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3rd Yr DCC1- Behavior and Rights > 120-136 > Flashcards

120-136 Flashcards

1
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, an occurrence within a DSD facility where two or more inmates demonstrate hostility and non-compliance toward DSD staff without the use of physical violence is?

A

416B- Other Disturbance

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2
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, _______ will be the primary unit deployed, if time allows, when a potential for the use of deadly force exists within DSD facilities.

A

SWAT

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3
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances, if an outside investigative unit assumes command of the investigation, the crime/incident scene will be secured and will not be released until authorization is given by ______________.

A

the investigative unit

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4
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances, once SWAT has been committed, who has unlimited authority to neutralize the situation?

A

SWAT commander

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5
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances, when responding to a 416B, the floor sgt’s responsibilities are:

A
  1. Assess the situation from sally port.
  2. When backup arrives, brief of situation, assign roles, and preplan.
  3. Direct control to open door by radio.
  4. When incident controlled, direct Control to announce Code 4.
  5. Authorize CAB moves and coordinate with Class. and/or DGSIU for large groups.
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6
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, in the case of a 416B or 416R, a _________ must be conducted.

A

formal count

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7
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, for security reasons, only a_____ or _____ can declare an incident code 4.

A

-supervisor
-acting supervisor

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8
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, the _____ will make the decision as to the need for a tactical response by SWAT.

A

Incident Commander

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9
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances, the ________ will contact LVMPD communications Dispatch to notify the appropriate investigative unit to respond to CCDC.

A

DSD Watch Commander

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10
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, if immediate backup is needed, the NBV Control Room will request response from _________.

A

NEAC (Northeast Area Command) - through LVMPD Communications.

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11
Q

12.120, Facility Disturbances, in the case of a 416B or 416R, control will not open doors to the housing units until directed:

A

by an on-scene supervisor.

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12
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, if cover is not available at 300 feet, persons should be moved back until cover is available, or to at least ________ in the open.

A

1,200 feet

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13
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, the __________ shall have authority over the crime scene and investigation if an explosive device is located.

A

ARMOR Section

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14
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, ______ may assume command of the investigation if a death has occurred.

A

LVMPD Homicide/Sex Crimes

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15
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, if a suspicious package is located, “______” will be called over the all-call system.

A

CODE Red, 445

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16
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, if you locate a suspicious letter or package, call the ________ immediately by communicating in person or using a landline telephone.

A

responsible bureau Lt.

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17
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, if a suspected explosive device is located within the building, at least _____ floors above and below the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building.

A

2 floors

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18
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, the __________ at the scene shall have command of all police activities outside of DSD facilities.

A

ranking LVMPD police officer

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19
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, _______ along with _________ and an_______, shall search for any undetonated explosives.

A
  • ARMOR* DSD staff* EDD (Explosive Detector Dog)
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20
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, the ___________ at the scene shall have command of all DSD activities.

A

Incident Commander

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21
Q

12.122, Response to Bomb Threats and Potential Destructive Devices, command of the scene will be assumed by _________ immediately upon its arrival.

A

ARMOR

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22
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, a partial evacuation of inmates from location to location within the facility, which affects key operational components or inmate housing is a ___________.

A

Tier I Evacuation

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23
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the primary relocation/evacuation staging area for NVB is?

A

West Side of Housing Building

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24
Q

12.126, Emergency relocation and evacuation, the emergency FD-11 key used to open each fire door is located ______.

A

in each bureau’s key watcher and FSS key watcher

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25
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, optional relocation/evacuation staging areas for CCDC are?

A
  • T/R Sally Port
  • Booking Sally Port
  • RJC Court Holding and Ground Floor
  • Roof and/or Ground of Clark County Parking Garage
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26
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, who may authorize a facility evacuation?

A

DSD Deputy Chief, a Bureau Commander, or designee

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27
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, ________ where incident requiring relocation/evacuation occurs or ____________ initiates a “Code Orange.”

A
  • Bureau Lieutenant* DSD Watch Commander
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28
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the ______________ where the emergency occurred will make the decision to relocate or evacuate the public and uninvolved staff based upon the nature and extent of the emergency.

A

responsible bureau lt.

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29
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, who has the authority to direct relocation from floor to floor or tower to tower, as needed?

