1. Questionnaire (1-200) Flashcards

1
Q

If the surface exposures of folded beds resemble Vs or horseshoe, then the folds must be: a. isoclinals b. Overturned c. Plunging d. Recumbent

A

c. Plunging

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2
Q

If you want to show on a map even the smaller details or features of a certain area, which of the following scales will you use? a. 1:100,000 b. 1:50,000 c. 1:10,000

A

d. 1:5,000

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3
Q

The collision of which tectonic plates caused the devastating March 2011 earthquake in Japan? a. Eurasian and North American Plates b. North American and Pacific Plates c. Philippine Sea Plate and Eurasian Plate

A

b. North American and Pacific Plates

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4
Q

What kind of faults can be found along mid-oceanic ridges that strike perpendicular to the direction of spreading? a. strike-slip faults b. normal faults c. thrust faults

A

b. normal faults

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5
Q

A stream which drain in a direction towards that of the original regional slope of the land a. insequent b. Obsequent c. Consequent

A

c. Consequent

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6
Q

On a 1:50,000 topographic map with contour interval of 20 meters, what is the actual distance between two points separated by 5 cm length of the map? a. 2.5 km b. 25 km c. 5 km

A

a. 2.5 km

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7
Q

What geomorphic feature separates Central Luzon Basin from the West Luzon Platform Basin? a. Sierra Madre Mountains b. Zambales Ranges c. Central Cordillera Range

A

b. Zambales Ranges

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8
Q

Pratt s theory of isostasy assumes that the lithospheric blocks are of: a. similar density and lie at different levels on the asthenosphere b. different densities and lie at different levels on the asthenosphere c. similar density and lie at similar levels on the asthenosphere d. different densities and lie at similar levels on the asthenosphere

A

d. different densities and lie at similar levels on the asthenosphere

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9
Q

As you move from open to overturned to recumbent, strain has a. become horizontal b. Become vertical c. Decreased d. Increased

A

a. become horizontal

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10
Q

When was the 7.8 magnitude earthquake along the Digdig Fault segment of the Philippine Fault that devastated cities in Luzon such as Baguio City? a. July 1990 b. June 1990 c. July 1991

A

a. July 1990

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11
Q

What drainage pattern is developed when streams flow into a central depression such as lake? a. radial b. Centripetal c. Centrifugal

A

b. Centripetal

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12
Q

An old topography in a humid environment is characterized by the presence of the following except? a. valleys b. Monadnocks c. Peneplain

A

a. valleys

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13
Q

Which of the following would not describe a thrust fault? a. dip-slip b. hanging wall moves up c. low-angle fault plane dip d. upper plate overrides lower plate

A

e. horizontal tensional stress

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14
Q

_____is debris dislodged by weathering of steep slopes which accumulate at the base in a conical, fan shape a. alluvial fan b. Bajada c. Talus

A

c. Talus

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15
Q

What drainage pattern is developed in strongly jointed rocky terrain? a. deranged b. Dendritic c. Trellis

A

d. rectangular

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16
Q

On which island can you find the active volcano Mt. Ragang? a. Luzon b. Leyte c. Mindanao

A

c. Mindanao

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17
Q

A map with a bar scale of 2 cm=50 meters would have a scale expressed in ratio of: a. 1:25,000 b. 1:250 c. 1:2,500 d. 1:5,000

A

c. 1:2,500

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18
Q

Imagine the following. A road is cut by a vertical dipping fault. As you walk along the road toward the fault, at the intersection of the fault and road, you have to turn to your right and walk some distance along the fault until you encounter the continuation of the road. What would you call the fault? a. sinistral fault b. dextral fault c. oblique fault d. dip-slip fault

A

b. dextral fault

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19
Q

Which of the following is not volcanic in origin? a. Scarborough Seamount b. Cagayan de Sulu Ridge c. Babuyan Islands

A

d. Kalayaan Group of Islands

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20
Q

Baguio City has the _______as the basement rock a. Zigzag Formation b. Klondyke Formation c. Pugo Formation d. Chico River Formation

A

c. Pugo Formation

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21
Q

Which of the following terms does not refer to an elevated level expanse of land? a. Mesa b. Butte c. Plateau

A

d. Hogback

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22
Q

These are linear deposits of unsorted sediments formed by the advance or retreat of glaciers. a. Moraine b. Horn c. Cirque

A

a. Moraine

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23
Q

Lateral offset in drainage lines is commonly associated with a. normal faults b. reverse faults c. thrust faults d. strike-slip faults

A

d. strike-slip faults

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24
Q

A cross section with a vertical scale of 1cm = 125 m drawn from a 1:25,000 scale topographic map would have a vertical exaggeration of: ____________. a. 1.5 x b. 2 x c. 2.5 x d. 3x

A

b. 2 x

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25
Q

For questions 25 and 26: A cross section was drawn along a line oriented N15E and cutting across sandstone beds oriented 325/60 25. What is the likely apparent dip of beds as viewed along the cross-sectional line? a. ~60 degrees b. ~50 degrees c.~40 degrees d.~30 degrees e. none of the above 26. What would be the apparent dip of the beds if a vertical exaggeration of 2.5x is applied? a. ~80 degrees b.~70 degrees c.~60 degrees d. ~50 degrees e. none of the above 25.

