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Pathology 2 > 2-Hemolymphatic System > Flashcards

2-Hemolymphatic System Flashcards

0
Q

Where are 6 locations of where pre-natal period hematopoiesis can occur?

A
  • Yolk sac
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Thymus
  • Lymph Nodes
  • Bone marrow
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1
Q

What are the 7 main components of the hematopoietic system?

A
  • Cellular elements of the blood
  • Bone marrow
  • Spleen
  • Lymph Nodes
  • Thymus
  • Accessory lymphoid tissue
  • Mononuclear phagocyte system
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2
Q

Where does post-natal period hematopoiesis occur?

A

Bone marrow

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3
Q

Where are 2 locations of hematopoiesis in adults?

A
  • Flat bones

- Metaphysis-cancellous bone

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4
Q

Hematopoiesis is a controlled process that can be influenced by what 3 factors?

A
  • Cytokines
  • Hormones
  • Growth factors
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5
Q

Normally, only what type of cells are released into systemic circulation, immature or mature?

A

Mature

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6
Q

It is considered abnormal when which cells are released, immature or mature?

A

Immature

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7
Q

What does release of immature cells indicate?

A

Bone marrow stress or disease

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8
Q

Red marrow is progressively replaced by what as an animal ages?

A

Fat

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9
Q

What is indicated in persistent hematologic abnormalities that are unexplainable based on clinical findings and examination of blood?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

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10
Q

Which is performed for often, bone marrow core (trephine) biopsy or aspiration biopsy?

A

Aspiration biopsy

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11
Q

When aspiration does not yield an adequate sample because of myelofibrosis or poor technique or when evaluation of overall cellularity is needed what needs to be performed?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

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12
Q

What are 4 things a core bone marrow biopsy can confirm and characterize?

A
  • Hematopoietic hypoplasia
  • Cell density
  • Cell distribution
  • Marrow architecture
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13
Q

Where are 3 locations a core bone marrow biopsies can be taken from?

A
  • Humerus (greater tubercle)
  • Ilium crest
  • Femur
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14
Q

What angle should the needle be inserted at for a core bone marrow biopsies from the humerus?

A

About 45 degrees

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15
Q

What might a needle inserted too proximal result in for a core bone marrow biopsy?

A

Entry into the scapulohumeral joint.

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16
Q

What might needle insertion at an angle perpendicular to the humerus result in with a core bone marrow biopsy?

A

Entry into the bicipital bursa that communicates with the scapulohumeral joint on the medial side of the limb.

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17
Q

What are 3 possible causes for increased red marrow appearance?

A
  • Increased demand for red blood cells
  • Increased demand for leukocytes
  • Neoplasia erythroid or myeloid
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18
Q

What is a possible cause for increased demand for red blood cells?

A

Erythroid hyperplasia

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19
Q

What is a possible cause for increased demand for leukocytes?

A

Myeloid hyperplasia

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20
Q

What is a possible cause for neoplasia, erythroid or myeloid?

A

Leukemia

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21
Q

How long does it take to see gross changes of marrow stimulation with increased red marrow due to increased demand for RBCs?

A

About 3 weeks

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22
Q

How long does it take for RBC production to increase so you would see evidence of regeneration on the CBC before the gross changes in the red marrow would occur with increased red marrow due to increased demand for RBCs?

A

4-5 days

23
Q

What are 2 main categories of possible causes of increased white color appearance of bone marrow?

A
  • Lympohproliferative diseases (more common)

- Myeloproliferative disease (less common)

24
Q

What are 2 examples of lymphoproliferative diseases that can cause an increased white color appearance in bone marrow?

A
  • Lymphoma

- Lymphocytic leukemia

25
Q

What are 4 examples of myeloproliferative diseases that can cause an increased white color appearance in bone marrow?

A
  • Myeloid leukemias
  • Histiocytic sarcoma
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Metastases
26
Q

What are 3 categories of etiologies for bone marrow diseases?

A
  • Radiation
  • Chemical
  • Infections
27
Q

What are 7 agents that can cause bone marrow disease?

A
  • Canine parvovirus
  • Feline panleukopenia virus (parvovirus)
  • Equine infectious anemia virus
  • Ehrlichia spp
  • Histoplasma capsulatum
  • Coccidiodes spp
  • Mycoplasma
28
Q

What is an example of bone marrow atrophy?

A

Serous atrophy of fat

29
Q

Inflammation of the bone marrow and bone is known as what?

A

Osteomyelitis

30
Q

What are 2 major classifications of osteomyelitis?

A
  • Bacterial osteomyelitis

- Fungal osteomyelitis

31
Q

What are 4 examples of agents that can cause bacterial osteomyelitis?

A
  • Staphylococcus spp
  • Streptococcus spp
  • Escherichia coli
  • Proteus spp
32
Q

What are 6 examples of fungal agents that cause fungal osteomyelitis?

A
  • Cocciciodes immitus
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Histoplasma capsulatum
  • Actinomycetes: Norcarida spp
  • Aspergillus fumigatus
  • Cryptococcus neoformans
33
Q

In what part of the USA can you see fungal osteomyelitis caused by Coccidiodes immitus?

A

Southwest

34
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum, which can cause fungal osteomyelitis, is endemic to what 2 areas in the USA?

A
  • Ohio

- Mississippi River

35
Q

Which two agents are less common causes of fungal osteomyelitis?

A
  • Aspergillus fumigatus

- Cryptococcus neoformans

36
Q

The spleen is important in the defense against what?

A

Blood-borne pathogens

37
Q

Splenectomized animals are susceptible to what?

A

Blood parasites

38
Q

What are 2 things removed by the spleen as it filters the blood?

A
  • Abnormal RBCs

- Ages RBCs

39
Q

What does the spleen store?

A

Hemosiderin

40
Q

What is the spleen a reservoir for?

A

RBCs and platelets

41
Q

What are 3 species that have storage spleens?

A
  • Horses
  • Dogs
  • Cats
42
Q

What are 4 examples of degenerative diseases of the spleen?

A
  • Senile atrophy
  • Siderotic plaques/Gamma Gandy bodies
  • Amyloidosis
  • Splenic rupture
43
Q

Senile atrophy is seen mainly in what 2 species?

A
  • Old dogs

- Horses

44
Q

Splenic rupture is usually secondary to what 2 conditions?

A
  • Trauma

- Neoplasia (HAS)

45
Q

Protein formed by cleavage from larger proteins and then deposited in extracellular spaces is known as what?

A

Amyloidosis

46
Q

Amyloidosis in animals is commonly secondary to what?

A

Chronic inflammation

47
Q

What is the most common form of amyloidosis in animals?

A

AA amyloid

48
Q

What stain is used on fresh samples to test for amyloidosis?

A

Lugol’s iodine test

49
Q

Which stain is used to test for amyloidosis in formalin-fixed, paraffin embedded samples?

A

Congo Red

50
Q

Splenic rupture is most common in what 2 species?

A
  • Dogs

- Cats

51
Q

Primary splenic rupture is most commonly due to what?

A

Trauma

52
Q

Splenic rupture can be seen secondary to what 2 conditions?

A
  • Splenomegaly

- Splenic neoplasia

53
Q

What are 3 possible causes of diffuse splenic enlargement?

A
  • Congestion
  • Cell proliferation/infiltration
  • Accumulation of extracellular material
54
Q

What are 2 possible causes of nodular splenic enlargement?

A
  • Neoplasia

- Non-neoplastic

55
Q

What is the term used for diffuse splenic enlargement?

A

Splenomegaly

Pathology 2 (10 decks)

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