A

Bureau Lieutenant or DSD Watch Commander

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30
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the _________ will assess the incident, determine the appropriate level of relocation/evacuation, and will brief command staff.

A

DSD Watch Commander

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31
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the primary relocation/evacuation staging area for CCDC is?

A

ST Parking Lot

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32
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, __________ may direct relocation on the same floor.

A

sergeants

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33
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, what is the primary facility to be used for evacuation of inmates from CCDC?

A

NVB- unless circumstances dictate otherwise.
*Depopulation orders will be enacted and cots will be utilized to capacity prior to moving inmates to optional facilities

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34
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, alternative facility evacuation options require approval from the ________.

A

Sheriff or designee

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35
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, a minimum of ___ transport officers, to include the driver, will be on each bus.

A

3

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36
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, a full evacuation of inmates from CCDC or NVB to one or more locations outside the facility in the event of an emergency scenario which affects key operational components or inmate housing is a _________.

A

Tier III Evacuation

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37
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, a partial evacuation of inmates from CCDC or NVB to a location outside the facility in the event of an emergency scenario which affects key operational components or inmate housing is a ___________.

A

Tier II Evacuation

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38
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, DSD provides instruction through in-service training relating to emergency relocation/ evacuation procedures and through practice of emergency drills conducted on a _______ basis.

A

monthly

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39
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the _______ where incident requiring relocation/evacuation occurs or _________ initiates an ICP, if a TIER I, II, or III relocation or evacuation is necessary.

A
  • Bureau Lt.* DSD Watch Commander
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40
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, if restraints are needed, coordinate with __________ or the ___________ as necessary.

A
  • FSS
    -Supply Section
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41
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, who has the authority to relocate inmates within immediate adjacent areas?

A

Officers

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42
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, Emergency Plans Books are available in ________________,

A
  • STB Lts office
  • CBB Lts office
  • NTB Lts office
    -Classification Lt’s office
    -3ABC Training Rooms in ICP equipment locker
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43
Q

12.126, Emergency Relocation and Evacuation Plan, the secondary relocation/evacuation staging area for NVB is?

A

Secured Vehicle Sally Port

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44
Q

12.128, Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) in Detention, responding supervisor and personnel:______________, ______________, and __________, as practicable.

A

-formulate a plan to de-escalate the situation
-attempt to calm the individual
-maintain control of the area

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45
Q

12.128, Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) in Detention, during the initial response period to an event involving a person believed to be mentally ill or in crisis, the ________ at the scene has the authority to direct activities during the event unless relieved by a supervisor.

A

senior CIT officer

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46
Q

12.128, Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) in Detention, after a critical incident what form is to be completed?

A

LVMPD 367, CIT After Action Report

47
Q

12.128, Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) in Detention, all details must be entered into the ______, do not simply document “see AAR” as there is no method to retrieve the ________.

A
  • ELITE Report* LVMPD 367
48
Q

12.128, Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) in Detention, ensure required documentation is forwarded to a _________ for placement in the ___________.

A

CIT coordinator
CIT Folder

49
Q

12.128, CIT, completed and reviewed reports will be emailed to the _______.

A

CIT Detail

50
Q

12.128, CIT, there is A higher risk of sudden death in subjects under the influence of drugs and/ or exhibiting symptoms associated with _______

A

excited delirium.

51
Q

12.128, CIT, persons in excited delirium state should be considered in ______.

A

medical crisis

52
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, approval to exercise an inmate in chains and shackles on a single shift rests with the ______ and will be documented on an Elite report.

A

floor supervisor

53
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, if a pregnant inmate is known security risk or escape risk, leg restraints my be authorized during transport/movement outside the facility by ________.

A

ST bureau Lt. or WC

54
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, during child birth, restraints may be authorized in extreme instances by _____.

A

Bureau commander responsible for Hospital operations

55
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, any incident where a subject is injured or complains of injury is _____________.

A

reportable by completing a Use of Force Report in Blue Team.

56
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, the use of handcuffs, belly chains, and leg shackles are considered __________ force techniques, but are also defined as _______ and _________ options.

A
  • low-level* intermediate* deadly force
57
Q

12.132, Use of Restraints, long term restrictions of exercising inmates with chains and shackles shall be approved by the appropriate ______________.

A

Bureau Commander

58
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the Prisoner Restraint Bed is exclusively used in ____.

