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M11 Resit > 11.14 > Flashcards

11.14 Flashcards

1
Q

Are the MLG in a tail wheel ac the forward or aft ones

A

Fwd

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2
Q

Where’s the c of g located on tricycle type landing gear

A

Ahead of MLG

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3
Q

Advantages of tricycle landing gear

A

Ground looping is prevented because the CG is in front of the main gear providing stability and a returning moment that tends to run straight.
It allows more forceful application of the brakes without nosing over when braking.
Forward vision is not obscured and there is reduced drag during take-off.

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4
Q

What are multiple wheeled MLG also known as

A

Bogie

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5
Q

Where are tandem gear wheels located

A

Aligned on longitudinal axis with nose gear in front of c of g and the MLG aft

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6
Q

Benefits of NON retractable gear

A

Simple
lighter
cost less

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7
Q

What does the trunnions link do

A

connects the top of the leg to the wing structure and allows the leg to rotate into and out of the landing gear bay.

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8
Q

What’s inside the shock strut

A

Nitrogen and hydraulic fluid

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9
Q

What does the torsion link do ans what’s it also known as

A

Counteracts wheel shimmy

Shimmy damper

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10
Q

What does the side strut do

A

Resists lateral or sideways movement

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11
Q

What does the gear down lock do

A

Ensures the two parts can’t fold together when gears extended

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12
Q

What do the drag struts do

A

Braces the legs from longitudinal or fore and aft movement

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13
Q

When’s the shortening mechanism used

A

When retracting the landing gear

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14
Q

Are nose wheel gears steerable

Do they have brakes

A

No brakes but are steerable

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15
Q

What does the centering cam in the NLG do

A

Centers the wheels in preparation for retraction

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16
Q

What is wheel shimmy and what causes it

A

Rapid oscillation of wheels left to right

Caused by uneven tyre pressure, uneven tyre wear or uneven runway surface

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17
Q

What two ways do shock absorbers dampen the impact

A

The shock energy is altered and transferred throughout the airframe at a different rate and time than the single strong pulse of impact.

The shock is absorbed by converting the energy into heat energy.

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18
Q

What two main classes can shock absorbers be divided into

A

Solid- steel or rubber springs

Oleo- a fluid spring with a gas or oil or both

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19
Q

What’s the two ways dampening can be utilised by oleo shock absorbers

A

One utilises the compressibility of oil pressures at above 700 bar

One utilises the compressibility of nitrogen and oil go provide damping d

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20
Q

What’s contained on the outer cyclinder of oleo to help with servicing

A

A gas charging valve
A oil charging valve

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21
Q

Whats hydraulic dieseling

A

Occurs when air mixes with hydraulic cycling oil causing and air bubble and when the oleo takes pressure it can cause the shock strut to crack

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22
Q

In a oleo pneumatic strut with a separator how are the oils and gas separated

A

With a piston in the inner cylinder

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23
Q

What does the flutter plate in an oleo strut do

A

Acts as a one way restricter

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24
Q

What’s the movement of the leg with a liquid spring restricted by

A

The slow rate in which the oil can pass through the dampening orfices

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25
Q

What’s dimension X on MLG

What’s it sometimes also referred to as

A

The measure of the extension of the inner cyclinder

H

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26
Q

What’s in place on the landing gear lever to prevent it from accidentally being moved or moved by vibration

A

A detent so the handle must be lifted and moved

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27
Q

What 3 positions do the landing gear lever have

A

Up
Down
Off

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28
Q

What’s in place to prevent the gear from being retracted in the ground

A

A solenoid operated latch

Is an override if nessecary

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29
Q

What can override the solenoid latch on the landing gear lever

A

Only done mechanically

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30
Q

Why’s it important that the correct sequencing of the doors and landing gear is done

A

To prevent gear from jamming

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31
Q

When the gear selector lever is put to up what happens to the selector valve

A

Opens to provide pressure to the actuators to move the doors up

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32
Q

What may need to be done when retracting gear to wheels

A

Wheel breaks to stop rotations to prevent gyroscopic forces on the gear

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33
Q

What does the inner cyclinder on the nose wheel do on take off

A

Fully extend

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34
Q

What system is used for emergency situations of dropping the landing in larger commercially ac

A

Free fall system by removing uplock

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35
Q

How many emergency T handles are ther

A

3

One for each keg

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36
Q

What does a green landing gear door light mean
Red
No light

A

Green - down ans locked
Red - unlocked and travelling
No light - stowed

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37
Q

When are Microswitches used

A

When physical contact with an objects permissible

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38
Q

When are proximity switches used

A

instead of normal microswitches where there is a high risk of contact corrosion due to dirt and moisture.

