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Question 1

Isoproterenol produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Which of the following best describes isoproterenol?

A. Full agonist.
B. Partial agonist.
C. Competitive antagonist.
D. Irreversible antagonist.
E. Inverse agonist.

Answer 1

A. Full agonist

Question 2

If 10 mg of naproxen produces the same analgesic response as 100 mg of ibuprofen, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Naproxen is more efficacious than is ibuprofen.
B. Naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen.
C. Naproxen is a full agonist, and ibuprofen is a partial agonist.
D. Naproxen is a competitive antagonist.
E. Naproxen is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen.

Answer 2

B. Naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen.

Question 3

If 10 mg of morphine produces a greater analgesic response than can be achieved by ibuprofen at any dose, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Morphine is less efficacious than is ibuprofen.
B. Morphine is less potent than is ibuprofen.
C. Morphine is a full agonist, and ibuprofen is a partial agonist.
D. Ibuprofen is a competitive antagonist.
E. Morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen.

Answer 3

E. Morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen.

Question 4

In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by itself has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?

A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist.
B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist.
C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone.
D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone.
E. Naloxone is a noncompetitive antagonist.

Answer 4

A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist.

Question 5

In the presence of pentazocine, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Pentazocine by itself has a smaller analgesic effect than does morphine, even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?

A. Pentazocine is a competitive antagonist.
B. Morphine is a full agonist, and pentazocine is a partial agonist.
C. Morphine is less efficacious than is pentazocine.
D. Morphine is less potent than is pentazocine.
E. Pentazocine is a noncompetitive antagonist.

Answer 5

B. Morphine is a full agonist, and pentazocine is a partial agonist.

Question 6

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin by itself has no sedative effect even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct?

A. Picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist.
B. Diazepam is a full agonist, and picrotoxin is a partial agonist.
C. Diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin.
D. Diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin.
E. Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist.

Answer 6

E. Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist.

Question 7

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a system having spare receptors?

A. The number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect.
B. Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol.
C. A single drug–receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated.
D. Spare receptors are active even in the absence of an agonist.
E. Agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinity for “non-spare” receptors.

Answer 7

C. A single drug–receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated.

Question 8

Which of the following would up-regulate postsynaptic β1 adrenergic receptors?

A. Daily use of amphetamine that causes norepinephrine to be released.
B. A disease that causes an increase in the activity of norepinephrine neurons.
C. Daily use of isoproterenol, a β1 receptor agonist.
D. Daily use of formoterol, a β2 receptor agonist.
E. Daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist.

Answer 8

E. Daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist.

Question 9

The _____ carry signals away from the brain and spinal cord to the peripheral tissues.

Answer 9

EFFERENT NEURONS

Question 10

the ______ bring information from the periphery to the CNS.

Answer 10

AFFERENT NEURONS

Question 11

“brain of the gut.”

Answer 11

ENTERIC NEURONS

Question 12

The ____ nerve accounts for 90% of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the body.

Answer 12

VAGUS

Question 13

The vagus nerve accounts for ___ of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the body.

Answer 13

90%

Question 14

Fight or Flight

Answer 14

SYMPHATETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

Question 15

Rest and Digest

Answer 15

PARASYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

Question 16

Which of the following is correct regarding the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

A. Afferent neurons carry signals from the CNS to the effector organs.
B. The neurotransmitter at the parasympathetic ganglion is norepinephrine (NE).
C. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion is acetylcholine (ACh).
D. Sympathetic neurons release ACh in the effector organs.
E. Parasympathetic neurons release NE in the effector organs.

Answer 16

C. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion is acetylcholine (ACh).

Question 17

Which of the following is correct regarding somatic motor neurons?

A. The neurotransmitter at the somatic motor neuron ganglion is acetylcholine.
B. The neurotransmitter at the somatic motor neuron ganglion is norepinephrine.
C. Somatic motor neurons innervate smooth muscles.
D. Somatic motor neurons do not have ganglia.
E. Responses in the somatic motor neurons are
generally slower than in the autonomic nervous system.

Answer 17

D. Somatic motor neurons do not have ganglia.

Question 18

Which of the following physiological changes could happen when a person is attacked by a grizzly bear?

A. Increase in heart rate.
B. Increase in lacrimation (tears). C. Constriction of the pupil (miosis). D. Increase in gastric motility.

Answer 18

A. Increase in heart rate.

Question 19

Which of the following changes could theoretically happen in a person when the parasympathetic system is inhibited using a pharmacological agent?

A. Reduction in heart rate.
B. Constriction of the pupil (miosis).
C. Increase in gastric motility.
D. Dry mouth (xerostomia).
E. Contraction of detrusor muscle in the bladder.

Answer 19

D. Dry mouth (xerostomia).

Question 20

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems?

A. Acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors.
B. Acetylcholine activates adrenergic receptors.
C. Norepinephrine activates muscarinic receptors.
D. Activation of the sympathetic system causes a drop in blood pressure

Answer 20

A. Acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors.

Question 21

Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

A. The parasympathetic system uses norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
B. The parasympathetic system often discharges as a single, functional system.
C. The parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near vision, movement of food, and urination.
D. The postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division are long compared to those of the sympathetic nervous system.
E. The parasympathetic system controls the secretion of the adrenal medulla.