A

2C

59
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, the _______ will be used for individuals actively displaying physically violent or life-threatening behavior.

A

Prisoner Restraint Chair

60
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the Prisoner Restraint Bed will be primarily used for _______ and also ______.

A
  • medical purposes
  • to protect from self-harm
61
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, for subjects in the 2-4 point/restraint bed, the floor Sgt will check the condition of the restrained subject ______.

A

every hour

62
Q

12.134, (True/False) A Blue team must be completed when Movement or Blood Draw Chair is used. (DSD Specialty Restraint Devices)

A

False,
Blue team is not necessary as this is a low level force tool used for Obstructive Resistance.

63
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the Movement/Blood Draw Chair will be used for subjects actively displaying __________ during movement or blood draws.

A

obstructive resistance

64
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, sgts will assess the need for the continued application of the hobbles every _______.

A

30 minutes

65
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, while subject is on the restraint bed, medical staff will perform ______ checks and document these checks on the Restraint/Seclusion Observation Log.

A

15 minute

66
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, removal from restraint bed, _______ or ________ determines the restraints are no longer necessary, after consultation with Medical or Mental Health Services staff.

A

Lt. or sgt.

67
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, subjects will not be restrained in the PRC for more than _____ without approval from the bureau lt. or DSD WC.

A

2 hours

68
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the _____ may authorize the use of hand restricting tubes.

A

Sgt.

69
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, a _______ DSD 20 will be completed for Code 5 subjects that were not completely searched prior to placement into the chair.

A

green

70
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the Sgt. will notify and receive approval for the use of 2-4 point restraints/Prisoner bed from the _____.

A

bureau Lt. or DSD WC

71
Q

12.134 DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, a Corrections Officer will be assigned to _____ for the duration that a subject is in 2-4 point/ Restraint bed.

A

constant watch

72
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, a Use of Force Report will be completed by the ________, whether or not a complaint of injury occurs. (For PRC use?)

A

authorizing Sgt.

73
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, PRC documentation, the following reports will be completed by the sgt authorizing the use:

A

1) Use of force report2) Elite Reportable Incident Report 3) DSD 20

74
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, PRC Video Log Information Form will be retained for ____ in the lieutenant’s office.

A

1 year

75
Q

12.134 DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, all uses of the PRC and Movement/Blood Draw Chair will be _______.

A

video recorded

76
Q

12.134, DSD Specialty Restraint Devices, the locations of Movement and Blood Draw Chair are:

A
  • Pre-Arrest Areas* South Tower 2CM/F* Court Holding Area
77
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, a minimum of _____ corrections officers and a Sgt are required to place a subject in the PRC, Movement/Blood Draw Chair, and 2-4 point Prisoner Restraint Bed.

A

3

78
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, justification for an extension of time in the PRC will be documented in an ________ by the _____ giving the authorization.

A

-Elite Reportable Incident Report
-lieutenant

79
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the ______ may decide to remove the subject from the PRC at any time.

A

sgt

80
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the sgt. will notify the appropriate bureau Lt. when a subject remains in the PRC at the end of shift. All reports will be submitted _______.

A

before end of shift

81
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, Head Control Technique _____ is the basic level of control and allows officer to transition to another head brace option.

A

1

82
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, medical staff will immediately evaluate the subject __________ being secured in the PRC and will conduct checks every ______ after that.

A
  • before and after* 15 min
83
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, ______ will authorize use of the PRC and Movement/Blood Draw chair.

A

Sgt or higher rank

84
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, in Head Control Technique ______, the officer will overlap their hands over the subject’s forehead and frame the face with their forearms.

A

2

85
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, the supervisor will place a _______, PRC Placement and Removal Form on the PRC or in an adjacent area.

A

DSD 20

86
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, subjects in the PRC will be assessed by a supervisor not to exceed _____ to evaluate the subject level of resistance and suitability for removal.

A

30 mins

87
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, subjects in the PRC will be checked for signs of distress, not to exceed _____ minutes between checks.

A

15

88
Q

12.134, DSD Speciality Restraint Devices, Head Control Technique ______ completely restricts head movement and is intended to prevent injury to the subject.

A

3

89
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, following an extraction/removal, mental health staff shall conduct a follow-up consultation within ________.

