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Occupational References > 14295B Laboratory/Pharmacy > Flashcards

14295B Laboratory/Pharmacy Flashcards

1
Q

Inhalation is divided into what 3 major types?

A

Vaporization
Gas
Nebulization

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2
Q

Topically applied medications serve what 2 purposes?

A

Local and systemic effects

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3
Q

How is the reference Drug Facts and Comparisons organized?

A

Therapeutic medication class

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4
Q

What reference contains a quick and concise medication info?

A

Drug Information Handbook

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5
Q

What are the 6 rights of medication administration?

A 
Patient
Medication
Dose
Route
Time 
Documentation
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6
Q

Medications usually what what 3 names?

A

Chemical
Generic
Brand/Trade

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7
Q

Aluminum acetate solution (Burrows Solution) is used as what?

A

Wet-to-dry dressing for relief of inflammatory conditions of the skin

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8
Q

What is used as a topical astringent and protectant to blistered, raw or oozing areas of the skin?

A

Calamine lotion

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9
Q

Definition of emollients

A

Bland or fatty substances applied to the skin to make it more pliable and soft

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10
Q

What is known as the “blue bible” of pharmacology?

A

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

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11
Q

What is the generic name for cocoa butter?

A

Theobroma oil

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12
Q

Zinc oxide is a white petrolatum emollient containing what percentage of zinc oxide powder?

A

20%

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13
Q

Expectorants are more accurately know as what?

A

Bronchomucotropic agents

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14
Q

Define dosage range

A

The min and max amount to produce the desired effect

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15
Q

What is HCL?

A

Pseudophedrine Hydrochloride

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16
Q

Define posology

A

The study of dosages and the criteria that influence it

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17
Q

What is the generic name for Mucinex D?

A

Pseudophedrine

Guaifenesin

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18
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

Study of the action or the effects of medications on living organisms

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19
Q

What medication may be taken to ease the effects of radiation sickness?

A

Dimenhydrinate

Dramamine

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20
Q

What medication is used to treat GERD?

A

Ranitidine

Zantac

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21
Q

What are histamine H2 receptor antagonists effective in preventing?

A

Peptic ulcers

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22
Q

Oral medication should be avoided for how long after taking an antacid?

A

2hrs

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23
Q

What is used to reduce phosphate absorption in patients with chronic renal failure?

A

Magnesium Hydroxide

Milk of Magnesia

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24
Q

What text sets the standards for the quality, purity, strength and provides standards for medications?

A

United States Pharmacopeia and National Formulary

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25
Q

Contraindications to give magnesium hydroxide?

A

Abdominal pain
Nausea
Vomiting

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26
Q

What designates the USP-NF as the official reference for medications marketed in the US?

A

US Federal Food, Medication and Cosmetics Act

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27
Q

Prolonged use of magnesium hydroxide may cause what?

A

Kidney stones

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28
Q

What is the major advantage of taking Aluminum Hydroxide?

A

No systemic alkalosis

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29
Q

Define pharmacognosy

A

Deals with biological biochemical and economic features of natural meds

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30
Q

Why is Maalox better than Amphojel?

A

Less constipating

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31
Q

What effect to antiseptics have on microbes?

A

Suppressing

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32
Q

Define pharmacotherapeutics

A

The use of meds in the treatment of diseases

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33
Q

What effect do germicides have on microbes?

A

Lethal

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34
Q

Disinfectants generally have what effect?

A

Germicidal

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35
Q

What is the standard by which all other antiseptic agents are measured for effectiveness?

A

Phenol

Carbolic acid

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36
Q

High concentrations of phenol can cause what?

A

Tissue destruction

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37
Q

What inactivates phenol?

A

Alcohol

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38
Q

What does betadine release into the skin?

A

Free iodine

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39
Q

What decreases the effectiveness of hexachlorophene?

A

Pus or serum

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40
Q

Hexachlorophene should not be used on what patients?

A

Premature infants
Denuded skin
Burns
Mucous membranes

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41
Q

Define toxicology

A

Study of poisons

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42
Q

Residual amounts of hexachlorophene can be removed with what?

A

Alcohol

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43
Q

Glutaraldehyde is used to sterilize materials that are not resistant to heat and is effective against what kind of bacteria?

A

Vegetative

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44
Q

What % is hydrogen peroxide usually available in?

A

3%

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45
Q

What is hydrogen peroxide usually used to treat?

A

NUG

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46
Q

What is mostly used in a solid form to cauterize mucous membranes and to treat aphthous ulcers?

