11-2F-16V3

Question 1

Without appropriate RDTED coverage, or when corrupted data is present, AGCAS still provides recovery protection to ___ ft MSL, however this may not prevent potential ground collision when MSL elevation is higher.

Answer 1

50 ft MSL

Question 2

(Preflight) Pilots must:

3. 1.5 Select PBG / Normal?
4. 1.7 Ensure ejection seat survival kit deployment switch is in the automatic /normal position?

Answer 2

PBG

Automatic

Question 3

Taxi speed: Pilots will limit taxi speeds to ___ kts, ___ kts over a raised cable, and ___ kts in turns.

Answer 3

30 kts / 15 kts / 10 kts

Question 4

Minimum RCR for taxi is ___

Answer 4

10

Question 5

Forward firing Ordnance: Pilots ___ taxi in front of aircraft being armed/dearmed with forward firing ordnance.

Answer 5

Will not

Question 6

(Takeoff) Pilots will:

Not takeoff when RCR is less than ___

Not takeoff if computed t/o roll exceeds ___ % of available rwy for single-ship or ___ % for form takeoff

Make a AB t/o if computed MIL pwr t/o roll exceeds ___ % of available rwy

Increase interval to ___ sec minimum for join-up on top OR when carrying live A2G ordnance (not BDU-33 and 20mm)

Answer 6

10

80 % / 70 %

50 %

20 sec

Question 7

(Formation takeoff) Aircraft/element will:

Not make form t/o when rwy width is less than ___ ft

Not make form t/o when asymmetric loading or a difference of more than ___ lbs GW

Answer 7

125 ft

2,500 lbs

Question 8

Initial Join-up and RJ:

Minimum ___ ft ceiling and ___ miles for VFR join-ups below a ceiling

Answer 8

1,500 ft and 3 miles

Question 9

Minimum altitudes for:

HARTS #1, #2 and #3 is ___ ft AGL

HARTS #4 and #5 is ___ ft AGL

Answer 9

10,000 ft AGL

15,000 ft AGL

Question 10

The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is based upon activation of the ___

Answer 10

Low speed warning tone

Question 11

Pilots will fly HARTS maneuvers in ___ loaded a/c only

Answer 11

CAT-1

Question 12

Pilots must accomplish a G-Ex if planned maneuvering exceeds ___G

Answer 12

5G

Question 13

If both flight members are blind use a minimum of ___ ft (___ ft above ___ ft AGL) altitude seperation.

Answer 13

500 ft / 1,000 ft / 5,000 ft AGL

Question 14

Safety observer in chase will maneuver in a ___-___ degree cone with nose/tail clearance out to a range of ___ NM

Answer 14

30-60 degree / 1NM

Question 15

Gear check: For a VFR str-in, pilots will call gear down NLT ___ NM final. For an instrument APP, pilots will call at ___ or ___. For a SFO or FO, pilots will call at ___ key.

Answer 15

3 NM / FAF or GS intercept point / Base key

Question 16

The desired touchdown point is ___ ft from the aim point. To avoid possible speedbrake or nozzle damage, pilots will touch down either ___ a raised approach-end cable, or ___ ft prior to the cable.

Answer 16

500 ft / Past / 500 ft

Question 17

Pilots will comply with the minimum pattern and touchdown spacing between landing aircraft of ___ ft for similar or ___ ft for dissimilar.

Answer 17

3,000 ft and 6,000 ft

Question 18

When wake turbulance is expected, pilots will comply with increased pattern/touchdown spacing to ___ ft minimum.

Answer 18

6,000 ft

Question 19

Formation low approach is ___ ft AGL

Answer 19

100 ft AGL

Question 20

Pilots will initiate closed traffic pattern at the ___ unless directed/cleared otherwise by local procedures or controlling agency. Plan to arrive on DW at ___ - ___ KIAS.

Answer 20

DER / 200-250 KIAS

Question 21

Pilots will use a rate of descent similar to a ___ approach for formation approach and landing

Answer 21

Precision

Question 22

The wingman will maintain a minimum of ___ ft lateral wingtip spacing during form approach and landing.

Answer 22

10 ft

Question 23

Pilots will not make form landing when the wx is less than ___ ft ceiling and ___ miles visiblity (or a flight member’s wx category, whichever is higher).

Answer 23

500 ft and 1.5 miles

Question 24

Pilots must complete the following ops checks:

1. During ___ or at ___ after takeoff
2. When ___ are ___
3. Prior to each ___ engagement or ___
4. Prior to entering __

Answer 24

1. Climb or at level-off
2. External fuel tanks are emtpy
3. (D)ACBT engagement or intercept
4. An A2G range, once while on the range if multiple passes are made and after departing the range

Question 25

When external tanks are carried, each flight member will check the external tank(s) and add “___” to the ops check.

Answer 25

“Tank(s) feeding/dry”

Question 26

Afterburner use: Pilots will not use AB below ___ lbs total fuel or established ___, whichever is higher, unless required for safety of flight

Answer 26

2,000 lbs / Bingo

Question 27

(Instrument flying) Takeoff and Initial Join-up: if wx is below 1,500 ft ceiling and 3 miles, each aircraft and element will climb on takeoff heading to ___ AGL before initiating any turns, except when departure instructions specifically preclude compliance.

Answer 27

1,000 ft AGL

Question 28

(Instrument procedures) Trail Procedure: Normal spacing is ___ - ___ NM

Answer 28

2-3 NM

Question 29

(Instrument procedures) Trail departure: Pilots will use minimum ___ sec takeoff spacing. Accelerate in MIL or AB until ___ KIAS (or as required by local procedures). Climb at 350 KIAS until reaching cruise Mach/TAS.

Answer 29

20 sec / 350 KIAS

Question 30

The F-16 is Approach Category ___.

Answer 30

E

Question 31

Category D minimums can be used, provided:

A ___ approach is flown

Final approach segment is flown at ___ KIAS or less

Missed approach segment is flown at ___ KTAS or less.

Answer 31

Straight-in

165 KIAS

260 KTAS

Question 32

A2A: Minimum airspeed during low altitude offensive or defensive maneuvering is ___ KIAS

Answer 32

350 KIAS

Question 33

A2A: For D-model, restrict maximum-commanded or abrupt control inputs below ___ KIAS when flying ___ sorties.

Answer 33

150 KIAS / ACBT sorties

Question 34

A2G: During LAS an automated recovery may occur near ___ ft slant range; therefore pilots must cease fire prior

Answer 34

2,000 ft

Question 35

A2G: Pilots will not conduct climbing or diving deliveries with a ceiling below ___ ft AGL or level deliveries with a ceiling below ___ ft AGL.

Answer 35

2,000 ft and 1,500 ft

Question 36

A2G: Pilots will abort pop-up attacks if a/s decreases below ___ KIAS (___ KIAS above ___ ft AGL)

Answer 36

350 KIAS / 300 KIAS above 10,000 ft AGL

Question 37

The SFO pattern may be entered from any direction or altitude that ensures the aircraft is properly configured above ___ ft AGL and in a position to safely complete the approach. Discontinue an SFO if unable to obtain wings level on final by ___ ft AGL. Discontinue an SFO if airspeed drops below Dash One minimum a/s any time between ___ key and the initiation of the flare.

Answer 37

2,000 ft AGL / 200 ft AGL / Base key

Question 38

Except when operating IAW a MAJCOM-approved syllabus, do not touch down from an SFO

Answer 38

Do not touch down from an SFO

Question 39

Centerline Stores: start the takeoff roll ___ a raised approach end cable (…) dictate otherwise.

Answer 39

Beyond

Question 40

The potential for over-G if any Nose-low PARS maneuver is performed when the aircraft configuration has a symmetric G-limit of less than ___ G CAT I or ___ G CAT III

Answer 40

6.2 G / 5.2 G

Question 41

(Abnormal operating procedures) Not taxi with a known malfunction of the ___ system, the ___ system, or a ___.

Answer 41

NWS / brake / Generator

Question 42

To signal the need for an approach-end arrestment, the pilot will lower the ___ (___ formation) or fly a ___ approach flashing the ___ (___).

Answer 42

Hook / visual / straight in / landing light / unescorted