes Johnes disease in rmts

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis

122
Q

_______________________________ is the cause of the sylvatic plague

A

Yersinia pestus