A

Silver nitrate

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47
Q

What is the most common side effect of silver nitrate?

A

Turns skin black

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48
Q

What is silver nitrate in liquid form used for?

A

Gonorrheal ophthalmia

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49
Q

What happens if a wet dressing of silver nitrate dries out?

A

Causes argyria

Turns skin slate grey, uncureable

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50
Q

Prior to penicillin, what was the first effective chemotherapeutic?

A

Sulfonamides

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51
Q

What year was penicillin introduced?

A

1941

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52
Q

What is penicillin’s mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits cells wall synthesis

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53
Q

Penicillin G, Aqueous may only be administered how?

A

Parenteral IV only

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54
Q

Penicillin G, Benazathine is used to treat infections caused by what group of bacteria?

A

Streptococcal group A

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55
Q

Define therapeutics

A

Science of treating disease by any method that will relive pain, treat or cure infection

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56
Q

What has a longer duration of action than most other penicillins?

A

Penicillin G, Procain, Aqueous

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57
Q

What is the drug of choice for uncomplicated group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infections?

A

Penicillin V Potassium

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58
Q

What is used to teat penicillin G resistant staphylococci?

A

Dicloxacillin sodium

Dynapen

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59
Q

What is used to treat shigella, salmonella, e-coli and gonorrhea?

A

Ampicillin

Polycillin

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60
Q

Amoxicillin is preferred over Ampicillin due to it’s effectiveness to treat what?

A

Shiggella

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61
Q

Amoxicillin and Clavulante potassium are used to treat infections caused by what?

A

Bacteria

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62
Q

Cephalosporin C is an antimicrobial agent of what origin?

A

Fungal

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63
Q

What percentage of PTs allergic to penicillin may also be allergic to cephalosporin?

A

5-16%

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64
Q

Cephalosporin antibiotics are generally divided into how many generations?

A

3

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65
Q

What is a unique characteristic about third generation cephalosporin agents?

A

Much broader gram-negative spectrum

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66
Q

What was the first truly broad spectrum antibiotic?

A

Tetracycline

Introduced in 1948

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67
Q

What is tetracycline’s mechanism of action?

A

Blocking formation of polypeptides used in protein synthesis

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68
Q

What is the most common side effect of tetracyclines?

A

Gastrointestinal disturbances

Not indicated for children/pregnant women

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69
Q

Why should children and pregnant women not take tetracyclines?

A

Discolors teeth and depresses bone marrow growth

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70
Q

What should not be consumed while taking tetracyclines?

A

Milk

Antacids

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71
Q

What is given for rocky mounted spotted fever?

A

Tetracycline

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72
Q

When is tetracycline given around meal time?

A

1hr before

2hrs after

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73
Q

What is the method of action in aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

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74
Q

Define pharmacy

A

Preparation, dispensing and proper use of meds

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75
Q

When is neomycin sulfate used?

A

Skin infections/burns

Reduce intestinal flora pre surgery

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76
Q

What is used in patients w/ penicillin sensitivities?

A

Macrolides

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77
Q

What is the drug of choice when penicillin is contraindicated?

A

Erythromycin

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78
Q

What is a side effect of erythromycin?

A

Skin sunburns easily

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79
Q

What is the treatment for Vincent’s angina?

A

Hydrogen Peroxide

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80
Q

Treatment of choice for tinea pedis?

A

Undecyclenic acid

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81
Q

What accounts for the largest number of chronic disabling diseases?

A

Parasitic infections

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82
Q

What is prescribed, despite it’s toxicity, for scabies and ectoparasites?

A

Permethrin

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83
Q

Drug of choice for pin worms and round worms?

A

Mebendanzole

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84
Q

What is chloroquine phosphate used for?

A

Acute malarial attacks

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85
Q

What laxative is preferred by the x-ray dept?

A

Magnesium citrate

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86
Q

What laxative produces effect in 6hrs?

A

Dulcolax

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87
Q

What laxative takes up to 72hrs to produce it’s effect?

A

Metamucil

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88
Q

What drug is known as potassium sparing?

A

Triamterene

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89
Q

What drug is known as potassium depleting?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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90
Q

What medication is prescribed for PTs allergic to aspirin?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

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91
Q

When is Motrin not recommended?

A

GI bleeding
Renal impairment
3rd trimester

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92
Q

When is Mobic contraindicated?

A

3rd trimester

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93
Q

What chapter of the MANMED sets for the control, custody and accountability for controlled substances?

