Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Probationary Period > 121. 13 & 14 Ems Protocols/ Review > Flashcards

121. 13 & 14 Ems Protocols/ Review Flashcards

1
Q

List four sign or symptoms of Carbon monoxide Poisoning?

A

Headaches,
errors in judgment,
Confusion,
loss of coordination,
loss of consciousness,
chest pain,
cyanosis,
seizures,
irritability,
vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The first step treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning is?

A

Remove patient from the contaminated environment, if safe to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Use of pulse oximeter is a reliable tool for measuring O2 saturation with carbon monoxide
poisoning?

T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Whom should you contact if you need assistance in managing specific overdoses?

A

Contact Poison Control on Channel H-11 or
call 1-800-222-1222.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cyanide is a cellular toxin – it halts respiration at the __________.

A

Cellular level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some early signs and symptoms of cyanide exposure?

A

Anxiety,
vertigo,
weakness,
headache,
tachypnea,
nausea,
dyspnea,
vomiting,
tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If you have a patient that has been bitten / stung by an insect, reptile, or animal that has caused
injury to your patient, should you bring the living animal to the hospital with you?

A

No. Do not transport it with you.

Remove restricted clothing from pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If an anaphylactic reaction occurs as a result of a bite or sting you should?

Reference: 2014 Protocols page 69
Refer to the allergic reaction/anaphylaxis protocol.

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Once the head emerges, suction the newborns mouth then nose to clear secretions. If the cord is
wrapped around the newborns neck, what shall the provider attempt to unwrap from the neck.

A

The provider shall attempt to unwrap it from the neck.
If unable to remove the cord, attach the 2 umbilical clamps and cut the cord between the
clamps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first step in the birthing process once the head presents itself?

A

You are to suction the newborn’s mouth then nose to clear secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Once delivery is accomplished, clamp the cord at _____ and _____ from the navel and cut
between the clamps.

Reference: 2014 Protocols page 109; (All Providers)

A

??
6” and 8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should you score the APGAR score?

A

At 1 minute and at 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a prolapsed cord?

A

When the umbilical cord presents itself outside of the uterus while the fetus is still inside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What position should you place the mother in that has a prolapsed cord?
Reference: 2014 Protocols page 112

A

????
You should place the patient in the knee-chest position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the event that the patient has experienced a miscarriage and if there is any question as to the
approximate gestation of the fetus you should?

A

Provide resuscitative measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If the newborn has a heart rate of less than 60 bpm or 60-80, and the chest is not rapidly rising, the provider should perform what procedure?

A

Initiate CPR with a Bag-Valve –Mark with supplemental high flow O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy apply to the pregnant patient?

A

The pregnant patients are 20 weeks or greater in gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the protocol Trauma in Pregnancy, what are the 2 instances where you would not resuscitate the patient?

A

Where there is apparent dependent lividity and rigor mortis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hyperthermia reactions generally relate to _______, _______, or in severe cases, _______.

A

Heat cramps,
heat exhaustion, or
in severe cases heat stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should you do if heat exhaustion or cramps are suspected?

A

Move the patient to a cool environment and obtain a temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If heat stroke is suspected where should you place cold packs on the patient?

A

Cold Packs should be placed at the
groin,
under the axilla,
around the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is hypothermia defined as?

A

Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 95°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Patients that are restrained should never be placed in the prone or face down position nor have
external pressure on the Chest that may impede respiration.

A

Prone or face down position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A patient with moderate to severe hypothermia may often present with signs and symptoms of?

A

Hypothermic patients may have altered mental status and occasionally a decreased pulse,
respiratory rate, and blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Patients in cardiac arrest with suspected severe hypothermia shall not be considered dead until?

A

Re-warming has been completed at a medical facility

26
Q

What protocol applies to patients suffering from an accidental or intentional submersion in any
liquid?

A

Drowning/near drowning

27
Q

When transporting a patient that has been restrained you must transport that patient in what
position?

A

Supine

28
Q

You should always make sure that Law Enforcement is summoned to all responses involving
potentially combative patients?

T or F

A

True

29
Q

For patients over 18 years of age and under 65 with normal signs and there is only an isolated
behavioral problems law enforcement can transport the patient to Comprehensive Psychiatric
Emergency Program (CPEP)?

True / False

A

True

30
Q

Criteria for determining a patient presumed dead on arrival (PDOA) shall include those that are pulseless and apneic with one or more of the following?