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39
Q

What are the two types of proximity switches

A

Two different types of proximity switches are used on aircraft:

Reed Switch
Electronic Switch

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40
Q

What are the two types of proximity switches

A

Two different types of proximity switches are used on aircraft:

Reed Switch
Electronic Switch

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41
Q

What’s done for an indication that the main downluck stirs are locked properly

A

Red arrows

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42
Q

Where are air ground switches located on most ac

A

On MLG (MAINLY)

sometimes nose

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43
Q

What do ground air switches also sometimes monitor on 4-6 wheeled ac

A

Bogie position/tilt is monitored

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44
Q

What do ground air switches also sometimes monitor on 4-6 wheeled ac

A

Bogie position/tilt is monitored

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45
Q

What needs to be considered about the materials wheels are made of

A

Lightweight
Strong
Able to resist extremes of temperature
Protective against the elements

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46
Q

What are ac wheels made of

A

Magnesium or alluminium alloy

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47
Q

What type of comstruction are ac wheels

A

Two half hubs

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48
Q

What type of bearings are usually used in wheels

A

Tapered roller bearings

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49
Q

What half of the wheel are the brakes installed on

A

The inboard half

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50
Q

What half of the wheel are the brakes installed on

A

The inboard half

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51
Q

What temp can the break risks get up to

A

1000 c

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52
Q

What do the wheel heat shields do

A

Protect tyres from heat from the brakes ONLY

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53
Q

What do fusible plugs do

A

Relieve the pressure when they exceed a a certain level

NOT INSTALLED ON NOSE WHEEL AS THEY DONT GET AS HOT DUE TO NO BRAKES

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54
Q

What loads do taper roller bearings take

A

Axial and radial

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55
Q

What loads do taper roller bearings take

A

Axial and radial

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56
Q

When an ac lands what speed does the wheels go to

A

0 to 240 km/h

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57
Q

How long after heavy breaking for a TRO can breaks be known to fail

A

More than 30mins

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58
Q

What fire extinguisher should be used for brake fires

A

Dry powder

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59
Q

How many brake linings or break pucks does a single disk brake have

A

6

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60
Q

What does the brake calliper housing contain

A

Bleed point to remove any unwanted air

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61
Q

What are the rotors and statins made of in a heat pack

A

Carbon or steel

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62
Q

What are the rotors and statins made of in a heat pack

A

Carbon or steel

63
Q

What’s advantages of carbon heat packs over steel heat packs

A

40% lighter

Can withstand temps 50% higher than steel

Last 20-50% longer than steel breaks so cheaper to maintain

64
Q

What’s a disadvantage of a carbon heat pack

A

More expensive to make

65
Q

Why are the steel heat pack rotors segmented

A

To prevent bending

66
Q

What’s the brake piston housing made of

A

Alluminium

67
Q

What’s the brake piston housing made of

A

Alluminium

68
Q

What 3 functions does the brake pistons serve

A

Apply the pressure onto the brake packs

Compensate for wear of breaks

Auto adjust break clearance

69
Q

How many wear pins are there per tyre

A

2

70
Q

What does the torque tube in the break system do

A

Transfers the torque of the stator discs to the piston housing

71
Q

What advantages do e brakes have

A

Reduction in the mechanical complexity of traditional hydraulic braking systems.
Eliminates potential departure delays due to leaking hydraulic fluids or system failures.
Ability to self-monitor and removes the need for scheduled wear checks as the system will advise when wear is excessive.
Ability, when parked to efficiently auto-adjust the braking pressure as the brakes cool down.

72
Q

What do power brakes use for breaking

A

Hydraulics

73
Q

What do hydraulic fuses in power brake systems do

A

Stops excessive flow of fluid it detects by shutting to retain the remaining fluid in system

74
Q

What’s the key element in a power break system

A

Break control valve

responds to the brake pedal input by directing hydraulic fluid to the brakes. The influx of fluid to the brake is increased in line with the pressure exerted on the brake pedal, therefore, increasing the pressure and enhancing the braking action.