A

Chpt 21

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94
Q

What CNS stimulant is used in conjunction w/ diet therapy for obesity?

A

Dexadrine

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95
Q

What is the drug of choice for petit mal epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital

Luminal

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96
Q

What CNS depressant is used for short term treatment of insomnia?

A

Pentobarbital

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97
Q

The major medical use for opium has been for what?

A

Anti-peristaltic activity

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98
Q

What synthetic analgesic is not as effective as morphine in its analgesic properties?

A

Demerol

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99
Q

What are the 3 types of psychotherapeutic agents?

A

Major tranquilizers
Minor tranquilizers
Mood modifiers

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100
Q

What is considered a good all around tranquilizer?

A

Thioridazine

Mellaril

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101
Q

What is the drug of choice for schizophrenia?

A

Haldol

102
Q

What is the drug of choice for status epilepticus?

A

Diazepam

Valium

103
Q

In the US military, valium is also known as what?

A

CANA- Convulsive Antidote, Nerve Agent

104
Q

Prozac can also be useful in treating what else?

A

Bulimia

OCD

105
Q

What med is used for short term treatment of insomnia?

A

Ambien

106
Q

Define toxic dose

A

Least amount of medication that will produce symptoms of poisoning

107
Q

What skeletal muscle relaxant is prescribed in conjunction with physical therapy?

A

Flexeril

108
Q

What term is used to describe the normal adult dose?

A

Therapeutic dose

109
Q

What vitamin is necessary for carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Vitamin B1

Thiamine

110
Q

Deficiency of what vitamin leads to diagnosis of beriberi?

A

Vitamin B1

Thiamine

111
Q

What vitamin functions as a coenzyme necessary for tissue respiration?

A

Vitamin B2

Riboflavin

112
Q

Deficiency of Vitamin B2 results in what?

A

Visual disturbances

Fatigue

113
Q

What vitamin is used in the treatment of pellagra?

A

Vitamin B3

Niacin

114
Q

What vitamin is used in conjunction of INH therapy?

A 
Vitamin B6
(Pyridoxine hydrochloride)
115
Q

What vitamin regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism?

A

Vitamin D

116
Q

Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to what in adults/kids?

A

Adults: Asteomalacia
Kids: Rickets

117
Q

What vitamin is necessary in preventing RBCs from being destroyed?

A

Vitamine E

118
Q

Which fat soluble vitamin has many synthetic forms that are water soluble?

A

Vitamin K

119
Q

What inhalation anesthesia is used in most operative procedures with patients of all ages?

A

Halothane

Fluothane

120
Q

What drug is use for spinal anesthesia?

A

Procaine hydrochloride

Novocaine

121
Q

What drug is the standard which all other anesthetics are compared?

A 
Lidocaine hydrochloride 
(0.05g max /hr when used w/ epinephrine
122
Q

What topical anesthetic is used for almost every ophthalmic procedure?

A

Proparacaine

Ophthectic, Ophthaine

123
Q

What two factors affecting dosage?

A

Age (most common)

Weight

124
Q

What oxytocic treats postpartum and post-abortal hemorrhage?

A

Ergonovine maleate

125
Q

What has a more direct bearing on the dose than any otehr factor?

A

Weight

126
Q

What instruction is referred to for immunizations?

A

BUMEDINST 6230.15

127
Q

How is Hep A exposed?

A

Food/water

128
Q

How is Hep B exposed?

A

Blood/bodily fluids

129
Q

What causes acute febrile respiratory viral infections that cause epidemics within military populations?

A

Influenza A/B

130
Q

Mode of transmission for MMR?

A

Respiratory

Person-to-person

131
Q

Define metrology

A

Arithmetic of pharmacy

Study and science of weights and measures

132
Q

What is the official system of weight and measures?

A

Metric system

133
Q

What is the relationship of one quality to another of like value?

A

Ratio

134
Q

What is the expression of equality of two ratios?

A

Proportion

135
Q

Define elixirs

A

Aromatic, sweetened hydroalcholic solutions containing meds

136
Q

Define suspensions

A

Course dispersions comprised of finely divided insoluble material suspended in a liquid medium

137
Q

Define ointments

A

Semisolid, fatty or oily preparations of medicinal substances

138
Q

What are the two types of balances?

A

Torsion

Electronic

139
Q

All pharmacies are required to have how many of this Class A balance

A

One

140
Q

What is the angle of taper within a ribbed funnel?

A

60*

141
Q

What is the name of a glass container with metric measurements inscribed on it?