Answer 21

C. The parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near vision, movement of food, and urination.

Question 22

Which of the following is correct regarding neurotrans- mitters and neurotransmission?

A. Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic nerve terminals.
B. Neurotransmitter release is triggered by the arrival of action potentials in the postsynaptic cell.
C. Intracellular calcium levels drop in the neuron before the neurotransmitter is released.
D. Serotonin and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters in the ANS.

Answer 22

A. Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic nerve terminals.

Question 23

An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets, a drug that blocks α1, β1, and β2 adrenergic receptors, which mainly mediate the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine in the body. Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient?

A. Increased heart rate (tachycardia).
B. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia).
C. Dilation of the pupil (mydriasis).
D. Increased blood pressure.

Answer 23

B. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia).

Question 24

All of the following statements regarding central control of autonomic functions are correct except:

A. Baroreceptors are pressure sensors located at various cardiovascular sites.
B. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure.
C. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden increase in blood pressure.
D. The sympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure.

Answer 24

B. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure.

Question 25

Which of the following is correct regarding membrane receptors and signal transduction?

A. ANS neurotransmitters bind to membrane receptors on the effector cells, which leads to intracellular events.
B. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are examples of ionotropic receptors.
C. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors are examples of metabotropic receptors.
D. Metabotropic receptors activate ion channels directly.

Answer 25

A. ANS neurotransmitters bind to membrane receptors on the effector cells, which leads to intracellular events.

Question 26

Botulinum toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve terminals. Which of the following is a possible effect of botulinum toxin?

A. Skeletal muscle paralysis.
B. Improvement of myasthenia gravis symptoms. C. Increased salivation.
D. Reduced heart rate.

Answer 26

A. Skeletal muscle paralysis.

Question 27

Botulinum toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve terminals. Which of the following is a possible effect of botulinum toxin?

A. Skeletal muscle paralysis.
B. Improvement of myasthenia gravis symptoms. C. Increased salivation.
D. Reduced heart rate.

Answer 27

A. Skeletal muscle paralysis.

Question 28

A dentist would like to reduce salivation in a patient in preparation for an oral surgical procedure. Which of the following strategies will be useful in reducing salivation?

A. Activate nicotinic receptors in the salivary glands.
B. Block nicotinic receptors in the salivary glands.
C. Activate muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands.
D. Block muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands.

Answer 28

D. Block muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands.

Question 29

Which of the following is a systemic effect of a muscarinic agonist?

A. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia).
B. Increased blood pressure.
C. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil).
D. Reduced urinary frequency.
E. Constipation.

Answer 29

A. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia).

Question 30

If an ophthalmologist wants to dilate the pupils for an eye examination, which of the following drugs/classes of drugs could be theoretically useful?

A. Muscarinic receptor activator (agonist). B. Muscarinic receptor inhibitor (antagonist).
C. Acetylcholine.
D. Pilocarpine.
E. Neostigmine.

Answer 30

B. Muscarinic receptor inhibitor

Question 31

In Alzheimer’s disease, there is a deficiency of cholinergic neuronal function in the brain. Theoretically, which of the following strategies will be useful in treating the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A. Inhibiting cholinergic receptors in the brain.
B. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine in the brain.
C. Inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain.
D. Activating the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain

Answer 31

C. Inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain.

Question 32

4.6 An elderly female who lives in a farm house was brought to the emergency room in serious condition after ingesting a liquid from an unlabeled bottle found near her bed, apparently in a suicide attempt. She presented with diarrhea, frequent urination, convulsions, breathing difficulties, constricted pupils (miosis), and excessive salivation. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient?

A. She most likely consumed an organophosphate pesticide.
B. The symptoms are consistent with sympathetic activation.
C. Her symptoms can be treated using an anticholinesterase agent.
D. Her symptoms can be treated using a cholinergic agonist.

Answer 32

A. She most likely consumed an organophosphate pesticide.

Question 33

Sarin is a volatile nerve agent that inhibits cholinesterase enzymes. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see in a patient exposed to sarin?

A. Urinary retention.
B. Tachycardia.
C. Constriction of pupils (miosis).
D. Dilation of the pupils (mydriasis).
E. Dry mouth.

Answer 33

C. Constriction of pupils (miosis).

Question 34

Head and neck irradiation in cancer patients can decrease salivary secretion and cause dry mouth. All of the following drugs or classes of drugs are theoretically useful in improving secretion of saliva in these patients except:

A. Muscarinic antagonists.
B. Muscarinic agonists.
C. Anticholinesterase agents.
D. Pilocarpine.
E. Neostigmine.

Answer 34

A. Muscarinic antagonists.

Question 35

Which of the following drugs or classes of drugs will be useful in treating the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A. Nicotinic antagonists.
B. Muscarinic agonists.
C. Muscarinic antagonists.
D. Anticholinesterase agents.

Answer 35

D. Anticholinesterase agents.

Question 36

Atropa belladonna is a plant that contains atropine (a muscarinic antagonist). Which of the following drugs or classes of drugs will be useful in treating poisoning with belladonna?

A. Malathion.
B. Physostigmine.
C. Muscarinic antagonists.
D. Nicotinic antagonists.

Answer 36

B. Physostigmine.