75
Q

How many sources of pressure does the power breaking have and what’s this provide

A

2

Redundancy

76
Q

How many sources of pressure does the power breaking have and what’s this provide

A

2

Redundancy

77
Q

What provides the majority of the brake/rudder feel

A

supplied by the brake control or brake metering valve in a power brake system

78
Q

What can the accumulator provide

A

Emergency breaking

79
Q

What do brake de boosters do

A

devices that apply force over different-sized pistons to reduce pressure

80
Q

What do brake de boosters do

A

devices that apply force over different-sized pistons to reduce pressure

81
Q

What happens when the parking brakes applied

A

Brakes are permanently pressurised with a hydraulic accumulator

82
Q

Where are the break temps displayed on airbus and Boeing

A

Boeing - ECAM
airbus - EICAS

83
Q

What temp should a tyre rcexceed for a green arc to appear on the hottest wheel

A

When above 100 c

84
Q

What brake temp would cause the hottest wheel to turn Amber

A

300 c

85
Q

What do anti skid systems do

A

Improve braking efficiency and protect tires

86
Q

What was the first ABS to be widely used

A

Dunlop maxarets

87
Q

When does maximum braking efficiency occur

A

When wheels are decelerating at a max rate but not skidding

88
Q

After the ac touches down and the rudder pedals are pressed down then the anti skid system kicks in until the ac has dropped to aprox

A

30km/h

89
Q

How’s the flywheel attached to the drum on a mech/hyd anti skid system

A

One way clutch

90
Q

How many anti skid systems are there on landing gears

A

1 per brake

91
Q

What electrical power do wheel speed sensors used

A

AC or DC

92
Q

What electrical power do wheel speed sensors used

A

AC or DC

93
Q

What’s the brain of the anti skid system and what does it do if it senses a skid condition

A

Control unit

Signals sent to control valve to relieve the hydraulic pressure to the relevant brake to prevent or relieve the skid

94
Q

How many anti skid control valves are there per landing gear

A

1 per break unit

95
Q

What does the check valve in the anti skid system do

A

The check valve linking the inlet and brake outlet port prevents outlet pressure from exceeding inlet pressure which can occur during any thermal expansion conditions.

96
Q

What does the check valve in the anti skid system do

A

The check valve linking the inlet and brake outlet port prevents outlet pressure from exceeding inlet pressure which can occur during any thermal expansion conditions.

97
Q

What’s done to retain the pressure of the breaks when the parking break lever is applied

A

A solenoid operated valve is closed to block the return line

98
Q

What can applying breaks as soon as the wheels come into contact with the runway on a landing do

What’s in place to prevent this

A

Tyre blow out

Touch down protection

99
Q

What’s the comparator circuitry used for

A

to relieve pressure when one wheel out of a paired group of wheels rotates 25% slower than the other.

100
Q

When do auto brakes operate

A

When there’s weight on wheels and when the engines are in idle or thrust reversers deployed

This reduces delay before brakes to approx 1 sec

101
Q

Each second of delay usually increases the aircraft’s stopping distance by….