A

b.~70 degrees

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26
Q

How many sedimentary basins are present within the Philippine Mobile Belt? a. seven b. Eight c. Nine d. Ten

A

c. Nine

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27
Q

What global tectonic features are found where thrust faults are common? a. rift valleys b. transform plate boundaries c. folded mountain ranges related to convergent plate boundaries d. thermal plumes

A

c. folded mountain ranges related to convergent plate boundaries

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28
Q

Compared to a fault, the rocks along a joint a. have experienced no appreciable displacement b. are intensely deformed c. are older on the up thrown side d. are younger on the up thrown side

A

a. have experienced no appreciable displacement

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29
Q

The following is a form of deformation except: a. Dilation b. Distortion c. Rotation d. Translation

A

e. None of the above

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30
Q

A pair of equal and opposite forces acting on a unit area of a body is known as: a. Strain b. Confining pressure c. Stress d. All of the above

A

c. Stress

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31
Q

Shear stress acts ______ to the surface. a. Perpendicular b. Parallel c. Oblique d. All of the above

A

b. Parallel

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32
Q

A fifteen (15) km road stretch is represented in a 1:10,000 map by what length (in centimeters)? a. 1.5 cm b. 15 cm c. 150 cm d. 1500 cm

A

c. 150 cm

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33
Q

Which of the following can be used as strain markers? a. Bilaterally symmetrical fossils b. Spherical objects c. Oolites d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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34
Q

This type of behavior produces permanent strain which exhibits smooth variations across the deformed sample or rock without marked discontinuities. a. Elastic b. Brittle c. Ductile d. a and b

A

c. Ductile

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35
Q

Brittle deformation is more likely under conditions of: a. High temperature and slow deformation rates b. Low temperature and fast deformation rates c. High temperature and fast deformation rates d. Low temperature and slow deformation rates

A

b. Low temperature and fast deformation rates

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36
Q

Which of the following is not true about the geology of Mindanao? a. The Central Cordillera and the Pacific Cordillera belong to the same terrane b. The Zamboanga Peninsula belongs to a terrane of Eurasian affinity c. The Pliocene-Quaternary volcanic fields in Mindanao may be related to a detached oceanic slab of the Molucca Sea Plate beneath the island d. A and C

A

e. none of the above

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37
Q

The plate that developed at the western edge of the Pacific Plate is the: a. Philippine Sea Plate b. Mariana Trough c. Eurasian Plate

A

e. Indo-Australian Plate Philippine Sea Plate

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38
Q

The Mesozoic ophiolites exposed in the Philippine Archipelago can be correlated with the marginal basins currently surrounding the island. This statement is: a. True b. False

A

b. False

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39
Q

The southeast Asian marginal basins successively opened within the: a. Tertiary b. Jurassic to Cretaceous c. Paleozoic d. a and b

A

a. Tertiary

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40
Q

The North Palawan Block is considered to have drifted from southern China as evidenced by: a. stratigraphic correlation b. paleontologic correlation c. paleomagnetism d. a and b

A

e. all of the above

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41
Q

The southward drift of the North Palawan Block resulted from the opening of the ______________: a. South China Sea b. Celebes Sea c. Sulu Sea d. All of the above

A

a. South China Sea

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42
Q

The following factors affect the behavior of rock materials when deformed except: a. Time b. Confining pressure c. Pore fluid pressure d. Temperature

A

e. None of the above

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43
Q

If the distance of two given cities in a 1:15,000 map is 5 cm, what is the actual distance? (3 pts) a. 500 meters b. 750 meters c. 1250 meters d. 1500 meters

A

b. 750 meters

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44
Q

Which of the following is/are not true about the South China Sea basin: a. It opened sometime during the Late Eocene to Oligocene b. It is composed of three sub-basins c. The Scarborough Seamount serves as the old spreading center d. A and b

A

e. None of the above

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45
Q

Which of the following is/are not true about the Sulu Sea? a. It has three sub-basins b. It opened as a back-arc basin c. Formed along the Cagayan de Sulu Ridge

A

e. None of the above Formed along the Cagayan de Sulu Ridge Formed along the Cagayan de Sulu Ridge: This is not true. The Sulu Sea formed as a back-arc basin along the Philippine Sea Plate boundary, but it is not directly related to the Cagayan de Sulu Ridge. The ridge is located to the north and is more associated with the Bohol Sea.

