16-17 - Innate Immunity Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The defences of the innate immune system can be divided into 3 categories…

A
  • Barriers
  • Cellular defences
  • Molecular (humoral) defences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 4 chemical and physical barriers the body has against pathogens…

A
  • Skin - Mucus membranes - Lysozyme - Stomach acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Other than providing a physical barrier, name two other features of the skin that protect against pathogens…

A
  • Fatty acids - Comensural bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a PRR and where can they be found?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) are found on host cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the 3 main types of PRR…

A
  1. Toll-like Receptors 2. NOD-like Receptors 3. RIG-I helicase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PAMP stands for…

A

Pathogen-Associated Molecular Pattern 🚩

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

On which types of host cell are PRRs present?

A
  • Macrophages - Neutrophils - Dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Haematopoeisis is the…

A

Formation of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells divide to form two separate cell lineages. These are the…

A
  • Myeloid lineage - Lymphoid lineage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 5 innate immune cells derived from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells…

A
  • Lymphocytes (B, T and NK) - Monocytes - Eosinophils - Basophils - Dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the 4 cell types derived from the commmon myeloid progenator cells…

A
  • Megakaryocytes (-> thrombocytes) - Erythrocytes - Mast cells - Myeloblasts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the 4 cell types derived from myeloblast cells…

A
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Monocytes (-> macrophages)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which 2 types of immune cell engage in phagocytosis?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Problems with phagocytes are generally discovered:

a) Later in life
b) Prenatally
c) Early in life
d) They are generally not discovered

A

Problems with phagocytes are generally discovered:

a) Later in life
b) Prenatally

c) Early in life

d) They are generally not discovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are neutrophils found in highest abundance?

A

At sites of high inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 3 properties of neutrophils…

A
  • Short-lived
  • Multi-lobed nucleus
  • Most common phagocyte cell in circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

________ in the blood become _________ after entering the tissues.

A

Monocytes in the blood become macrophages after entering the tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes (e.g. monocytes, Kuppfer cells and alveolar macrophages) are (longer / shorter) lived than neutrophils

A

Longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Outline the 5 step process of phagocytosis

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Endocytosis
  3. Fusion
  4. Killing
  5. Release of digested products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Phagocytes kill pathogens in a variety of ways. This includes…

A
  • Acidic pH
  • Antimicrobial peptides such as defensins
  • Hydrogen peroxide
  • Reactive oxygen species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Oxygen-dependent killing of pathogens by phagocytes relies on a process known as ________ in which NADPH generates _________ which kill bacteria.

A

Oxygen-dependent killing of pathogens by phagocytes relies on a process known as hexose monophosphate shunt in which NADPH generates reactive intermediate oxygen species which kill bacteria.

22
Q

Other than phagocytosis, name 3 functions of macrophages

A
  • Activation
  • Secretion of cytokines
  • Antigen presentation
23
Q

Extracellular killing is conducted by which two cells?

A
  • NK cells
  • Eosinophils
24
Q

Which cell type would be responsible for killing an antibody-coated helminth?

A

Eosinophils

25
Q

Natural killer cells are part of which branch of the immune system, innate or adaptive?

A

Innate (they lack antigen specificity)

26
Q

Natural Killer cells help control infections until adaptive immunity can take over by releasing what substance?

A

Interferon Gamma (IFNγ) cytokines

27
Q

Granzyme and perforin are lytic enzymes found in…

A

Natural Killer cells

28
Q

Natural killer cells attack which types of cell?

A

Virally infected (and some tumor cells)

29
Q

Cytokines link the…

A

Innate and adaptive immune responses

30
Q

Cytokines may stimulate or inhibit which 3 processes in cells?

A

Activity, proliferation and differentiation

31
Q

Interfereons, lymphokines, interleukins and chemokines are all subgroups of…

A

Cytokine

32
Q

Cytokines can be divided into 3 categories based on their functions…

A
  • Mediators and regulators of innate immunity
  • Mediators and regulators of adaptive immunity
  • Stimulators of haematopoesis
33
Q

Name 4 key cytokines…

A
  • IL2 (interleukin-2)
  • IL1 (interleukin-1)
  • TNF-α (Tumor Necrosis Factor Alpha)
  • Interferons
34
Q

Macrophages can secrete cytokines. Name 3 effects of these cytokines…

A
  • Inflammation
  • Fever
  • Acute-phase response
35
Q

Excessive cytokine release in a gram negative bacterial infection may lead to…

A

Endotoxic shock (caused by uncontrolled release of TNFα by macrophage)

36
Q

Where are blood cells made?

A

Bone marrow

37
Q

The balance between microbial symbiosis and dysbiosis in the body is influenced by (3)…

A
  • Diet and lifestyle
  • Medicines and hygeine
  • Genetics
38
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

The majority of inflammation in Crohn’s disease is found where (and why)?

A

On the boundary of the cecum/illeum, as this is where the most bacteria are found

39
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

Crohn’s disease is an innapropriate response of the immune system to…

A

Gut microbiota

40
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

Genetic succeptability to Crohn’s is caused by a mutation affecting the…

A

NOD 2 receptors

(Sub-type of NOD-like PRR receptors)

41
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

In normal function, what binds to NOD2 receptors, triggering releasing of defensins from gut epitheleal cells?

A

Muramyl dipeptide

42
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

Release of defensins from gut epitheleal cells helps to maintain homeostasis and prevent…

A

Overgrowth of gut bacteria (dysbiosis)

43
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

Outline the cause of inflammation in Crohn’s disease…

A
  • Disfunctional NOD2 receptor means defensins are not released to control bacterial numbers
  • Bacterial overgrowth occurs
  • Damage to the epitheleal barrier leads to cytokine release
  • Cytokines trigger inflammation
44
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease characterised by which 3 things?

A
  • Synovitis
  • Inflammation
  • Auto-antibodies
45
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

In mouse models which bacteria was found to cause development of arthritis?

A

Segmented filamentous bacteria (SFB)

46
Q

Innate defences in the gastrointestinal system

In the mouse model of autoimmune arthritis, SFB leads to an increase in which cell type, with what notable effect?

A

Increase in TH17 cells leads to increased IL-17 synthesis leading to increased inflammation

47
Q

Despite traditionally being seen as a sterile environment, sequencing has shown the presence of commensural bacteria in the urinary tract. They are mostly which genus?

A

bacillus

48
Q

UTIs are the 2nd most common infection in the world. They are most commonly caused by which bacteria (and from where)?

A

Uropathogenic E. Coli from the gut

49
Q

Uropathogenic E.Coli (UPEC) are flagellated, thus capable of locomotion. As a result they may also infect the bladder and kidney. These infections are known as…

A

Cystitis and pyelonephritis, respectively

50
Q

Three factors which help to maintain a healthy urinary tract are…

A
  • Urine flow
  • Epitheleal barrier
  • Epitheleal defensins
51
Q

The urinary tract detects flagellated bacteria via which receptors?

A

TLR5

(extracellular Toll-like receptors)

Defective TLR5 recepetors in ~10% population is responsible for a genetic predisposition to UTIs

52
Q
A