🔻✅1.5 -The Structure Of Nucleic Acids And Their Functions Flashcards

1
Q

What are nucleic acids?

A

Polymers made out of monomers called nucleotides

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2
Q

What is the name of a molecules containing many nucleotides?

A

Polynucleotide

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3
Q

How many nucleotides do polynucleotides contain?

A

Millions

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4
Q

What forms a nucleotide (3)

A
  • Phosphate group
  • pentode sugar
  • organic base
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5
Q

Does the phosphate group have the same or different structure in all nucleotides

A

Same

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6
Q

Give an example of the pentode sugar in DNA/RNA

A

Deoxyribose in DNA

Ribose in RNA

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7
Q

Name another name for the organic base in a nucleotide

A

‘Nitrogenous base’

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8
Q

What 2 groups can the organic base be split into? Give examples

A

Pyrimidine (Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil)

Purine (adenine and guanine)

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9
Q

What must happen in a chemical process

A

Bonds must be made/broken for a chemical process to occur

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10
Q

What are heterotrophic organisms? How do they obtain chemical energy?

A

Animals, obtain chemical energy through food

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11
Q

What are autotrophic organisms? How do they obtain chemical energy

A

Green plants, obtain energy through light which is converted into chemical energy via photosynthesis

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12
Q

What is ATP

A

Adenosine triphosphate

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13
Q

Why is ATP a form of energy currency not storage?

A

Because it’s involved when energy changes occur, it is synthesised when energy is made available

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14
Q

Where is ATP broken down

A

Broken down in the mitochondrion when energy is needed

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15
Q

Name the component of ATP you would find in its chemical diagram

A

Adenine + Ribose + 3 phosphate groups

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16
Q

What is the enzymes that hydrolyses ATP

A

ATPase

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17
Q

What does ATPase do?

A

It hydrolyses the bond between the second and third phosphate groups in ATP, removing the third and creating ADP (adenosine diphosphate) with the release of energy

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18
Q

How much energy is release when 1 mole of ATP is hydrolysed

A

30.6 KJ (when the bond breaks)

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19
Q

Name the name of a reaction which releases energy

A

Exergonic reaction

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20
Q

Name the name of a reaction which requires energy input

A

Endergonic reaction

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21
Q

Name the ATP reversible reaction.

A

ATP + water —<> ADP + P1

^H = -30.6 KJ mol -1

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22
Q

What does the ^H = -30.6 KJ mol -1 indicate In the ATP equation?

A

Means that there is a negative heat change and therefore energy is released

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23
Q

Why can’t you put + energy at the end of the ATP equation

A

Because chemical energy is not a material

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24
Q

Name the process where phosphate is added to ADP to form ATP

A

Phosphorylation

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25
Q

What does ATP do in terms of energy transfer

A

Transfers free energy from energy rich compounds e.g glucose to cellular reaction where it is needed

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26
Q

Name the process where energy is realised gradually

A

Respiration

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27
Q

Name the 4 advantages of having ATP as an intermediate in providing energy compared with the direct use of glucose:

A

1) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP releases energy immediately. Breakdown of glucose involves many intermediates and takes longer
2) Only 1 enzyme (ATPase) is needed to release energy from ATP, many are needed for glucose
3) ATP releases energy in small amounts when needed, glucose releases energy in large amounts at once
4) ATP is a common source of energy for many different chemical reactions increasing efficiency and control by the cell

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28
Q

Why is it inefficient to only derive chemical energy from the breakdown of glucose

A

Because too much energy would be lost at one time; therefore heat would increase and destroy cells

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29
Q

Name the 5 roles of ATP (cellular activity)

A

1) metabolic processes —> builds large complex molecules (DNA from nucleotides)
2) Active transport —> changes the shape of carrier proteins in membrane and allows molecules/ions to moved against a concentration gradient
3) movement —> muscle contraction
4) secretion —> packaging and transport of secretory products into vesicles
5) nerve transmission