A

60m

102
Q

How much does the spoilers increase drag

A

40-80%

103
Q

How much does the spoilers increase drag

A

40-80%

104
Q

How much does the spoilers increase drag

A

40-80%

105
Q

What happens to the pressure in auto breaks when speed breaks are applied

A

Pressure reduces to maintain the deceleration rate

106
Q

How many modes does the auto brake selection panel have

A

One for low deceleration

One for medium deceleration

One for maximum deceleration

107
Q

How many modes does the auto brake selection panel have

A

One for low deceleration

One for medium deceleration

One for maximum deceleration

108
Q

What are type. I, III, VII, VIII

A

Three-Part Nomenclature tyres,

109
Q

What type of ac are type I wheels used on

A

Fixed wheel

110
Q

What landing speeds are type III tyres used for

A

Speeds over 160 mph

They are relatively lp

111
Q

What do the two numbers for TYPE III tyres stand for

A

The first one is the nominal section width of tyre

Second is diameter of rim the tyres mounted on

112
Q

What’s narrower tyres Type III or type VII

A

Type VII is narrower

113
Q

What ac are type VII tyres and why

A

Jet ac

Bc they are high performance and high pressure

114
Q

What does the two number identification system stand for on type VII tyres

A

First num- overall nominal diameter of tyre

Second num- section width

115
Q

What are the most advanced wheels on jet ac today

A

Type VIII

116
Q

What does the three didget number ident for a type VIII tyre used for

A

First no - tyre diameter
Second no - section width
Third no - rim diameter

117
Q

What does the three didget number ident for a type VIII tyre used for

A

First no - tyre diameter
Second no - section width
Third no - rim diameter

118
Q

What does ply rating mean

A

Indication of tyres relative strength

119
Q

What’s the diff between tube or tubeless wheel

A

Tubeless have a specialised inner liners to effectively prevent air leaks

120
Q

What are advantages of tubed tyres

A

Lighter and reduced susceptible to tyre creep

121
Q

What’s the difference in how tubed and tubeless tyres react to a puncture

A

Tubed have sudden losses of pressure and cause the wheel to become unstable

122
Q

What are the two different types of tyre plies

A

Bias ans radial

123
Q

What is the purpose of plies

A

Form the tyre ans give it strength

124
Q

What’s the angle of the plys in a bias ply tyre

A

30-60 degrees

From direction of tyre rotation

125
Q

What does the bias ply allow

A

Flexibility

126
Q

What angle are the plys to the direction of wheel rotation on a radial tyre

What characteristics does this give them

A

90 deg

Strengthening and allow it to carry high loads

127
Q

What do belt plies do

A

Strengthen tread area

128
Q

What do carcass plies do

A

Strengthen tyre sidewalls

129
Q

What do chippers do in tyres

A

Improve the durability in bead area

130
Q

What’s negatives of radial tyres

A

More expensive and can’t be re-treaded as frequently as conventional tyres

131
Q

What are tyre beads

A

Metal wires that are embedded in the rubber usually ,one two or three of them, they anchor the carcass into the rim to ensure the tyres firmly mounted on the wheel

Takes all breaking forces

132
Q

What are carcass plies

A

Give strength and form to carcass body of tyre

Radial has less plies than bias plies

133
Q

What does the right pattern tread help to minimise

A

Hydro planing - wedge of water under tyre

134
Q

How many times can a tyre be retreaded

A

10;

135
Q

What does a Rubin tread provide (characteristic)

A

good traction under different runway conditions.
Improves tread wear.
Improves directional stability.

136
Q

What does a Rubin tread provide (characteristic)

A

good traction under different runway conditions.
Improves tread wear.
Improves directional stability.

137
Q

What can an unbalanced tire cause

A

Severe vibration, irregular wear

138
Q

What are awl marks

A

Indicate area in which small holes were made during manufacturing to let entrapped gasses out

139
Q

What are awl marks

A

Indicate area in which small holes were made during manufacturing to let entrapped gasses out

140
Q

What are rib tread tyres used for

Diamond tread

Smooth tread

A

Paved surfaces

Unpaved

Old ac without brakes designed for stopping

141
Q

When should rib tread tyres be replaced

A

When the tread depth is less than 2mm for more than 25% of tread circumference

142
Q

When does shoulder wear occur on tyres

A

When tread shoulders are more loaded than the crown

143
Q

When does tread strip damage occur

A

When tyre encounters fod or as a result of mechanical or thermal fatigue

144
Q

When does tread chunking occur

A

When taxiing and turning quickly on rough surfaces

145
Q

What causes a an open tread joint

A

When the original manufacture of tyre fails to adequately adhere a joint in tread

146
Q

What causes a tyre burst

A

Fod or from it operating at a low pressure for a while

147
Q

What pressure are tyre assemblies usually stored at

A

20-30 psi

148
Q

What causes nose wheel to stay straight

A

Positive caster

149
Q

What factors cause nose wheel shimmy

A

Under or over inflated nose wheel tyres.
Unevenly inflated double nose wheel tyres.
Low pressures in the steering hydraulic system (metering valves).
Worn steering mechanism components.
Worn nose landing gear to fuselage attachment fittings.

150
Q

What helps to self centre the gear

A

Centering cam

151
Q

What’s the purpose of MAIN gear steering

A

Reduce tyre scrub and ac turn radius

152
Q

What’s the angular movement of MLG steering?

NLG steering?

A

MLG- 5-8deg

NLG- 70 deg

153
Q

What should be done before towing

A

Nose wheel steering should be unpressurised

Towing safety pin in to prevent the summing lever from moving on

M11 Resit (13 decks)

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