A

Erlenmeyer flask

142
Q

What is used to reduce substances to fine powders?

A

Mortar and pestle

143
Q

What is a knife-like utensil with a rounded, flexible, smoothly ground blade for transferring quantities?

A

Spatula

144
Q

What is used to measure liquids volumetrically?

A

Graduates

145
Q

Define immiscibility

A

Incapable of being mixed of two or more liquids

146
Q

Define salting out

A

Precipitation due to change in solution that results in decreased solubility

147
Q

Define eutexia

A

Liquification of solids mixed in a dry state

148
Q

What is the other name of the Metric system?

A

International system of units

149
Q

What are the prefixes for 10, 100, 1000?

A

Deca
Hecto
Kilo

150
Q

What are the prefixes for 1, 01, 001?

A

Deci 1/10
Centi 1/100
Milli 1/1000

151
Q

What should not follow metric symbols?

A

Period

152
Q

What are the basic units of Apothercaries’ system?

A

Weight: grain “gr”
Volume: minim “m”

153
Q

What are the basic units of weight in Avoirdupois system?

A

dram: 27.344 grains
ounce: 16 drams
pound: 16 ounces

154
Q

?ml=1tsp

A

5ml=1tsp

155
Q

?ml=1tbsp

A

15ml=1tbsp

156
Q

?tbsp=1/2 fl oz

A

15ml=1/2 fl oz

157
Q

What is the most important tool used by the pharmacy?

A

Prescription

158
Q

What form is used for one medication order?

A

DD 1289

159
Q

What form is used for multiple medication order?

A

NAVMED 6710/6

160
Q

What is the max number of prescriptions that can be ordered on a NAVMED 6710/6?

A 
4
superscription
inscription
subscription
signa
161
Q

What form are controlled meds ordered on?

A

DD 1289

162
Q

How many parts are in the DD 1289?

A

4 parts

163
Q

Define superscription

A

Take thou

164
Q

Define inscription

A

Quantity of med

165
Q

Define subscription

A

Directions to the compounder

166
Q

Define signa

A

Directions to the patient

167
Q

Verification of labels on meds occurs how many times when filling a prescription?

A

3 times

168
Q

What symbol follows schedule 2-5 meds?

A

2: N

3-5: C

169
Q

All prescriptions not filed separately are maintained in?

A

General files

170
Q

How long are prescriptions required to be kept on file?

A

2 yrs

171
Q

How man refills per schedule are allowed?

A

I- not acceptable for use
II- fill w/in 7 days
III- fill w/in 30 days
IV- 5 refills w/in 6 mon

172
Q

How often is inventory of controlled substances conducted?

A

Quarterly

173
Q

How many members are appointed to the CSIB by the CO?

A

3 members

174
Q

Define pyrogens

A

Products of the growth of microorganisms

175
Q

Young’s rule

A

Age in yrs/age in yrs +12 x normal adult dose

176
Q

Clark’s rule

A

PT lbs/150 x adult dose

177
Q

What is the lab form number?

A

SF 545

178
Q

Where is a listing of SF forms found?

A

P-117

179
Q

Alcohol pads contain what percentage of a solution?

A

70%

180
Q

Which finger is the best to stick?

A

Middle or ring

Puncture perpendicular to grooves

181
Q

How deep is a lancet puncture?

A

2mm

182
Q

What is the preferred source of blood for clinical examination?

A

Venipuncture

183
Q

Why is the first drop of blood wiped away from a finger stick?

A

Prevent sample dilution from tissue fluid

184
Q

Proper tourniquet placement?

A

3-4” above site

185
Q

What angle is a venipuncture needle inserted?

A

15-30*

186
Q

When is tourniquet removed during venipuncture procedure?

A

When blood flows into tube

187
Q

Max time a tourniquet can be left?

A

1 min

188
Q

What color tube is best choice for routine chem tests?

A

Red top

189
Q

What color tube is used for CBC?

A

Lavender

190
Q

What additive is in green top tubes?

A

Heparin

191
Q

What part of the microscope is the prepared specimen placed for examination?

A

Mechanical stage

192
Q

What objective is used for a detailed history of stained bacterial smears?

A

Oil immersion

193
Q

What are the 3 objectives/strengths on a microscope?

A

10x- low
40x- high
100x- oil immersion

194
Q

Magnification of the ocular lens?

A

10x

195
Q

What 5 tests are included in a CBC?

