100 random things from SD Flashcards

1
Q

what are the s/s of both rubella and CMV?

A

blueberry muffin rash
IUGR
deafness

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2
Q

is there a treatment for rubella

A

no

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3
Q

how do you diagnose CMV

A

mom’s urine

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4
Q

what is the MC cause of neonatal sepsis?

A

GBS

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5
Q

how do you treat neonatal sepsis?

A

ampicillin and gentamycin

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6
Q

direct hyperbilirubinemia occurs during what time frame?

A

within 24h

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7
Q

indirect hyperbilirubinemia occurs during what time frame?

A

after 24h

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8
Q

what is a normal heart rate for a neonate?

A

120-160

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9
Q

what is a normal RR for a neonate?

A

40-60

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10
Q

what is a normal rectal temp for a neonate?

A

36.5-37.5 C

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11
Q

for how long should you measure head circumference?

A

up to 36 months

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12
Q

when should the ant fontanelle close

A

10-24mos

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13
Q

when should the posterior fontanelle close

A

2mos

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14
Q

which suture most commonly closes with craniosynostosis?

A

sagittal

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15
Q

____% of babies with strabismus will develop amblyopia

A

50%

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16
Q

how do you distinguish a peritonsillar abcess from other ENT conditions

A

peritonsillar abcess will have trismus

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17
Q

why can’t you give bacrim at less than 2mos?

A

risk of kernicterus

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18
Q

what vaccines do you need before kindergarten?

A

5 DTP
4 polio
2 MMR
1 varicella

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19
Q

starts with fever of 103
get koplik spots
rash starts on forehead, moves downward, and fades in same pattern

A

measles

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20
Q

starts with low fever
LAD present
pale pink rash starts on face, moves to body, might be itchy

A

rubella

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21
Q

starts with URI, becomes a cough with a whoop followed by cyanosis and vomiting

A

pertussis

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22
Q

when do you vax for measles

A
  1. 12-15 mos

2. 4-6y

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23
Q

when do you vax for meningitis

A
  1. 11-12y

2. 16y

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24
Q

when do you vax for pertussis

A
  1. 2mos
  2. 4mos
  3. 6 mos
  4. 15-18mos
  5. 4-6y
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25
Q

what is the MC CHD at birth?

what is the MC CHD found in adults?

A

birth: VSD
adults: ASD

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26
Q

with a VSD, baby is at risk for ________

A

endocarditis

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27
Q

with ASD, baby is at risk for ______

A

paradoxical embolus

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28
Q

which congenital heart condition is usually found in adults, because it is asx in kids?

A

ASD

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29
Q

concentric RVH

A

pulmonic stenosis (PS)

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30
Q

normally closes 2-3 days after birth

A

PDA

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31
Q

rib notching on CXR

A

CoA

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32
Q

with CoA, baby is at risk for _________

A

2ndary HTN as a kid

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33
Q

murmur heart at ULSB
crescendo-decrescendo
Echo shows RVH
could be one of two things?

A

pulmonic stenosis

ASD

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34
Q

RSR’ on EKG

A

ASD

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35
Q

murmur heard at LLSB
harsh
heard within 36 hours of birth

A

VSD

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36
Q

mom’s with rubella, premature babies are at risk for ______

A

PDA

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37
Q

when does PDA usually close?

A

2-3d after birth

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38
Q

murmur at ULSB
radiates to clavicle
continuous, machinery

A

PDA

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39
Q

with PDA, there is ____-sided hypertrophy

A

left

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40
Q

with PS, there is _____-sided hypertrophy

A

right (concentric)

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41
Q

treatment for PDA?

A

indomethacin

42
Q

4 aspects of tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. biventricular origin of aorta
  2. large VSD
  3. obstructed pulmonic blood flow
  4. RVH
43
Q

baby is projectile vomiting. suspect?

A

pyloric stenosis

44
Q

“olive-shaped mass” on abd PE

A

pyloric stenosis

45
Q

baby doesn’t pass meconium within 72h

+ squirt sign

A

Hirschprung’s disease

46
Q

how do you dx Hirschprungs?

A

rectal bx

47
Q

18-month old has severe abdominal pain with currant-jelly stools and draws his legs and knees to his abdomen. suspect?

A

intussusception

48
Q

double bubble sign

A

volvulus (air fluid levels in stomach and duodenum)

49
Q

dx/tx of intussusception?

A

ba and air enema

50
Q

birds beak cut off/corkscrew on Ba swallow

A

volvulus

51
Q

bulls eye/target sign on US

A

intussusception

52
Q

kid reports with painless GI bleeding and recurrent intussusception. suspect?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

53
Q

which hip more commonly has developmental dysplasia?

A

left

54
Q

if a female is born in the breech position, when should you to an US to check for developmental dysplasia?

A

6weeks

55
Q

a thin, active 7y/o presents with a limp and groin pain that worsens with activity and decreased ROM. suspect?

A

legg-calve-perthes disease

56
Q

legg-calve-perthes disease should fix itself within?

A

12-18mos

57
Q

an obese 10y/o presents with a limp and groin pain that worsens with activity. suspect?

A

SCFE

58
Q

“fuzzy”

femoral head appearance on XR

A

SCFE

59
Q

“crescent sign”

femoral head appearance on XR

A

legg-calve-perthes disease

60
Q

3y/o presents with acute limp and groin pain that is worse in the morning. suspect?

A

transient synovitis of hip

61
Q

transient synovitis of the hip fixes itself within?

A

3-14 days

62
Q

the MC cause of toeing before age 3 in is _______

A

internal tibial torsion

63
Q

the MC cause of toeing in after age 3 is _______

A

femoral anteversion

corrects by 8y

64
Q

going thru growth spurt, basketball player, lower leg pain (e.g. tibial tubercle). suspect?

A

osgood-schlatter’s disease

65
Q

at what joints is metatarsus adductus rotated?

A

tarsometatarsal joints

66
Q

what are the 4 criteria for talipes equinovarus (club foot)?

A
  1. plantar flx of ankle
  2. adduction of heel
  3. adduction of forefoot
  4. pes cavus
67
Q

fx of physis?

A

salter-harris fracture

68
Q

genetic defect in type 1 collagen causes short stature, lax ligaments, bone deformities, and poor hearing?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

69
Q

child is having arthritic symptoms with fevers daily, a heat rash and systemic symptoms?

A

juvenile idiopathic arthritis: systemic

70
Q

what age groups get juvenile idiopathic polyarthritis?

A

2-5 and 10-14y

71
Q

is juvenile idiopathic polyarthritis symmetric or asymmetric?

A

symmetric

72
Q

a preschool-age girl with dry hands and swollen DIP joints probably has?

A

juvenile idiopathic arthritis: psoriatic

73
Q

with kawasaki disease, there is an increased risk of ________

A

aneurysms —-> sudden death

74
Q

how do you treat kawasaki disease?

A

IVIG

75
Q

2 diagnostic tests for metabolic disease?

A

tandem mass spectrometry

if +, metabolic challenge

76
Q

treatment for increased GH?

A

somatostatin

77
Q

to diagnose hypothyroidism, you look for what marker?

A

anti-TPD Ab

78
Q

to dx hyperthyroidism, you look for what marker?

A

TSI

79
Q

autosomal recessive deficiency of 21-alpha-hydroxylase which causes issues with 2ndary sex characteristics if mild, and primary sex characteristics if severe?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

80
Q

characteristics of complete androgen insensitivity?

A

male with female genitalia
has testes in abdomen
NO ovaries or uterus
developed breasts

81
Q

characteristics of partial androgen insensitivity?

A

no clear genitals at birth

82
Q

characteristics of mild androgen insensitivity?

A

male born with male genitals

very few sx

83
Q

for renal issues, what is the diagnostic method of choice?

A

VCUG - voiding cystourethrogram

84
Q

if you suspect primary nephrotic syndrome, when you can you treat without getting a biopsy first?

A

age 1-8

proteinuria lasting shorter than 8 weeks

85
Q

post-strep glomerulnephritis is an example of?

A

secondary nephrotic syndrome

86
Q
fever, rash, arthralgias
steadily rising Cr
constitutional sx
no hematuria or proteinuria
suspect?
A

TIN

87
Q

deafness, thrombocytes and cataracts are all a a part of?

A

alport syndrome

can lead to chronic TIN

88
Q

HUS occurs in kids of what age?

A

less than 4y

89
Q

HUS is usually preceded by _________

A

GI illness

90
Q

helmet and burr cells

A

HUS

91
Q

what is the leading cause of HTN in kids?

A

vesicourethral reflex

92
Q

a child less than 5 with a liver mass probably has?

A

hepatoblastoma

93
Q

a child 15-19 with a liver mass probably has?

A

HCC

94
Q

philadelphia chromosome

A

CML

95
Q

hx of mono

Reed-sternberg cells

A

hodgkin’s lymphoma

96
Q

catecholamine secretion marker

A

neuroblastoma

MC malignancy of infancy

97
Q

sunburst pattern on XR

A

osteosarcoma

MC bone cancer

98
Q

“small, round, blue cells”

chromosome 22 translocations

A

Ewing sarcoma

99
Q

MC cancer in kids

A

ALL

100
Q

kid has leukocoria (white papillary reflex)

A

retinoblastoma