A

12 hours

90
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, if the ___________ cannot gain compliance, the ______________ will be notified of the situation, and they will respond immediately.

A

-sergeant
-bureau lt or DSD WC

91
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, the _____________ will approve a lockdown of the facility when SERT is activated.

A

DSD Watch Commander

92
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, in emergent situations, the __________ may authorize staff on scene to conduct an emergency extraction prior to SERT’s arrival.

A

Sergeants

93
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, a ______________ will be noted in an ELITE report to detail the use of low lethality, and the ________ shall be notified within a reasonable amount of time.

A
  • Directed Cell Removal
  • bureau commander
94
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, the entering of any confined area to affect the rescue of an inmate in the event of an emergency or under life-threatening circumstances is the definition of:

A

Emergency Extractions

95
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, a ___________ occurs after the activation of SERT and the application of low lethality gains the inmate’s cooperation in exiting the cell.

A

Directed Cell Removal

96
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, following a court ordered removal/extraction, the court will be asked to fax or email the minute order to the appropriate ___________.

A

bureau commander

97
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area,

This occurs when an inmate is compliant to verbal instructions.

1) A low level or intermediate force option is applied to gain the inmate’s cooperation in exiting the cell.
2) The inmate surrenders after a verbal warning is given, and the extraction team handcuffs the inmate and escorts him/her to new housing.

A

Cell Extraction

98
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, if there is a disagreement on the justification or need for a SERT activation, the ___________ will be contacted for direction.

A

Deputy Chief, DSD

99
Q

12.136 Removal of Belligerent Inmates From a Cell or Holding Area, ________ occur in situations where an inmate is in an area that can be isolated and/or controlled.

A

targeted extractions

100
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances
In the case of a 416B or 416R, what must be conducted?

A

A formal count

101
Q

12.120 Facility Disturbances
If FIT is responding to CCDC Officers cannot talk with PPA rep until?

A

After cleared by FIT
*If FIT won’t respond Officers can talk to PPA rep whenever

102
Q

12.122 Response to Bomb Threats
What does ARMOR stand for?

A

All-Hazard Regional Multi-Agency Operations and Response

103
Q

12.122 Response to Bomb Threats
ARMOR section is responsible for responding and investigating?

A

chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosive related items (CBRNE)

104
Q

12.122 Response to Bomb Threats
Threats to NVB will reported to ___,
due to its close proximity.

A

Nellis AFB Security Forces Squadron
(702) 652-231-

105
Q

12.122 Response to Bomb Threats
Once a code red 445 is announced all communications will be through?

A

Landline by telephone, in person, or via call button for control

106
Q

12.122 Response to bomb threats
When will a search of the facility take place?

A

as soon as it is possible to safely do so

107
Q

12.122 Response to Bomb Threats
Who has command of the bomb scene if there is an active fire?

A

The responding fire department

108
Q

12.126 Emergency relocation and evacuation plan
The emergency relocation and evacuation plan applies to?

A

Any man made or natural disaster.

109
Q

12.126 Emergency relocation and evacuation plan
Alternative options for facilities requires approval from the sheriff or designee, what are our alternate options besides NVB?

A
  • NDOC (men’s and women’s)
  • city of Las Vegas detention center
  • City of Henderson Detention Center
  • Lincoln County
  • Summit View Youth (2-4 days prep time before use)
  • NDOC Jean (2-4 days prep time before use)
110
Q

12.126 Emergency Relocation and Evacuation plan
Through the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU), how many buses will CCSD provide?

A

10 buses
*if school is in session, could be less

111
Q

12.132 Use of Restraints
Inmates who complains that restraints are applied to tightly, will be checked?

A

As soon as reasonably possible

112
Q

12.132 Use of Restrains
Officers when handcuffing or applying leg shackles, will check for tightness and double lock when?

A

as soon as it is safe to do so

113
Q

12.132 Use of restraints
An officer told to remove restraints by the court will?

A

Notify the court that it violates DSD policy
*Unless it’s a jury trial

114
Q

12.134 DSD Specialty Restraint Devices
Approval for the use of the protective helmet is authorized by?

A

Bureau LT or DSD WC
*Protective helmet will be removed prior to restraints, protective helmet will not be use with spit mask

3rd Yr DCC1- Behavior and Rights (10 decks)

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