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30
Q

What forms a double helix

A

2 polynucleotide strands wound around each other in a double helix

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31
Q

What is the pentose sugar in DNA nucleotides

A

Deoxyribose

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32
Q

How many organic bases are there in DNA

A

4

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33
Q

What are the purine bases in DNA

A

Adenine and guanine

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34
Q

What are the two pyrimidine bases in DNA

A

Cytosine and Thymine

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35
Q

What forms the backbone of the helix

A

The deoxyribose sugar and phosphate groups on the outside of the DNA molecule

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36
Q

What is the complimentary base to Adenine

A

Thymine

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37
Q

What is the complementary base to cytosine

A

Guanine

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38
Q

What maintains the shape of a double helix

A

The hydrogen bonds which join the bases to form complimentary base pairs

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39
Q

What is the shape of a DNA molecule

A

Long and thin, tightly coiled inside a choromosome

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40
Q

How Large is the diameter of the double helix

A

2nm

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41
Q

How long is DNA molecule number 1

A

85 nm

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42
Q

Describe the stands

A

Antiparallel (parallel but facing opposite directions)

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43
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are there between Adenine and Thymine?

A

2

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44
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are there between cytosine and Guanine?

A

3 hydrogen bonds

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45
Q

What does DNA carry?

A

Large value of genetic information

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46
Q

Why are the 2 polynucleotide strands able to separate?

A

Because they are held together by hydrogen bonds

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47
Q

How is genetic information protected inside DNA

A

The base pairs are on the inside of the double helix with deoxyribose phosphate backbones

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48
Q

Is DNA a stable or unstable molecule?

What does this allow

A

Stable

Allows information to pass unchanged from generation to generation

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49
Q

What pentose sugar does RNA contain?

A

Ribose

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50
Q

Is RNA a single or double stranded polynucleotide?

A

Single stranded

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51
Q

What purine bases does RNA contain?

A

Adenine and Guanine

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52
Q

What pyrimidine bases does RNA contain?

A

Cytosine and Uracil

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53
Q

Name the 3 types of RNA involved with protein synthesis

A
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 
Transfer RNA (tRNA)
54
Q

Describe mRNA

A
  • long single stranded molecule
  • synthesised in the nucleus
  • Different mRNA have different lengths, related to the genes where they are synthesised
55
Q

Where does mRNA carry genetic code?

A

Carries genetic code from the DNA to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm

56
Q

Describe rRNA

Example of use

A

-found in cytoplasm
-comprises large complex molecules
E.g ribosomes are made from rRNA and protein

57
Q

What happens in rRNA

A

Site of the translation of the genetic code into proteins.

58
Q

Describe structure (basic) of transfer RNA

A

Small single stranded molecule

-folds so that in some places there are base sequences forming complimentary base pairs

59
Q

What is the shape of transfer RNA described as?

A

Clover Leaf

60
Q

What does the 3’ end of a tRNA molecule have the base sequence as?
What happens at this point?
What else would this tRNA carry?

A

Cytosine, cytosine, adenine

  • location where Specific amino acid that the molecule carries attaches
  • also carries a sequence of 3 bases called the anticodon
61
Q

What does transfer RNA do?

A

Molecules of tRNA transport specific amino acids to the ribosomes in protein synthesis

62
Q

Name the pentose sugars in DNA vs RNA

A

Deoxyribose vs ribose

63
Q

Name the purine bases in DNA vs RNA

A

Guanine and Adenine in both

64
Q

Name the pyrimidine bases in DNA vs RNA

A

Cytosine and Thymine vs Cytosine and Uracil

65
Q

How many strands in DNA vs RNA?

A

2 in DNA (Double helix)

1 in RNA (single strand)

66
Q

Compare the lengths of DNA vs RNA

A

Long (DNA) vs Short

tRNA and rRNA = short, mRNA varies but is always shorter than DNA

67
Q

Who proposed the molecular theory of DNA?
When?
Helped by who?