A 
RBC count
Hemoglobin determination
Hematocrit calculation
WBC count
WBC differential
196
Q

What 3 factors affect hemoglobin values?

A

Age
Sex
Altitude

197
Q

Low RBC count means?

A

Anemia

198
Q

Normal hemoglobin levels /100ml of blood?

A

M: 14-18
F: 12-16

199
Q

Define hematocrit

A

Volume of erythrocytes expressed as a % of whole blood volume

200
Q

Normal hematocrit values?

A

M: 42-52%
F: 37-47%

201
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

4,800-10,800/mm^3

202
Q

What term means high WBC count?

A

Leukocytosis

203
Q

What term means low WBC count?

A

Leukopenia

204
Q

What causes leukopenia?

A

Radiation
Anaphylactic shock
Viral infections

205
Q

What part of the CBC is most indicative of the severity of an infection?

A

WBC differential

206
Q

What are the 5 types of WBC?

A 
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
207
Q

Define morphology

A

Study of the form and structure of organisms

208
Q

What comprises the largest % of leukocytes?

A

Neutrophil

209
Q

What leukocyte functions by ingesting bacteria?

A

Neutrophil

210
Q

What leukocyte responds to parasitic infections and allergic reactions?

A

Eosinophils

211
Q

What WBC has a large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus?

A

Basophils

212
Q

Rise in basophils is indicative of what?

A

Inflammatory disorders

Leukemias

213
Q

What WBC fights viral infections?

A

Lymphocyte

214
Q

What WBC has a clear sky blue halo around the cytoplasm?

A

Lymphocyte

215
Q

What is the term for bacteria that cause disease?

A

Pathogen

216
Q

What WBC has bluish-gray cytoplasm and is the largest of the WBCs?

A

Monocyte

217
Q

4 growth requirements for bacteria?

A

Temperature
Oxygen
Nutrition
Moisture

218
Q

3 bacterial shapes?

A

Cocci- round
Rod- bacillus
Spiral- spirochete

219
Q

What bacteria causes strep throat?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

220
Q

What bacteria causes bubonic plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

221
Q

What is the name of a foreign body that causes a detectable reaction?

A

Antigen

222
Q

What test is used to detect syphilis?

A

RPR

223
Q

Monospot test for?

A

Mononucleosis

224
Q

What is indicative of a pos RPR?

A

Black clumps on white background

Neg- gray

225
Q

What is a positive monospot test look like?

A

Agglutination

clumping

226
Q

Best urine specimen for screening?

A

Morning void

227
Q

What is the desired urine amount for testing?

A

12ml

10-15 for children

228
Q

What color urine will have bile present?

A

yellow or brown

229
Q

What color urine will have Pyridium?

A

Dark orange

230
Q

Normal specific gravity limits

A

1.015-1.030

231
Q

If one drop of 2% acetic acid is added to urine it will dissolve what cells?

A

RBCs

232
Q

What cell is not normally found in urine?

A

RBCs

233
Q

What urine test result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes?

A

Glucose and ketones in urine

234
Q

What are the 2 methods of collecting blood?

A

Capillary

Venipuncture

235
Q

When is venipuncture method selected?

A

Pediatric
Severely burned
ICU

236
Q

What part of the microscope concentrates and focuses the light onto the specimen?

A

Condenser

237
Q

What part of the microscope is located on the condenser to control the amount and angle of light?

A

Iris diaphragm

238
Q

What usually causes leukocytosis?

A

Systemic or localized infections

239
Q

Psychrophilic temp range

A

Cold loving

4*C

240
Q

Mesophilic temp range

A

Body temp

35*C

241
Q

Thermophilic temp range

A

42*C

242
Q

Normal adult urine output?

A

600-2000ml

1500ml average

243
Q

What causes urine to be yellow or brown but turn green when shaken?

A

Bile

244
Q

WBC count for PT w/ acute infection

A

Above 50,000

245
Q

What Hgb concentration indicates anemia?

A

Below 7

246
Q

Specific gravity will be highest when?

A

Morning

247
Q

What instrument is used to test specific gravity?

A

Refractometer

248
Q

How long does it take for urine reagent strips to show results?

A

2min

249
Q

What level of magnification is used to examine urine?

A

40x

250
Q

What microscopic observation may indicate a urinary tract disease?

A

More than 3 WBC in high-powered field

251
Q

Casts in a urine sample indicate what?

A

Kidney disorder

Urine will have albumin

252
Q

Casts in urine indicate?

A

Albumin

Occupational References (19 decks)

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