121. 12 Ems Flashcards

1
Q

Medical communications is a vital component of pre-hospital care, Medical communications with Medical Control or a receiving facility should be conducted for
every __________ patient.

A

Priority 1 patient

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2
Q

When transmitting patient information, ________ include personal or sensitive information.

T or F

A

False (DO NOT)

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3
Q

Hospitals will designate personnel to assess patients brought by EMS transport units with the goal of transferring care and releasing the unit within __________ of the patient’s arrival to the
Emergency Department (ED).

A

10 minutes

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4
Q

Upon arriving at a receiving facility,
EMS providers will not initiate new medical care once they cross the threshold of the facility.

T or F

A

True

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5
Q

In general patient care for a patient with chest pains, you should administer_________ PO
(chewed or swallowed) if not taken during the previous 24 hours or has a known allergy?

A

Aspirin 324 mg
(4 pills that are 81mg)

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6
Q

What would a provider do if a patient presentation is atypical and the protocol treatment may not be in the best interest for the patient or in any situation where the EMS provider is not sure about the best treatment for the patient?

A

Contact Medical Control

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7
Q

What is the dose of Albuterol given via nebulizer?

A

2.5mg

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8
Q

What is the dose of Atrovent given via nebulizer?

A

500 mcg

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9
Q

A patient with Asthma/COPD that presents respiratory distress with suspected bronchospasm/wheezing. How many times may all providers administer Albuterol with Atrovent via a nebulizer?

A

Once

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10
Q

For Asthma and COPD patients the CPAP device is started at 10 cmH2O with an in line
nebulizer.

True or False

A

False, it is started at 5 cmH2O

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11
Q

If a patient with a medical history of asthma, and is in extremis you should administer?

A

Epinephrine 1:1000 0.3mg IM via auto injector to the lateral aspect of the thigh

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12
Q

If the patient is > 8 years of age with a blood glucose level of ______ and displays signs/symptoms of hypoglycemia, administer oral glucose 24-50 gm SL if the patient is conscious enough to swallow.

A

<70mg/dl

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13
Q

If a narcotic (opiate) overdose is suspected with a GCS of less than 13; the BLS provider shall
administer?

A

Naloxone (Narcan) 2mg IN

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14
Q

If a patient presents with a severe anaphylactic reaction with associated hypo-perfusion and/or
respiratory distress, proceed to the following treatment regimen?

A

Epinephrine Auto-injector Adult 0.3 mg IM

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15
Q

The current hospitals in the District of Columbia identified as designated stroke centers are?

A

-George Washington Hospital (H08),
-Georgetown Hospital (H07),
-Washington Hospital Center (H13),
-Howard University Hospital (H05),
-Providence Hospital (H10)
-Sibley Hospital (H-12).

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16
Q

On what channel on the radio can you contact Poison Control?

A

Channel H-11 or you can call 1-800-222-1222

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17
Q

In general indications for a referral to a burn center apply to patients with basically _____ or
_____ degree burns.

A

2nd or 3rd

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18
Q

Consider activation of the _________ for a patient involved in an unusual extrication, prolonged
crush injury, or possible field amputation.

A

GO TEAM

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19
Q

__________ is a limb and life-threatening condition seen when perfusion pressure falls below
tissue pressure in a closed anatomical space in instances of Long Bone fractures, high energy
trauma, crush injuries.

A

Compartment Syndrome (CS)

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20
Q

What is the cut-off age to take a child with a major burn or major trauma to Children’s National
Medical Center (CNMC)?

A

<15 years of age

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21
Q

When does the PDOA protocol not apply to the trauma patient that is pregnant?

A

When the patient is 20 weeks or greater in gestation, except where there is apparent dependent
lividity and rigor mortis.

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22
Q

When the BLS provider contacts medical control which hospitals are medical control hospitals
for patients being transported to them?

A

Each hospital shall serve as medical control

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23
Q

When you have a pediatric patient and need to contact medical control what hospital would you
utilize?

A

Hospital 02 (Children’s National Medical Center)

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24
Q

What does AVPU stand for?

A

A–Alert,
V-Responsive to Verbal Stimulus,
P-Responsive to Painful Stimulus,
U-Unresponsive

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25
Q

What are the normal vital signs for an Adolescent?

A

Respirations (12-24),
Pulse (60-100),
Systolic BP (>90)

26
Q

To inquire about pertinent past medical history you may use the acronym?

A

SAMPLE
S-Signs/Symptoms,
A-Allergies,
M-Medication,
P-Past medical history,
L-last oral intake,
E-events leading up to illness or injury

27
Q

To effectively maintain awareness of changes in the patient’s condition, repeated assessments are
essential and should be performed?

A

5 minutes on the unstable patient,
15 minutes on the stable patient

28
Q

All patients with an amputation should be transported to the Med/Star (H4).

True / False

A

False

29
Q

Sexual assault patients <18 years of age should be transported to?

A

Children’s National Medical Center (CNMC)

30
Q

Insufficient Respiratory Effort includes what clinical findings?