A

Watson and Crick
1953
Helped by Franklin and Wilkins

68
Q

Where is DNA in in Eukaryotic cells?

A

Enclosed in the nuclei

Small molecules in chloroplasts and mitochondria

69
Q

Where is DNA in prokaryotic cells

A

Loose in the cytoplasm

Some viruses

70
Q

Name the two main roles of DNA:

A

1) Replication

2) Protein synthesis

71
Q

What is replication

A

If two strands of a double helix are separated, two identical double helices can be formed, as each parent strand can act as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand

72
Q

Define protein synthesis

A

The sequence of bases represents the information carried in DNA and determines the sequence of amino acids in proteins

73
Q

What is the term given to the copying of DNA

Where does this occur

A

Replication.

In the nucleus during interphase

74
Q

Name the 3 possibilities initially derived for the mechanism of DNA

A
  • conservative replication
  • semi-conservative replication
  • Dispersive replication
75
Q

Describe conservative replication

A

Where the parental double helix remains intact (conserved) and a whole new helix is made

76
Q

Describe semi-conservative replication

A

Mode of DNA replication in which each strand of a parallel double helix acts as a template for the formation of a new molecule, each containing an original, parental strand and a newly synthesised, complimentary daughter strand

77
Q

What is dispersive replication?

A

Idea that two new double helix’s contain fragments from both strands of the parental double helix

78
Q

What is the correct form of replication proposed by Watson and Crick

A

The semi-conservative replication

79
Q

What was Meselson-Stahl experiment focussed on?

A

Provided conclusive evidence of the semi conservative hypothesis through his study of Nitrogen

80
Q

What did Meselsohn and Stahl culture?

A

Cultured the bacterium ‘Escherichia Coli’ for several generations in a medium containing amino acids made with the heavy isotope 15Nitrogen opposed to lighter isotope 14Nitrogen

81
Q

What happened to the bacteria where cultured in the 15Nitrogen?

A

It incorporated the 15Nitrogen into their nucleotides and then DNA so the DNA eventually only contained 15Nitrogen

82
Q

What did Meselsohn and Stahl do after extracting the bacterial DNA?
What did they find?

A

Centrifuged it and found the DNA settled at a low point in the tube because 15N made it heavy

83
Q

After the centrifuge, the N15 was washed, why is this important?

A

Important as it stops contaminating 14N with the 15N do that 15N was not in any new DNA strands

84
Q

After adding the 15N bacteria to a medium containing lighter isotope 14N and allowing it to divide what do you do?
What was the findings?

A

DNA from the first generation culture was centrifuged and had a mid point density

85
Q

What did the first generation culture having a mid point density show?

A

Rules out conservative replication because that would produce a band showing the parental molecule that was entirely heavy

86
Q

Where did DNA from the second generation settle in the tube?

Discuss their densities

A

Settled at the mid point and the high point in equal amounts, midpoint had intermediate density and high point contained 14N only

87
Q

What did the results from the second generation show?

A

Ruled out dispersive replication because, if that were the case there would always be a mixture of light and heavy in every strand, and only 1 band would form.

88
Q

Why is the Meselsohn-Stahl experiment conclusive evidence of semi-conservative hypothesis?

A

Because one parental trans is conserved

89
Q

Describe the stages first stage in semi-conservative replication.

