2009 Exam Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
________________________________ is an organism that produces very little surface colony and appears as a zone of complete hemolysis that can be enhanced by removing a plug of agar under the colony
A
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
2
Q
________________________________ is the only rickettsial organism that multiplies in the intestinal epithelium of mammals
A
Neorickettsia risticii
3
Q
________________________________ is the only dermatophyte that produces a metabolic byproduct that fluoresces when exposed to UV light
A
Microsporum canis
4
Q
________________________________ is an obligate intramammary pathogen of cattle.
A
Streptococcus agalactiae
5
Q
_____________________ is a term that denotes the ability of an organism to move through a viscous substrate such as mucus.
A
Viscotaxis
6
Q
____________________ is the basic taxonomic unit used to identify the members of the genus Leptospira.
A
Serovariety
7
Q
__________________________ is the site of primary multiplication of leptospires (first week of infection).
A
liver
8
Q
_______________________ is the major clinical manifestation of leptospirosis in cattle
A
Abortion
9
Q
___________ is the primary cell type infected by members of the genus Rickettsia.
A
Vascular endothelium
10
Q
__________________ are produced by Fusarium roseum and F. tricinctum and primarily cause a Afeed-refusal syndrome
A
Tricothecenes
11
Q
_____________________ is a heterotroph that can live on dead or decaying organic matter
A
Saprophyte
12
Q
_______________________ is the Fc-receptor protein of Staphylococcus aureus
A
Protein A
13
Q
______________________ is the name of a protein antigen that is of major importance in development of resistance to Group A streptococci
A
M-Protein
14
Q
______________________ and __________________________ are the two Staphylococcus aureus enzymes that are most closely correlated with pathogenicity
A
Coagulase and DNase
15
Q
_________________________________ is an organism that is harbored in the intestinal tracts of animals and causes mesenteric lymphadenitis and severe enterocolitis in humans that can sometimes mimic appendicitis.
A
Yersinia enterocolitica
16
Q
______________________ is a bacterial genus that may be able to fuse with host cell membranes and thus exchange antigens with those membranes
A
Mycoplasma
17
Q
________________________________ is the organism that commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient.
A
Mycoplasma
18
Q
_________________________________ is the organism that commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient
A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
19
Q
_________________________________ is the cause of glanders in solipeds.
A
Burkholderia mallei
20
Q
_________________________________ is the cause of melioidosis
A
Burkholderia pseudomallei
21
Q
_________________________________ is the cause of columnaris disease of catfish.
A
Flavobacterium columnare
22
Q
_________________________________ is the cause of coldwater disease of adult freshwater salmon and trout and rainbow trout fry syndrome
A
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
23
Q
_____________________ is the name of the disease in water buffalo, bison and cattle that is caused by Pasteurella multocida types B and E
A
Hemorrhagic septicemia
24
Q
_________________________________ has been associated with severe respiratory disease in adult cattle especially in the western U.S., respiratory disease in goats and septicemia in lambs
A
Bibersteinia trehalosi
25
_________________________________ is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the soft tissues of the head and neck of cattle
Actinobacillus lignieresii
26
_________________________________ is an organism that causes fatal, acute septicemia in 1- to 8-week-old pigs and is also recognized as a cause of arthritis, pneumonia and subcutaneous abscesses.
Actinobacillus suis
27
_________________________________ is a respiratory tract pathogen of cattle that produces LOS instead of LPS, has one or more Fc-receptor proteins and releases RNA components.
Histophilus somni
28
_________________________________ is the cause of rhinotracheitis or coryza in turkey poults.
Bordetella avium
29
___________________ is a clostridial toxin that blocks the release of glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem resulting in spastic paralysis.
Tetanospasmin
30
_________________________________ is the cause of blackleg in ruminants.
Clostridium chauvoei
31
_________________________________ is the cause of ulcerative colitis (quail disease) in birds
Clostridium colinum
32
_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in pigs, foals, hamsters and possibly other animal species
Lawsonia intracellularis
33
What allows Clostridium botulinum to survive the processing of foods?
It forms spores which are resistant to heat
34
Why do we need to treat botulism with polyvalent antitoxin?
Because there are a number of serologically distinct toxins and the clinical signs are roughly the same
35
List the four major mycotoxins
Aflatoxin
ochratoxin
zearalenone
Ergot alkaloids
36
What is the method of action of Cholera Toxin?
Increases cAMP inside of target cells
37
What is the method of action of Edema Factor? (B.anthracis)
Increases cAMP inside of target cells
38
What is the method of action of Lekotoxin (M. hemolytica)
Forms pores in target cell membranes
39
What is the method of action of TSST1 (Staph aureus)
Acts as a superantigen
40
What is the method of action of Listeriolysin-O
Destabilizes and lyses the phagosomal membrane
41
What is the method of action of ApX1
Forms pores in target cell membranes
42
What is the method of action of LT toxin (E.coli)
Increases cAMP inside of target cells
43
What is the method of action of Edema Disease (E.coli)
Inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2.
44
What is the method of action of Streptolysin O
Destabilizes and lyses cell membranes by sequestering membrane cholesterol
45
What is the method of action of Phospholipase C
Hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids in cell membranes
46
What is the method of action of Sulfonamides
Compete with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis
47
What is the method of action of 4-Fluoroquinolones
Inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase A
48
What is the method of action of Penicillin
Bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan
49
What is the method of action of Cephalosporins
Bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan
50
What is the normal habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
. Intestinal tracts of swine, turkeys and many other animals
51
What is the normal habitat of Mycobacterium avium
Soil and intestinal tracts of birds
52
What is the normal habitat of Rhodococcus equi
Intestinal tracts of foals and soil
53
What is the normal habitat of Nocardia asteroides
Soil
54
What is the normal habitat of Listeria monocytogenes
Plant material and intestinal tracts of herbivores
55
What is the normal habitat of Mycoplasma bovoculi
Ocular mucosa of cattle.
56
What is the normal habitat of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Soil and skin of sheep and goats
57
What is the normal habitat of Dermatophilus congolensis
Soil
58
Bacteria that are most likely to be phagocytosed are:
a. Relatively hydrophobic
b. Relatively hydrophilic
c. Heavily encapsulated
d. Have a complex O-Antigen
e. Have a simple O-Antigen
Relatively hydrophobic
59
PPD tuberculins are usually preferred because:
a. Give fewer cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculins.
b. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins.
c. They have the extra benefit of immunizing those who are negative on the tuberculin tests.
d. Only a and b above.
e. Only b and c above
d. Only a and b above
a. Give fewer cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculins.
b. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins.
60
The virulence-associated protein A (VapA) is thought to be important in the immune response to:
a. Streptocococcus equi
b. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. Equi
c. Rhodococcus equi
d. Streptococcus suis
e. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
c. Rhodococcus equi
61
In which of the following does Arcanobacterium pyogenes NOT play an important role?
a. Post-partum metritis in cattle
b. Foot-rot in cattle
c. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle
d. Subcutaneous abscesses in cattle.
e. Chronic, abscessing mastitis in cattle
Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle
62
The commonly used modified-live vaccine used to immunize against Bacillus anthracis infection:
a. Lacks the genes for the capsule.
b. Lacks the genes for the PA antigen.
c. Lacks the genes for the EF antigen.
d. Lacks the genes for the LF antigen.
e. None of the above.
Lacks the genes for the capsule
63
Pathogenic members of the genus Leptospira are cleared from the blood 10 to 12 days following infection because:
a. The host generates a CMI response by that time and is able to kill the organisms.
b. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organisms to areas that are immunologically privileged.
c. The organism causes enough tissue damage by that time that defensins, lysozyme and other natural defense mechanisms are able to clear it.
d. The organism undergoes antigenic shifting and becomes naturally avirulent.
e. None of the above.
The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organisms to areas that are immunologically privileged.
64
Which of the following is a soil saprophyte commonly found in decaying wood?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Trichophyton equinum
Blastomyces dermatitidis
65
Which of the following is most commonly found in low-lying areas near reservoirs and dams?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Aspergillus flavus
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
66
Which of the following has a strong predilection to infect neural tissue?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
67
Which of the following is has been recovered commonly from rotting portions of trees that are contaminated with feces, insect parts and other debris?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Microsporum canis
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
68
Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Cladosporium species
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
69
Which of the following has a yeast form that is commonly found in circulating phagocytes of clinically infected hosts. Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Cladosporium species
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
70
Which of the following is a Biosafety level 3 pathogen transmitted to the respiratory tract by readily aerosolized arthrospores.
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii
a. Coccidioides immitis
71
Which of the following is commonly found on woody plant material and is transmitted by traumatic introduction?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii
e. Sporothrix schenckii
72
The major cell type involved in the adverse reaction to endotoxin is:
a. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Eosinophil
d. Mast cell
e. RBC
b. Macrophage
73
T or F Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are not a concern for veterinarians.
false
74
T or F PCR of the urine has become increasingly available for diagnosis of leptospirosis, especially in the canine species
True
75
T or F Leptospirosis should be included in the list of differentials if humans develop a febrile illness within one month of being involved in a flood or flood cleanup
True
76
T or F Recent data indicate that 1/3 of human leptospira infections come from dogs and 1/3 come from rats
True
77
T or F We commonly vaccinate feeder pigs against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
False
78
T or F Intestinal spirochetes are common but very few have been associated with disease.
True
79
T or F Erythema chronicum migrans is the name of the rash that occurs in about 80% of individuals within the first month following infection with Borrelia burgdorferi
True
80
T or F Ixodes scapularis is the only species of tick known to reliably transmit Borrelia burgdorferi
False
81
T or F The human Lyme disease vaccine was pulled off the market and critics claimed that it caused Aodd and damaging side effects@.
True
82
T or F Many human cases of rat-bite fever are characterized by a chronic relapsing illness with episodes of fever and chills that subside within 36 hours, only to recur in 3 to 9 days.
True
83
T or F Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus are both causes of rat-bite fever.
True
84
T or F Haverhill fever is similar to rat-bite fever except that GI and respiratory signs are more common and transmission is through ingestion rather than a bite wound.
True
85
T or F Birds that recover from infections with Chlamydophila psittaci infection can shed the organism in their feces for a very long time and possibly for life.
True
86
T or F The primary route of transmission for Chlamydophila psittaci in birds is via the respiratory tract by breathing dust contaminated with feces
True
87
T or F Most cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are reported from the southeastern region of the U.S.
True
88
T or F Coxiella burnetii is most commonly transmitted to humans via ticks and is most commonly found in hunters, hikers and others that spend a lot of time outdoors.
False
89
T or F PCR is the currently recommend method for diagnosis of Potomac Horse Fever.
True
90
T or F Bovine anaplasmosis can only be transmitted through vectors such as ticks and biting flies
False
91
T or F The anemia seen in bovine anaplasmosis is due to clearance of RBC=s damaged by infection with the organism and anti-erythrocyte antibody that is generated by the host
True
92
T or F Complex polysaccharide and protein antigens are T-cell dependent and the immune response is therefore restricted to the IgM isotype of antibody
False
93
T or F Bacterial antigens that are broken down to antigenic peptides in the phagolysosome of macrophages are said to be exogenously processed
True
94
T or F An autogenous bacterin is an immunizing product generated from a bacterial isolate obtained from the herd to be immunized
True
95
T or F Capsule and toxin production in Bacillus anthracis are dependent on the presence of two large plasmids.
True
96
T or F Pyelonephritis in both cattle and swine usually require some type of predisposing factor.
True
97
T or F Infection with Nocardia asteroides usually requires some type of predisposing factor such as immunosuppression or traumatic introduction of the organism into tissues.
True
98
T or F Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis can remain viable in soil and feces for up to 9 months
True
99
T or F E. coli STb toxin is more commonly involved in post-weaning scours in pigs.
True
100
T or F F18 fimbria are essential for the production of edema disease in swine.
True
101
T or F Klebsiella pneumoniae is a good recipient for R-factors (antimicrobial resistance genes
True
102
T or F Bibersteinia trehalosi isolates have the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia haemolytica
True
103
T or F Respiratory disease in sheep and goats is caused by multiple serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica whereas disease in cattle is almost always serotype A1
True
104
T or F Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae produce apparently identical Apx1 and Apx2 toxins
True
105
T or F Haemophilus parasuis is commonly found in the nasopharynx of many normal swine and is transmitted to piglets at a young age
True
106
T or F Haemophilus parasuis commonly causes disease in young piglets without requiring any predisposing factors or stresses
False
107
T or F Contagious equine metritis has been eradicated from the U.S.