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46
Q

The Celebes Sea formed during the: a. Early Miocene b. Oligocene c. Eocene d. Oligocene to Miocene

A

c. Eocene

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47
Q

The Philippine Sea Plate is bounded by the a. The Bonin-Marianas-Yap Trench system b. The Nankai-Ryuku Trench c. The East Luzon-Philippine Trench system d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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48
Q

Models for the formation of the Celebes Sea include: a. A fragment of the West Philippine Basin b. A back arc basin c. A basin rifted from the SE continental margin d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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49
Q

The West Philippine Basin originated as_______based on existing models: a. Trapped oceanic basin b. Back-arc basin c. Fore-arc basin d. A and b

A

d. A and b

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50
Q

The spreading center of the West Philippine Basin is the: a. Central Basin Fault b. Scarborough Seamount c. West Philippine Sea Plate Spreading Center d. Marianas Trough

A

a. Central Basin Fault

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51
Q

The part of the beach above the high tide line that is flat or slopes slightly landward is the: a. beach face b. marine terrace c. Berm d. Surf zone

A

c. Berm

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52
Q

Which of the following would not reflect longshore drift: a. tombolos b. baymouth bars c. Spit d. Stacks

A

d. Stacks

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53
Q

The Parece Vela-Shikoku Basin is separated from the West Philippine Basin by: a. Izu-Bonin Ridge b. West Marianas Ridge c. Palau-Kyushu Ridge d. A and C

A

c. Palau-Kyushu Ridge

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54
Q

The back-arc basin of the northern Sierra Madre Range is a. Cagayan Valley Basin b. Solsona Basin c. Central Valley Basin d. Caraballo Mountain

A

a. Cagayan Valley Basin

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55
Q

Which of the following would not describe an anticline: a. plastic strain respose b. Beds dip away from the axial plane c. Horizontal limbs d. Oldest beds at the center

A

c. Horizontal limbs

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56
Q

Joints oriented in one direction and approximately parallel make up a: a. thrust fault b. Overturned fold c. recumbent folds d. Joint stress

A

e. Joint set

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57
Q

If Cretaceous sedimentary rocks are observed resting on Precambrian igneous and metamorphic rocks, the contact would be interpreted as a: a. thrust fault b. Overturned fold c. Disconformity d. Angular unconformity

A

e. Nonconformity

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58
Q

The Philippines is generally interpreted as a collage of insular arcs, ophiolitic suites and continental rocks of Eurasian affinity. This statement is: a. True b. False

A

a. True

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59
Q

The following is the morphological expression of the westward subduction of the Philippine Sea Plate under the eastern Philippine arc: a. Philippine Trench b. Manila trench c. Sulu trench d. All of the above

A

a. Philippine Trench

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60
Q

The following lies within the West Philippine Basin except: a. Benham plateau b. Urdaneta Plateau c. Central Basin Fault d. Gagua Ridge

A

d. Gagua Ridge

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61
Q

Which is true of the Philippine Mobile Belt? a. A product of the NW-SE oblique convergence between the Eurasian Plate and the Philippine Sea Plate b. It extends from Taiwan in the north to the Molucca Sea Collision Zone in the south c. It is flanked by subduction zones d. a and c only

A

e. a, b and c

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62
Q

The following statements are true of the Philippine Trench except: a. It has a well-developed accretionary prism b. It has a relatively shallow Benioff zone c. Its age of initiation is relatively young d. The temporal and spatial distribution of volcanic rocks along the eastern Philippines suggests southern propagation of subduction along the Philippine Trench from about 8 Ma

A

a. It has a well-developed accretionary prism

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63
Q

Which is not true of the East Luzon Trough: a. It is connected with the Philippine Trench by a transcurrent fault zone; b. Focal mechanism solutions define a shallow, west-dipping Benioff zone for this feature c. There is no volcanic arc in Luzon associated with the activity along the East Luzon Trough d. A and b

A

e. None of the above

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64
Q

The Molucca Sea is a classic example of: a. arc-continent collision b. arc-arc collision c. continent-continent collision

A

c. continent-continent collision

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65
Q

Which is not true of the Negros Trench: a. It is here that the oceanic crust of the Sulu Sea is being consumed b. Its Benioff zone is not well defined c. Subduction is marked by the presence of an arc which has been active since its initiation at ~10 Ma d. The Negros Trench connects southwestwards with the Sulu Trench

A

e. None of the above

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66
Q

Arc development in the northern Sierra Madre-Caraballo region essentially started during the: a. Oligocene b. Miocene c. Cretaceous d. Eocene

A

d. Eocene

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67
Q

The volcanic equivalent of the Coastal Batholith noted by previous workers in the northern Sierra Madre region is the: a. Caraballo Formation b. Dibuluan River Formation c. Palali Formation d. None of the above

A

a. Caraballo Formation

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68
Q

Which of the following is true about the Cordon Syenite exposed in northern Luzon: a. It represents a late Oligocene to early Early Miocene magmatic event b. It consists of alkalic bodies c. Its formation may be related to intra-arc rifting that led to the formation of the Cagayan Valley Basin d. A and b

A

e. A,b and c

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69
Q

The oldest known magmatic rocks (of Lower Cretaceous age) in the Philippines are found in: a. Bohol b. Baguio City c. Cebu d. Surigao

A

c. Cebu

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70
Q

Which of the following comprises the basement rock of the Southern Sierra Madre? a. Zambales Ophiolite b. Angat Ophiolite c. Casiguran Ophiolite d. Pugo Formation

A

b. Angat Ophiolite

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71
Q

The earliest pulse of plutonic activity in the Central Cordillera in northern Luzon occurred in the Late Eocene to Oligocene. This statement is: a. True b. False

A

b. False

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72
Q

The “arc polarity reversal” model envisions Luzon as resulting from: a. The westward subduction along the proto-East Luzon Trough possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the Manila Trench. b. The eastward subduction along the Manila Trench possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the proto-East Luzon trough. c. The westward subduction along the Philippine Trench possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the Manila Trench. d. The eastward subduction along the Manila possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the Philippine Trench.