A
  • The hydrogen bonds holding the base pairs together break in the double helix
  • The DNA unwinds, catalysed by the enzyme helicase and the two strands of the molecule separate
90
Q

What happens in the second stage of semi-conservative replication

A

The enzyme DNA polymerase catalysed the condensation reaction between the 5’ -phosphate group is a free nucleotide to the 3’ OH in the growing DNA chain

  • each chain acts as a template and free nucleotides are joined to their complementary bases
  • newly synthesised daughter strands form
91
Q

What is DNA

A

DNA is a store of genetic Information, coded in the sequence of bases in the DNA in thousands of sections along its length called genes

92
Q

Describe how DNA determine the characteristics of an organism

A

DNA base sequence directs which amino acids join together :: which proteins/enzymes are made :: which reactions take place in an organism

93
Q

What is the triplet code

A

The idea that 3 based code for 1 amino acid

94
Q

What evidence supports the theory of the triplet code

A

4 bases of DNA (thymine, guanine, Cytosine and Adenine)

  • if 1 bade coded for 1 amino acid there would be 4 combinations
  • if 2 bases coded for an amino acid there would only be 16 combinations
  • proteins are made of 20 different amino acids :: 3 bases coding for 1 amino acid produces 64 possibilities :: suitable
95
Q

How many possible triplet code combinations are there?

How many amino acids are required for a protein to form?

A
  • 64 amino acid combinations

- 20 amino acids in each protein

96
Q

Why is the genetic code described as ‘degenerate’ or ‘redundant’?

A

Because one triplet can encode each amino acid

97
Q

What does the phrase “the genetic code is punctuated” mean?

A

It means there are 3 triplet codes that do not code for amino acids. In mRNA they are called ‘stop’ codons and mark the nare d if the portion to be translated

98
Q

Summarise the 5 characteristics of the genetic code

A
  1. Triplet code
  2. Redundant
  3. Punctuated
  4. Universal
  5. Non-overlapping
99
Q

Define a codon

A

Triplet of based in mRNA that codes for a particular amino acid, or punctual signal

100
Q

Define the term genetic code

A

The DNA and mRNA base sequence that determine the amino acid sequences in an organisms protein

101
Q

Define the term Exon

A

Nucleotide sequence in DNA and pre-mRNA that remains present I. The final mature mRNA after introns have been removed

102
Q

Define the term intron

A

Non-coding nucleotide sequence in DNA and pre-mRNA that is removed from pre-mRNA to produce mature mRNA

103
Q

What happens to RNA in eukaryotes and prokaryotes before it is used to synthesise the polypeptide

A

In prokaryotes the RNA is mRNA and can be used directly to direct the synthesis of protein
In eukaryotes the initial version of the RNA is pre-mRNA which is longer than the final mRNA :: introns (some sequences of bases) have to be removed

104
Q

How are introns removed from pre-mRNA in Eukaryotic cells

A

Introns are cut out of the pre-mRNA using endonucleases and the sequence left are exons which are joined together or spliced with ligases

LOOK AT DIAGRAM ON PAGE 99 IF CONFUSED

105
Q

What are the 2 main process in protein synthesis

A

Transcription and translation

106
Q

What is transcription

A

A segment of DNA acts as a template to direct the synthesis of a complementary sequence of RNA with the enzyme RNA polymerase.

107
Q

What is translation

A

The sequence of codons on the mRNA is used to assemble a specific sequence of amino acids into a polypeptide chain, at the ribosomes

108
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

At the nucleus

109
Q

Summarise the process of protein synthesis

A

DNA —> transcription in nucleus —> mRNA —> translation at ribosome —> polypeptide chain

110
Q

Describe the series of events that occur in transcription up until the formation of mRNA

A
  1. Enzyme DNA helicase breaks hydrogen bonds in DNA molecule causing 2 strands to separate exposing nucleotide bases
  2. Enzyme RNA polymerase binds to the template strand of DNA at beginning of the sequence to be copied
  3. Free complimentary RNA nucleotides align opposite the template strand
  4. RNA polymerase moves along DNA forming bonds growing the RNA strand.
  5. Causes synthesis is mRNA alongside the unwound portion of DNA
111
Q

Describe the series of events in transcription that occur after mRNA is formed

A

6-behind the RNA polymerase the DNA strands rewind to form the double helix
7-RNA polymerase separates from the template when it reaches ‘stop’ codon
8-production of the transcript is complete and the newly formed RNA detached from the DNA
LOOK AT DIAGRAM IN BOOK PAGE 100

112
Q

Which base is missing in RNA?