False
108
T or F Francisella tularensis biovar tularensis is only found in the Scandinavian countries whereas biovar palaearctica is found in most of the countries in the northern hemisphere
False
109
T or F So-called Adecending@ tetanus is much more common than Aascending@ tetanus
True
110
What causes Syphilis in Humans
Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
111
___________ causes Cat scratch disease in ___________
Bartonella henselae
Humans
112
___________ causes Enzootic abortion in sheep
Chlamydophila abortus
113
___________ causes conjunctivitis and rhinitis in kittens
Chlamydiophila felis
114
___________ causes trachoma, (keratoconjunctivitis) in humans
Chlamydia trachomatis biovar 2
115
___________ causes epidemic typhus in humans
Ricketsia prowazekii
116
___________ causes ehrlichiosis i, terminal pancytopenia in digs
Ehrlichia canis
117
___________ causes potomac horse fever in horses
Neorickettsia risticii
118
___________ causes north american blastomycosis in dogs, humans, and cats
Blastomyces dermatitidis
119
___________ causes chromomycosis in a wide variety of animals
Curvularia
120
___________ causes zygomycosis in a wide variety of animals
Mucor
121
___________ causes club lamb fungus
Trichophyton verrucosum
122
___________ causes pneumonia in penguins
Aspergillus fumigatus
123
___________ is the causes of sporothricosis in dogs, humans, horses
Sporothrix schneckii
124
___________ is the cause of salmon poisoning in digs
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
125
___________ is the cause of otitis externa (yeast infection) in digs
Malassezia pachydermatis
126
___________ causes rhinosporidosis in humans
Rhinosporidium
127
___________ is the cause of oral thrush in humans, birds
Candida albicans
128
___________ is the cause of cholera in humans
Vibrio cholerae
129
___________ in the cause of cholera in chickens, turkerys and geese
Pasteurella multocida
130
___________ is the cause of gastroenteritis in humans
Vibrio parahemolyticus
131
___________ is the cause of recurrent pyoderma and otitis externa in dogs
Staphylococcus schleiferi
132
___________ is the cause of strangles in horses
Streptococcus equi
133
___________ is the cause of pigeon fever in horses
Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis
134
___________ is the cause of menigitis in pigs
streptococcus suis
135
___________ is the cause of diamond skin disease in
Eryosipelothrix rhusiopathiae
136
___________ is the cause of cervical lymphandenitis in swine
streptococcus porcinus
137
___________ causes malignant caruncles in humans
Bacillus anthracis
138
___________ causes food poisoning in humans
Bacillus cereus
139
___________ is the cause of circling disease in ruminants
Listeria monocytogenes
140
___________ causes of legionaires disease , pneumonia in humans
Legionella pneumophila
141
___________ is the cause of contagious metritis in horses
Taylorella equigenitalis
142
___________ causes polynephritis, cystitis in cattle
Corynebacterium renale
143
___________ causes polynephritis, cystitis in swine
Actinobaculum swine
144
___________ causes caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
145
___________ causes a purulent bronchopneumonia and occasional enteritis and arthritis in foals
Rhodococcus equi
146
___________ causes a severe septicemia in newborn foals
Actinobacillus Equuli
or
E. coli
147
___________ cuases granulomatous osteomyelitis of the mandible of cattle
Actinomyces bovis
148
___________ is the causes of tuberculosis in swine
Mycoplasma avium
149
___________ is the cause of swimming pool granulomas in humans/cold blooded animals
Mycobacterium marinum
150
___________ is the most common cause of pyometra in dogs
E. coli
151
___________ causes gram negative mastitis in dairy cattle
E.coli
152
___________ causes UTI in most species
E. coli
153
___________ is the cause of bacillary dysentery
Shigella dystenteriae
154
___________ is the cause of typhoid fever in humans
Salmonella typhi
155
___________ causes UTIs and otits externa in dogs
Proteus vulgaris
156
___________ is the cause of scromboid poisoning in humans
Morganella morgani
157
___________ causes salmonellosis in turkeys
Salmonella arizonae
158
___________ is the casueof the bubonic plague in humans
Yersina pestus
159
___________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle
Mycobacterium mycoides subspecies mycoides SC
160
___________ is the causes of enteric septicemia in catfish
Edwardseilla ictaluri
161
___________ is the cause of chronic respiratory disease in chickens
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
162
___________ causes pinkeye/.keratocnjunctivits in cattke
Moraxella bovis
163
___________ causes tuberculosis in cattle/bison
Mycobacterium bovis
164
___________ causes pnuemonia in goats
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies caprimeumoniae
165
___________ is the cause of keel disease in ducklings
Salmonella anatum
166
___________ is the cause of infectious anemia in cats
Mycoplasma haemofelis
167
___________ causes pullorum disease in chickens/turkeys
Slamonella pullorum
168
___________ is the cause of chronic respiratory disease in rats
Mycoplasma pulmonis
169
___________ is the cause of enzootic pneumonia in swine
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