A

Less than 8 Breaths a minute (or below the lower limits or normal rates for pediatric patients),
Greater than 26 respirations per minute in adults (above the higher limits of normal Pediatrics),
No visible chest rise with inspiratory effort, Pulse Oximeter readings of less than 90%

31
Q

What determines their priority level?

A

Priority 1 (unstable patients),
Priority 2 (potentially unstable patients),
Priority 3 (stable patients)

32
Q

What hospitals are the major trauma centers inside the District of Columbia that are adult major
trauma capable?

A

Hospital 04 (MedStar),
Hospital 05 (Howard University Hospital),
Hospital 08 (George Washington Hospital)

33
Q

What hospital has a hyperbaric chamber?

A

Hospital 08 (George Washington Hospital)

34
Q

What are the hospital codes within the District of Columbia?

A

Hospital 01 (United Medical Center),
Hospital 02 (Children’s Hospital),
Hospital 04 (MedStar),
Hospital 05 (Howard University Hospital),
Hospital 07 (Georgetown University Hospital), Hospital 08 (George Washington Hospital),
Hospital 09(UMCP),
Hospital 10 (Providence Hospital),
Hospital 12 (Sibley Hospital),
Hospital 13 (Washington Hospital Center),
Hospital 15 (Veterans Administration Hospital)

35
Q

An ALS provider may transfer care to a BLS provider even if a medication is given by the ALS
provider as long as the patient is stable.

True / False

A

False

36
Q

Stable patients with isolated eye trauma should be transported to which Hospital.

A

Howard University Hospita

37
Q

The three contraindications for requesting aero medical evacuation of a patient include?

A

Patients in cardiac arrest,
patients contaminated by hazardous materials,
Patients with violent or erratic behavior

38
Q

What are the contraindications when using the AED

A

Traumatic cardiac arrest,
patients with a fully obstructed airway,
hazardous environments

39
Q

Vital signs minimally consist of what procedures?

A

Respirations,
Pulse Rate,
Skin (Color, Temperature and Moisture),
Capillary Refill (For Pediatric
Patients), EKG / 12 Lead monitor (for ALS providers with specific complaints),
Blood Pressure,
Blood Glucose Level

40
Q

Patients requiring artificial ventilation or assisted ventilations shall be ventilated with a bag
valve mask (BVM) with ____ supplemental oxygen

A

100%

41
Q

Patients exhibiting signs of moderate to severe respiratory distress due to pulmonary edema or
near drowning should be placed on what device?

A

CPAP (Continuous Positive Air Pressure)

42
Q

When delivering medication via a nebulizer the liter flow rate should be set at?

A

10 Liters per minute

43
Q

The King Airway may be considered the initial airway of choice in the cardiac arrest patient. The 3 contraindications are.

A
  1. Patients who are conscious or who have an intact gag reflex.
  2. Patients under three (3) feet in height.
  3. Patients with known esophageal disease (varices, alcoholism, cirrhosis etc.) or ingestion
    of caustic substances.
44
Q

A reading of _____ indicates mild carbon monoxide inhalation.

A

> 12%

45
Q

A reading of _____ indicates severe carbon monoxide inhalation.

A

> 25%

46
Q

What are Aspirin’s contra-indications?

A

Hypersensitivity and Signs or symptoms of an acute CVA

47
Q

What is the condition for precaution with Oxygen?

A

COPD Patients

48
Q

What medication can be administered intranasal by all provider levels?

A

Narcan

49
Q

Narcan’s two indications are?

A

Suspected narcotic / opiate overdose and
Altered Mental Status of unknown orgin

50
Q

In Pit Crew CPR Position 3 is responsible for what three functions?

A

1-Opens the and clears airway
2-Insert Airway Device
3-BVM ventilation at appropriate rate and depth

51
Q

In Pit Crew CPR Position 1 is responsible for what three functions

A

-Assesses responsiveness and checks pulse
-Initiates chest compressions immediately
-Alternates chest compressions with position 2

52
Q

What are the contraindications for the ResQPod

A

-Patients under the age of 8
-Cardiac Arrest secondary to trauma
-Return of Spontaneous Circulation

53
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

When the treated Written or verbal request to be evaluated and transported

54
Q

What is implied consent?

A

When a patient is unable to express consent because of an altered mental status or severe distress.

55
Q

In order to allow a patient to refuse care and/or transport you must conduct three assessments
first – what are they?

A

Legal competence,
mental competence,
medical or situational competence

56
Q

When using oxygen (02) on an adult patient, the dosage should be ______ for BVM, ______ via
NRB mask, or ______ via nasal cannula

A

> 15 lpm for BVM, 12-15 lpm via NRB mask, 2-6 lpm via nasal cannula

57
Q

For thermal burns with suspected smoke inhalation, how should the Oxygen be administered?

A

Humidified Oxygen

58
Q

What percentage of Body surface area percent occupies each arm regarding burns in adults and
children?

A

9%

59
Q

In what position shall the patient never be placed in suspected cases excited delirium?

A

Prone or face down

60
Q

Members shall administer supplemental oxygen in order to maintain SpO2 level of at
least_______

A

Greater than 94%