What is it replaced with?

A

No thymine in RNA

Replaced by Uracil

113
Q

What is the purpose of the mRNA produced?

A

To carry the genetic information originally held in the DNA through the nuclear pore to a ribosome in the cytoplasm

114
Q

What is the purpose of the codons on the mRNA as part of translation?

A

They are used to generate a specific set of amino acids, forming a polypeptide

115
Q

Where does translation take place?

What other aspect is vital for translation?

A

Translation takes place at the ribosome and it involves the use of tRNA (transfer RNA)

116
Q

What is the purpose of the large subunit of a ribosome in translation.

A

The larger subunit has 2 sites for the attachment of tRNA molecule so 2 molecules are associated with a ribosome at any 1 time

117
Q

What is the purpose of the small subunit of a ribosome for translation

A

Smaller subunit brings to the mRNA

118
Q

Describe the process of initiation as part of translation

A

1) initiation -a ribosome attaches to a ‘start’ codon at one end of mRNA molecule
2) first tRNA (with anticodon complimentary to first codon on the mRNA) attaches to ribosome
3) 3 bases of the codon on the mRNA bond to 3 complementary bases of the anticodon on the tRNA with hydrogen bonds
4) second tRNS, with anticodon complementary go the second codon on the mRNA attaches to the other attachment site and the codon and anti-codon bond with hydrogen bonds

119
Q

Describe the process of elongation as part of translation

A

1) two amino acids are close for a ribosomal enzyme to catalyse the formation of a peptide bond between them
2) first tRNA leaves the ribosome, leaving its attachment site vacant, it returns to the cytoplasm and bunds with another copy of its specific amino acid
3) ribosome moves one codon along the mRNA strand
4) Next tRNA binds

120
Q

Describe the process of termination

A

1) the sequence repeats until a ‘stop’ codon is reached
2) the ribosome (mRNA) polypeptide complex separates
3) normally several ribosomes bind to a single mRNA strand at a given point
4) Each ribosome produces a polypeptide, so several can be made at once

121
Q

What is a polysome?

A

An mRNA strand which has several ribosomes attached reading the coded information at the same time

122
Q

If the DNA triplet is CCC what is the mRNA codon and anticodon on the tRNA present

A

MRNA codon = complimentary to DNA = GGG

Anticodon on tRNA = complimentary to mRNA codon = CCC

123
Q

If the triplet code GAG is the DNA triplet, what is the mRNA codon and Anticodon present of tRNA

A

mRNA = complimentary = CUC

Anticodon tRNA = complimentary to mRNA = GAG

124
Q

Describe what happens after the tRNA is released from the ribosome

A

It is free to collect another amino acid from the amino acid pool In the cytoplasm.

125
Q

What is ‘amino acid activation’

A

The idea that energy is required to attach the amino acid to the tRNA

126
Q

What is the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis

A

The idea that a gene is now defined as a sequence of DNA bases that codes for 1 polypeptide

127
Q

What is ‘post-translational modification’

A

The modification of a polypeptide chain

128
Q

Give examples of some post-translational modification

A

Adding carbohydrate making glycoproteins
Adding lipids making lipoproteins
Adding phosphate making phospholipids-proteins

129
Q

How are the polypeptides changed after translation and where?

A

Polypeptides made on the ribosomes are transported through cytoplasm to the Golgi body. Sometimes the primary structure is function by normally the polypeptide is folded into secondary, tertiary or quaternary structures

130
Q

Give an example of a highly modified protein

A
  • Haemoglobin
  • Each polypeptide has a helix regions and a tertiary structure
  • four polypeptides are combine to form a quaternary structure
  • further modified by combination with four non-protein game groups
131
Q

Give 2 reasons why tRNA is important

A

Important as it carried information in the anticodon and it carried the specific amino acid to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain