2 Part III Flashcards

1
Q

In general a patient with pulmonary fibrosis will have an impaired:

A

ventilatory pump. This is further evidenced by the exaggerated respiratory rate response and desaturation in the 6-minute walk test results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

__________ is associated with hypothyroidism

A

Hyporeflexia (1+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The traditional position to drain the right middle lobe is

A

left sidelying with one-quarter turn toward supine position, with the head of the bed down approximately 20°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Fugl-Meyer Assessment is appropriate for a patient who had a

A

a cortical stroke and would not be the most appropriate for a patient who had a cerebellar stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which nerve innervates the pelvic floor muscles?

A

Pudendal - innervated by sacral nerve roots S2–S4 through the pudendal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

endocrine gland that regulates sexual development?

A

The pituitary gland serves as a master gland and regulates the secretion of many hormones. The anterior pituitary glands regulate sexual development via release of gonadotropins. Gonadotropins regulate secretion of male and female hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The parathyroid gland is responsible for

A

calcium and phosphorus metabolism and bone calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The adrenal gland is primarily involved in

A

fluid/electrolyte balance and metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Following acute knee trauma, which examination finding indicates the need for referral for radiographic imaging?

A

Active range of motion knee flexion limited to 75°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ottawa knee rules following five criteria are present:

A

age 55 years or older,
tenderness at the fibular head or patella,
inability to flex the knee greater than 90°,
or inability to weight-bear for four steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

primary risk factors for atherosclerosis:

A

High blood pressure, cigarette smoking, and hyperlipidemia. Secondary are stress, obesity and activity level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome include

A

those who have human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) and a CD4 count below 200 cells/mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Family training should begin

A

early in the rehabilitation process rather than wait until the patient is ready to be discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Subacute stage of hemarthrosis exercise (still some bleeding into the joint space)

A

active-assist, as there may still be pain or edema in the joint that prevents independent performance of range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stable angina generally occurs during physical effort and is characterized by

A

substernal, usually nonradiating pain lasting between 5 and 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Unstable angina, the episodes occur during physical exertion or psychological stress and are

A

more frequent, the pain may be severe, and the duration of each event is usually greater than 15 minutes.

17
Q

What precautions should a physical therapist observe when working with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Contact - spread by contact, wearing a face shield or mask is not necessary

18
Q

Spinal shock occurs as a reaction to spinal cord injury and is characterized by

A

an absence of all reflex activity below the level of the lesion. Depending on the extent of the lesion, the patient may lose all or some sensation and motor activity below the level of the lesion.

19
Q

Pt’s Rt scapula is significantly lower than Lt scapula. Shortness of which muscle on the right is MOST likely to lead to this patient’s postural presentation?

A

The latissimus dorsi depresses the shoulder girdle and can be short in patients with depressed scapulae

20
Q

suspected diagnosis is Bell palsy

A

Asking the patient to smile would most likely show an asymmetrical smile with weakness on the right side. caused by a lesion of the facial nerve (CN VII).

21
Q

Dorsal column syndrome causes

A

decreased perception of vibration and proprioception

22
Q

The tendons tested by the Finkelstein test are the tendons of

A

the abductor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis

23
Q

most appropriate position to mobilize the radial nerve

A

Shoulder extension, elbow extension, and wrist flexion

24
Q

Several things can be done to decrease the current density and the possibility of skin irritation. These include

A

decreasing the intensity of the stimulation, increasing the interelectrode distance, and using larger electrodes.

25
Q

The onset of a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by

A

nonblanching erythema

26
Q

Complete severance of the spinal cord causes

A

motor and sensory loss on both sides of the body

27
Q

A lesion of the anterior horn cells causes

A

a lower motor neuron problem and hyporeflexia

28
Q

hemisection of the spinal cord causes

A

ipsilateral motor and proprioception loss as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature. hyperreflexia and a positive Babinski sign

29
Q

Onset of premature ventricular contractions can be benign or stable.

A

Less than six contractions/minute is generally stable, while greater than six contractions/minute is considered less stable

30
Q

The most likely cause of laterally bending toward the stance limb is

A

abductor weakness on the stance side

31
Q

Flexion of the knee past 60° can reproduce symptoms of

A

saphenous nerve impingement