A

a. The westward subduction along the proto-East Luzon Trough possibly until the Late Oligocene and subsequent flipping of subduction along the Manila Trench.

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73
Q

Which of the following portions of Mindanao can be considered as having Philippine-Halmahera arc (Philippine Sea Plate) affinity? a. Central Cordillera b. Pacific Cordillera c. Central- Western Mindanao (Saranggani-Dagum-Cotobato Basin-Zamboanga) d. All of the above

A

e. A and b only

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74
Q

Which is not true of the Philippine Fault? a. It is a sinistral fault b. It transects the archipelago from Luzon to Eastern Mindanao for more than 1,200 km. c. It accommodates a lateral component of the oblique convergence between the Philippine Sea Plate and the Eurasian Plate. d. Its formation is synchronous to that of the Philippine Trench

A

e. None of the above

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75
Q

The back-arc basin of the Central Cordillera in northern Luzon is: a. Cagayan valley Basin b. Central Valley Basin c. South China Sea basin d. Solsona Basin

A

a. Cagayan valley Basin

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76
Q

The following are examples of marginal basins except: a. South China Sea b. Sulu Sea c. Parece Vela Basin d. Celebes Sea

A

c. Parece Vela Basin

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77
Q

Which of the following is generally considered as aseismic? a. Palawan trough b. East Luzon trough c. Philippine Trench d. Negros Trench

A

a. Palawan trough

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78
Q

Which among the rock formations in the Philippines is the oldest? a. Liminangcong Formation b. Bacuit Formation c. Lubuagan Formation d. Labayug Formation

A

b. Bacuit Formation

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79
Q

Which of the following rock formation in northern Luzon is dominantly composed of molasse-type of deposits: a. Kennon Limestone b. Klondyke Formation c. Cataguintingan Formation d. Rosario Formation

A

b. Klondyke Formation

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80
Q

As exposed in Baguio City, the basement rock comprising the southern Cordillera Range is? a. Kennon Limestone b. Zigzag Formation c. Klondyke Formation d. Mirador Limestone

A

e. none of the above

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81
Q

Which is not true of Palawan? a. The northern region is of Eurasian affinity b. The southern region is composed mainly of ophiolite c. It is bounded by the Palawan trough to the east d. The boundary between the southern and northern terrane is perceived to be the Ulugan Fault

A

c. It is bounded by the Palawan trough to the east

82
Q

The structure marking the boundary between the Manila and Negros-Sulu trench systems is: a. Philippine Fault Zone’ b. Antique-Tablas lineament c. Verde Passage Suture d. Manila Trench

A

b. Antique-Tablas lineament

83
Q

The Chocolate Hills of Bohol belongs to what formational unit? a. Sierra Bullones Limestone b. Maribojic Formation c. Malay Formation d. Anda Formation

A

a. Sierra Bullones Limestone

84
Q
  1. The nature of strain being shown in A is: a. Continuous homogenous b. Continuous heterogenous c. Discontinuous heterogenous d. None of the above 87. The nature of strain being shown in B is a. Continuous homogenous b. Continuous heterogenous c. Discontinuous heterogenous d. None of the above
A

b. Continuous heterogenous

85
Q

What sedimentary basin is located to the east of the Central Cordillera Range a. Central Luzon Basin b. Cagayan Valley Basin c. Mindoro Basin

A

b. Cagayan Valley Basin

86
Q

Which of the following is not true for normal faults: a. The maximum principal stress is vertical and corresponds to gravitation load b. Pure dip slip occurs only if the extension direction is perpendicular to the strike of the fault plane c. The sense of simple shear movement on these faults implies an extension of the block parallel to 1 and contraction parallel to 3. d. All of the above

A

c. The sense of simple shear movement on these faults implies an extension of the block parallel to 1 and contraction parallel to 3.

87
Q

Listric normal faults are produced when the fault encounters a weak (incompetent) layer. This statement is: a. True b. False

88
Q

Which of the following is not a tectonic habitat of normal faults: a. completed rifts b. intraplate rifts c. trench outer slope d. deltaic areas

A

e. None of the above

89
Q

The following statements hold true for thrust faults except: a. The sense of shear on the thrusts implies horizontal contraction parallel to 1 and vertical extension. b. Thrusts will form more easily at relatively low levels in the crust where the lithostatic pressure is low c. Where thrusts affect a set of bedded rocks which are near horizontal in attitude, the thrusts generally follow a staircase path made up of alternating ramps and flats d. All of the above

A

a. The sense of shear on the thrusts implies horizontal contraction parallel to 1 and vertical extension.

90
Q

Mountains are likely to be associated with the feature above in a. A b. B c. A and B

91
Q

Valleys and basins are likely to be associated with the feature above in (same choices as 95) a. A b. B c. A and B

92
Q

In strike-slip faults, which features are likely not to be found in restraining bends? a. Pop-up structure b. Positive flower structure c. Thrust faults d. Negative flower structure

A

d. Negative flower structure

93
Q

Subsidiary strike slip shear fractures set of conjugate shear fractures that develop in strike-slip fault systems are known as: a. Riedel shears b. C-S-shears c. P shears d. Conjugate shears

A

a. Riedel shears

94
Q

Which of the following is not an evidence of fault movement? a. sag ponds b. shutter ridges c. triangular facets d. slumping

A

d. slumping

95
Q

In a thrust fault system, individual imbricate thrust sheets within the duplex are called _____ a. Horses b. Imbricate zone c. Piggyback structure d. Schuppen structure

96
Q

Faulted and folded sheets which have moved many tens of kilometers and rest on a rock of a totally different character is called: a. Imbricate zone b. Klippe c. Nappe d. Window

97
Q

In a thrust fault system, this is where the thrust cuts upwards through the stratigraphic sequence at an angle of typically around 30o to the horizontal. a. Ramp b. Flat c. Decollement plane d. Hanging wall

98
Q

A fault rock type with a relatively fine grain size as compared to the host rock and resulting from crystal-plastic processes. a. Mylonite b. Schist c. Marble d. Phyllite

A

a. Mylonite

99
Q

Relic structures of a more coarse-grained fabric formed by diminution of the grain size in the matrix. a. Porphyroblast b. Porphyroclast c. Cataclastite d. Catablastite

A

a. Porphyroblast

100
Q

Relatively large single crystals which formed by metamorphic growth in a more fine-grained matrix a. Porphyroblast b. Porphyroclast c. Cataclastite d. Catablastite

A

b. Porphyroclast

101
Q

Which of the following is not a shear sense indicator a. Oblique foliation b. Mantle porphyroclast c. Shear band cleavages d. C-S structures

A

e. None of the above

102
Q

Folds with interlimb angle of 70 to 120 degrees are called: a. Open fold b. Gentle fold c. Closed fold d. Tight fold

A

b. Gentle fold

103
Q

Folds having constant actual bed thickness are called: a. Isoclinal fold b. Symmetrical fold c. Parallel folds d. Similar folds

A

a. Isoclinal fold

104
Q

Folds consisting of rocks that are younging towards the core are called: a. Antiform b. Synform c. Anticline d. Syncline

A

d. Syncline

105
Q

En echelon, left-stepping, right-lateral strike slip faults will likely form areas of : a. extension b. contraction

A

a. extension

106
Q

The sense of movement most likely being suggested by the Riedel shears is: a. left-lateral b. right-lateral c. oblique fault d. dip-slip fault

A

a. left-lateral

107
Q
  1. The type of fold most likely being depicted in the Figure above is a: a. antiform b. synform c. recumbent fold d. monocline
A

b. synform

108
Q

The strike of the limbs of the fold is approximately: a. N60E b. N80E c. N25W d. N15W

109
Q

The steeper limb of the fold has a dip angle of approximately: a. 25 degrees b. 35 degrees c. 45 degrees d. 55 degrees

A

a. 25 degrees

110
Q
  1. Based on the given log A, what type of fault likely caused the stratigraphy: a. Sinistral fault b. Dextral fault c. Thrust fault d. Normal fault
A

c. Thrust fault

111
Q

_______is responsible for the stratigraphy depicted in Log B a. Sinistral fault b. Dextral fault c. Thrust fault d. Normal fault

A

c. Thrust fault

112
Q

Folds with axial planes oriented horizontally are called: a. Recumbent fold b. Inclined fold c. Chevron folds d. Slump fold

A

a. Recumbent fold

113
Q

A oceanic spreading center is cut by transform faults as shown below. What is the sense of movement of the transform faults: a. Dextral strike slip fault b. Sinistral strike slip fault c. Normal fault d. Thrust fault

A

b. Sinistral strike slip fault

114
Q

Values of apparent dips of beds are always smaller compared to their corresponding true dips. This statement is: a. True b. False

115
Q

The oblate spheroidal shape of the Earth can be explained by the fact that: a. the gravitational force offsets the effect of centrifugal force at the poles b. the gravitational force offsets the effect of centrifugal force at the equator c. centrifugal force is greater at the equator than at the poles d. a and c

A

b. the gravitational force offsets the effect of centrifugal force at the equator

116
Q

What is the strike of the contact? a. N30W b. N60W c. due north d. N30E e. N60W What is the dip of the contact a. 35NE b. 35NW c. 35SE d.35SW e. due west

117
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature terrain? a. has a straight stream channel b. valley floor is insignificant c. rivers flow through a V-shaped valley d. stream divides are generally broad

A

d. stream divides are generally broad

118
Q

____________is a morphological feature formed by the interaction between a flow and cohensionless sediment on a bed a. bedform b. Hjulstrom effect c. ripples d. dunes

A

a. bedform

119
Q

This type of stream has position which is a result of the initial slope of a land in which the location is due solely to the original irregularities of the land surface a. consequent b. subsequent c. resequent d. insequent

A

a. consequent

120
Q

Circular arrangement of drainage pattern that may be found around maturely dissected domes which have alternating belts of strong and weak rocks encircling them: a. barbed b. Angulate c. Annular d. deranged

A

c. Annular

121
Q

Sharp crested ridges which develop where the rock dips are steep, roughly in excess of 45 degrees a. cuesta b. Hogback c. Peneplain d. buttes

A

b. Hogback

122
Q

Folds with interlimb angle of 70 to 120 degrees are called: a. open fold b. Gentle fold c. Closed fold d. tight fold

A

b. Gentle fold

123
Q

Which of the following is not a mode of preservation of fossils? a. permineralization b. replacement c. recrystaliization d. distillation

A

e. none of the above

124
Q

Fossil impression of a surface is a: a. mold b. cast c. carbonization d. permineralization

A

d. permineralization

125
Q

If one were to squeeze a ball of clay in the palm lof the hand, the clay would contain a reverse replica of the inside or palm of the hand. This produces an: a. internal mold b. external mold c. internal cast d. external cast

A

a. internal mold

126
Q

These records the effects of an organism on its environment: a. impression b. mold c. cast d. trace fossils

A

d. trace fossils

127
Q

Preserved feces of animals are called: a. borings b. coprolites c. fecaliensis d. trace marks

A

b. coprolites

128
Q

Major reef builders of the Late Paleozoic, particularly during the Devonian were the: a. rugose corals b. scleratinian corals c. scyphozoan coelenterates d. tabulate corals

A

a. rugose corals

129
Q

Major reef builders during the Silurian were the: a. rugose corals b. scleratinian corals c. scyphozoan coelenterates d. tabulate corals

A

d. tabulate corals

130
Q

The most diverse group of brachiopod during the Paleozoic : a. pelecypods b. articulate brachiopods c. inarticulate brachiopods d. b and c

A

c. inarticulate brachiopods

131
Q

The largest phylum of living organisms is: a. coelenterates b.arthropods c. mollusc d. bryozoa

A

b.arthropods

132
Q

_____is a sedimentary rock containing the waxy hydrocarbon fuel called kerogen. a. oil sands c. peat b. oil shale

A

b. oil shale

133
Q

Sediments that bounce or skip along the stream bed are said to be moving by ___. a. capacity b. saltation c. competence

A

b. saltation

134
Q

The maximum load of solid particles that a stream can transport is called its __(142)____; however, the measure of the maximum size of solid particles that a stream can transport is called its ___(143)____. a. capacity b. saltation

A

d. traction 142. capacity 143. competence

135
Q

Limestone can have a clastic or non-clastic texture. a. True

136
Q

There are about eleven different environments where sediments accumulate, as such, there are about eleven different facies forming today. a. True

137
Q

Determining texture in calcareous rocks commonly includes which of the following observations? i. biologically produced textures ii. grain type iii. presence/absence of micrite iv. presence/absence of sparite a. i, ii b. i, ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv

A

b. i, ii, iii, iv

138
Q

What fundamental assumption is made by geologists when they interpret the geological record noted in rocks? a. Most geologic processes taking place today operated at rates different from those of the past. b. Features found in the rocks were produced by the same processes that operated in the past. c. Uniformity in the type and rate of processes d. b and c

A

b. Features found in the rocks were produced by the same processes that operated in the past.

139
Q

How does the ocean water depth influence the production and/or preservation of carbonate sediment? i. Algae can produce carbonate at any depth in the water column. ii. Calcite and aragonite are only undersaturated in water depths greater than 4500m. iii. Shallow water carbonate production can be diluted in the sedimentary deposits by abundant siliciclastic material from the continents. iv. Warm surface (<100m) water can be supersaturated with respect to calcium carbonate. a. i, ii b. i, ii, iii, iv c. i, iii, iv

A

d. iii, iv

140
Q

Calcite and aragonite are different names for the same mineral. a. True

141
Q

All of the following environmental features can favor the formation of a boundstone, except a. Absence of siliciclastic sediment input b. Edge of platform margin c. High CO2 concentration in sea water

A

c. High CO2 concentration in sea water

142
Q

The term ‘texture’ in siliciclastic rocks includes which of the following features? a. fabric c. particle shape b. grain size

A

d. all of the above

143
Q

How do both the lithology and the climate of the source area contribute to the formation of conglomerates? a. Climate can preferentially destroy less resistant rocks and minerals through chemical weathering. b. Climate is the only factor that can result in the breakdown of massive rocks into gravel sized particles at the surface of the Earth. c. Lithology of the source areas dictates the potential range of mineral and rock compositions.

A

d. both a and c

144
Q

The following sediment description indicates a texturally supermature sediment. Grain size: 10% of grains <0.004 mm, 40% of grains 0.004 - 0.063 mm, 50 % of grains 0.063 to 2 mm, 10% of grains > 2mm. Grains are very well rounded. 90% of grains composed of quartz. a. True

145
Q

Most sandstones are composed of varying proportions of quartz, feldspars and/or rock fragments. a. True

146
Q

Dominantly unaltered feldspars in sandstone indicate a depositional weathering environment dominated by mechanical weathering processes. a. True

147
Q

Give the sandstone rock name following grain composition: 5% plagioclase, 25% polycrystalline quartz, 15% gneiss, 15% orthoclase and 40% monocrystaline quartz. a. feldsphaticlitharenite b. lithic subarkose c. lithic arkose

A

b. lithic subarkose

148
Q

The phi units for cobble a. -2 to 4 b. -6 to -8 c. -2 to -6

A

c. -2 to -6

149
Q

The abundance of a particular mineral in sedimentary rock is dependent not only its source area geology but also on its chemical and mechanical stability. a. True

150
Q

Which one of the following is not related to chemical weathering? a. decomposition b. frost wedging c. hydrolysis

A

b. frost wedging

151
Q

Which of these factors influence the type and rate of weathering? a. mineral content b. climate c. topography

A

d. all of the above

152
Q

The vertical drop of a stream channel over a certain distance defines ____________. a. Discharge b. laminar flow c. Runoff

A

d. gradient

153
Q

Which one of the following factors does NOT influence stream velocity? a. channel size and shape b. laminar flow c. discharge

A

b. laminar flow

154
Q

If you were to examine the longitudinal profile of a typical river, you would probably find that ____________. a. the gradient is steepest near the mouth b. the gradient is steepest near the head c. the gradient is about the same at both the head and the mouth

A

b. the gradient is steepest near the head

155
Q

Most streams transport the greatest amount of sediment as part of their ____________ load. a. dissolved b. suspended c. bed

A

b. suspended

156
Q

A natural levee is ____________. a. an erosional feature b. a depositional feature c. an erosional feature, essentially parallel to the stream channel

A

d. a depositional feature, essentially parallel to the stream channel

157
Q

As stream discharge increases _________. a. stream velocity, channel width, and depth all increase b. stream velocity increases, but channel width and depth decrease c. stream velocity, channel width, and channel depth all decrease

A

a. stream velocity, channel width, and depth all increase

158
Q

If the steep side of a drumlin is on the northeast, it indicates that the glacier advanced from what direction? a. southwest b. southeast c. northwest

A

d. northeast

159
Q

Desert pavement is the result of ________. a. deflation b. abrasion by windblown sand c. erosion by running water

A

a. deflation

160
Q

The slip face of a particular barchan dune is on the southeast side. The prevailing wind in this area is from the _________. a. northeast b. northwest c. southeast

A

b. northwest

161
Q

If the half-life of a material x is 1000 years and you found a specimen with equal amounts of material x and material z (the daughter product) the specimen would be about ____________. a. 500 years old b. 1000 years old c. 1500 years old

A

b. 1000 years old

162
Q

Abundant fossil evidence did not appear in the geologic record until about _________ years ago. a. 5 billion b. 6 million c. 600 million

A

c. 600 million

163
Q

The person most often credited with formulating the principle of faunal succession is ____________. a. Nicolaus Steno b. William Smith c. John W. Powell

A

b. William Smith

164
Q

Which one of the organisms listed below would have the best chance of becoming part of the fossil record? a. horse b. fish c. butterfly

165
Q

Which of the following gases was NOT part of Earth’s original atmosphere? a. water vapor b. carbon dioxide c. nitrogen

166
Q

The most common Precambrian fossils are ____________, layered mounds of calcium carbonate. a. prokaryotes b. chert c. trilobites

A

d. stromatolites

167
Q

“The ____________ era is known as the ““age of flowering plants.”” a. Precambrian b. Paleozoic c. Cenozoic

A

c. Cenozoic

168
Q

The ____________ period was a time of major extinctions, including 75 percent of amphibian families. a. Jurassic b. Mississippian c. Permian

A

c. Permian

169
Q

The beginning of the Cambrian period marks an important event in animal evolution - the appearance of organisms with ____________. a. wings b. cells c. hard parts

A

c. hard parts

170
Q

“When are waves affected by the sea floor, that is, when do waves begin to ““feel bottom””? a. when water depth is equal to one-half the wavelength b. when water depth is equal to the wavelength c. when water depth is twice as great as the wavelength

A

a. when water depth is equal to one-half the wavelength

171
Q

When waves reach shallow water, they are often bent and tend to become parallel to the shore. This process is referred to as ______. a. oscillation b. refraction c. translation

A

b. refraction

172
Q

Narrow bands of interlayered Archaean volcanic rocks and clastic sedimentary rocks with some chert and iron formations are called: a. Greenstone belts b. Shields c. Lipalian interval d.Vendian interval

A

a. Greenstone belts

173
Q

Craton-wide unconformity recognized in North America marking the absence Precambrian-Eocambrian marine rocks: a. Greenstone interval b. Lipalian interval c. Vendian interval d. Kenoran interval

A

b. Lipalian interval

174
Q

One of the two oldest orogenies of Precambrian history recognized in the North American craton is: a. Lipalian b. Vendian c. Kenoran d. Laurentian

A

d. Laurentian

175
Q

The oldest unequivocal remains of a diversity of microorganisms occur in the _____ of the Canadian Shield: a. Gunflint Chert b. Bitter Springs Formation c. Ediacara Formation d. Robertson Formation

A

a. Gunflint Chert

176
Q

The proto-Atlantic Ocean that opened during the Eocambrian and Cambrian and which may have triggered the extensive Cambrian seas of North America is called: a. Rheic Ocean b. Sauk Sea c. Iapetus Ocean d. Pan-African Sea

A

c. Iapetus Ocean

177
Q

The Caledonian Orogeny that occurred during the Ordovician to Silurian in Europe has its counterpart in North America, the name being: a. Hercynian Orogeny b. Taconic Orogeny c. Acadian Orogeny d. Kanimblan Orogeny

A

d. Kanimblan Orogeny

178
Q

The dinosaurs actually belong to at least two separate orders of reptiles that arose from a group of reptiles called the: a. thecodonts b. ornithopods c. ceratopsians d. pterosaurs

A

a. thecodonts

179
Q

Mesozoic deposits of a very fine-grained lithostratigraphic limestone that originally formed as a chemical precipitate in quiet lagoons along the shores of the regressing Late Jurassic epeiric sea and preserved in the rocks of southern Germany are collectively referred to: a. Solnhoffen Fossils b. Ediacara Fossils c. Vah Heutten Fossils d. Cheilostomes

A

a. Solnhoffen Fossils

180
Q

The term “Tertiary” was named by: a. Arduino b. von Humboldt c. d’ Halloy d. Murchison

A

a. Arduino

181
Q

The term “Ordovician” was named by: a. Sedgwick b. Desnoyer c. Williams d. Lapworth

A

d. Lapworth

182
Q

The following are attributes of a formation except: a. It is mappable b. It is uninterrupted by regional unconformity c. It was deposited under essentially uniform conditions or under an alteration of similar conditions d. It is limited in horizontal extent

A

e. none of the above

183
Q

The following are attributes of a member except: a. identified and recognized with the same criteria that is used to discriminate formations b. It is the smallest formal unit in the hierarchy of lithostratigraphic unit c. No fixed standard is required for the extent and thickness of a member d. a and c

A

b. It is the smallest formal unit in the hierarchy of lithostratigraphic unit

184
Q

Which of the following does not provide crucial information in interpreting the environment of deposition of a particular outcrop? a. type of lithology b. internal structures c. fossil types d. rock texture

A

e. none of the above

185
Q

Wegeners theory on continental drift was rejected by philosophers and scientists during his time mainly due to his: a. inability to present any evidence to support his theory b. inability to provide an adequate explanation of the forces responsible for continental drift c. inability to present his work with conviction d. a and b

A

b. inability to provide an adequate explanation of the forces responsible for continental drift

186
Q

Arthur Holmes’ main contribution to continental drift theory is his idea that: a. continents drift because sea floors spread b. the mantle undergoes thermal convection, providing the driving force for continental drifting c. the lithosphere is breaking apart due mainly to mantle plumes d. all of the above’

A

b. the mantle undergoes thermal convection, providing the driving force for continental drifting

187
Q

Which of the following was not used to support sea floor spreading? a. patterns of magnetic reversal b. age patterns of the sea floor c. polar wandering d. paleomagnetism

A

e. none of the above.

188
Q

Ventifacts are formed by: a. deflation b. sandblasting c. traction d. a and b

A

b. sandblasting

189
Q

Which of the following is not a diagenetic process? a. bioturbation b. formation of stylolites c. cementation d. formation of concretions in chert

A

e. none of the above

190
Q

This type of volcanic eruption is characterized by a short-lived, explosive outbursts of pasty lava ejected a few tens or hundreds of meters into the air: a. Strombolian b. Vulcanian c. Hawaian d. Plinian

A

a. Strombolian

191
Q

Which of the following is always true about earthquakes? a. The magnitude of an earthquake decreases with distance from the epicenter b. The intensity of an earthquake varies with distance from the epicenter c. Both magnitude and intensity vary with distance from the epicenter d. Big magnitude earthquakes translates to high intensity earthquake

A

b. The intensity of an earthquake varies with distance from the epicenter

192
Q

The science of geology is concerned with which part of the globe? a. Visible surface of the Earth b. Undersurface of the Earth c. Rocks of the Earth

A

c. Rocks of the Earth

193
Q

The term ‘‘geology (geologia)’ as a distinct branch of physical science was used first by whom and in which year? a. Rober Lowell, 1661 b. Erasmus Warren, 1690 c. Jean Andr de Luc, 1779

A

a. Rober Lowell, 1661

194
Q

The earliest Greek philosopher to write a treatise on minerals and rocks titled Concerning Stones was… a. Aristotle b. Democritus c. Pliny

A

d. Theophrastus

195
Q

What is the basic principle of geology? a. Uniformitarianism b. Natural selection c. Palaeomorphism

A

a. Uniformitarianism

196
Q

How many million years old is the Earth according to the latest determinations? a. 3900 b. 4200 c. 4600

197
Q

What is the outer, rigid part of the Earth’s crust consisting of the sial and the upper part of sima known as? a. Asthenosphere b. Bathysphere c. Lithosphere

A

c. Lithosphere

198
Q

Which part of the Earth is called the mantle? a. Zone just above the crust b. Zone just below the crust c. Zone in the middle of the crust

A

b. Zone just below the crust

199
Q

What is the estimated thickness of the Earth’s mantle? a. 2600 km b. 2900 km c. 3100 km

A

b. 2900 km (or 2890 km)

200
Q

What is the zone within the upper mantle underlying the lithosphere called? a. Asthenosphere b. Magnetosphere c. Core

A

a. Asthenosphere