A

-Rigor mortis
-Dependent lividity
-Decomposition
-Traumatic injuries incompatible with life such as organ destruction of the
-Brain or thoracic contents, decapitation.
-Incineration
-Submersion ≥24 hours
-Valid out-of-hospital DNR order is present
-A valid licensed physician, on scene, orders that resuscitation not be attempted

31
Q

When you have a (PDOA) patient whom should you request to investigate the scene and assume responsibility for the deceased person?

A

Law Enforcement should be requested

32
Q

Who does the District of Columbia honor reciprocity DNR orders?

A

Maryland and Virginia

33
Q

What are the following interventions that may be provided to a patient who is wearing a DNR- CCO that is intact and has not been defaced to provide comfort of or alleviate pain?

A

a. clear the airway,
b. suction as needed,
c. provide oxygen,
d. administer pain medication,
e. control bleeding,
f. make comfort adjustments

34
Q

Who can revoke the comfort care order at any time?

A

The patient or authorized decision maker/surrogate

35
Q

When ventilating a child with special needs if the child’s condition improves there may have
been a problem with the ventilator?

True or False

A

True

36
Q

Medications that a child is presently taking may be the cause for deterioration?

True or False

A

True

37
Q

What is the most common emergency with central lines in children?

A

Blockage or obstruction of the line, complete or partial accidental removal or complete or partial
laceration to the line.

38
Q

A good source of gaining knowledge on medical devices for children with special health care needs is to?

A

Ask the caretaker

39
Q

If an in-dwelling catheter becomes completely removed you should attempt to reinsert the catheter and transport to the nearest hospital

  • True or False?
A

False – Do not attempt

40
Q

You should always bring the line with you to the hospital

– True or False?

A

True

41
Q

Children with gastrostomy tubes will not have complications due to destruction or dislodgement of the tube

– True or False?

A

False

42
Q

Are Fire/EMS personnel required to report cases of suspected child/elder abuse or neglect to the police agency responsible for the area which the call occurred?

A

Yes, you are required to report cases of abuse.

43
Q

Should you confront or become hostile to the parent or caregiver that you think may be an abuser?

A

No, you should not confront the parent or caregiver.

44
Q

If you suspect that a patient is being neglected should you report the situation?

A

Yes

45
Q

What is the purpose of having Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) start and jumpstart triage protocol?

A

To provide structure to the triage and treatment of persons involved in a multiple or mass
casualty incident or a multiple patient scene.

46
Q

What is the definition of a multiple or mass casualty incident?

A

An emergency scene that creates a number of patients sufficient to significantly overwhelm
available resources.

47
Q

What is considered a Multiple Casualty Incident?

A

Less than 9 patients

48
Q

How many patients do you have to have to declare a Mass Casualty Incident?

A

9 or more patients (needs to be declared)

49
Q

What is the definition of Triage?

A

The process of sorting and categorizing patients based on the severity of their symptoms.

50
Q

Patients will be categorized into the four following groups; each group has a color designation to assist in the rapid sorting of triaged patients. What are the colors and the title of them?

A

Red (immediate),
Yellow (delayed),
Green (minor),
Black (deceased)

51
Q

During a primary triage, providers should spend no more than ______ with each patient.

A

30 seconds

52
Q

After the initial evaluation of incident rehab, members will be reassessed after a ______ rest period.

A

20 minute

53
Q

During Incident Rehabilitation member should not use what fluids as part of oral hydration?

A

Alcohol, caffeine or carbonated beverages

54
Q

What is the acronym that can be used for determining symptoms of a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?

Reference: 2014 Protocols page 168

A

S L U D G E M C

S=
L=
U=
D=
G=
E=
M=
C=

55
Q

What are the two chemicals most widely used in pesticides today?

A

Organophosphate and Carbamate

56
Q

What is the two-part antidote for emergent treatment for a nerve agent exposure?

A

Atropine + 2-Pam chloride

57
Q

What are the serious forms of human anthrax?

A

Inhalation,
cutaneous,
intestinal

58
Q

What Biological poisoning symptoms may mimic pneumonia or food poisoning depending on the rate of transmission?

A

Ricin poisoning

59
Q

With Acute Radiation Syndrome, can you use available radiation detection equipment to determine the presence of significant amounts of contamination on an individual?

A

Yes you can

60
Q

What is considered the preferred method or solution for the decontamination of a patient with Acute Radiation Syndrome?

A

A lukewarm soapy water solution

Probationary Period (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions