Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

All subjects Q > 0525 > Flashcards

0525 Flashcards

1
Q

high levels of what contribute to insulin resistance in overweight pts?

A

FFA and serum TGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most significant factor contributing to bone density in healthy pts?

A

genetic differences.

ex: caucasians have lower bone mass than africans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

topical vit D analogs treat?

A

psoriasis- inhibit keratinocyte proliferation, stimulate keratinocyte differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vagus nerve effect on lungs

A

bronchoconstriction and increased mucus secretion (M3)– both increase airflow resistance and work of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

salmonella component that is antiphagocytic?

A

Vi antigen (special capsule, Vi stands for virulence)- protects bact from opsonization and phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hand weakness

A

injury of lower trunk of brachial plexus (C8-T1 affects intrinsic mm. of hand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sudden upward stretching of arm at shoulder damages?

A

lower trunk of brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

centriacinar emphysema localizes to?

A

upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

panacinar emphysema localizes to?

A

lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

INH and liver

A

directly hepatotoxic- acute MILD hepatic dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

glucocorticoid action

A

CATABOLIC- cause muscle weakness, skin thinning, impaired wound healing, osteoporosis, immunosuppression.

BUT also increases liver protein synthesis for gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do glucocorticoids contribute to hyperglycemia?

A
  1. increase liver prot synthesis for gluconeogenesis.

2. peripheral antagonism of insulin effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which cytokines mediate systemic inflamm response?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a…

stimulate acute phase proteins, including fibrinogen, CRP, ferritin, complement, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

increased fibrinogen causes RBCs to…?

A

form stacks (rouleaux) that sediment at a faster rate- increased ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dystonia

A

prolonged, repetitive muscle contractions that force body parts into abnormal, sometimes painful movements/postures

*basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

myoclonus

A

sudden, brief, sometimes severe/shock-like muscle contraction (ex: hiccups)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

short-term TX of RA

A

glucocorticoids (unfavorable side effects) good for anti-inflammatory effects until disease-modifying agents like MTX can take effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lung involvement with scleroderma

A

pulmo HTN due to damage to arterioles.

accentuated P2 of S2.
signs of right heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hamartoma

A

excessive growth of tissue that is native to the organ involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most common site for hamartoma

A

LUNGS- benign tumors consisting of mature hyaline cartilage + adipose tissue + fibrous tissue + smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ureaplasma urealyticum

A

part of mycoplasma genus.
lacks peptidoglycan cell wall.
contains cholesterol in single phospholipid layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TX against mycoplasma

A

anti-ribosomal agents: tetracycline, erythro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MRSA drug resistance

A

to all beta-lactam ABx due to altered penicillin-binding protein in peptidoglycan wall that does not bind beta-lactams effectively.

*susceptible to vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

amphotericin B TOX

A
  1. acute infusion-related rxn: fever, chills, rigors, hypotension.
  2. dose-dependent nephrotox: decreased GFR.
  3. electrolyte abn: hypomagnesemia, kalemia.
  4. anemia: suppressed EPO synth.
  5. IV site thrombophlebitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

anabolic steroids

A

i.e. methyltestosterone = ANDROGEN.

promote follicular epidermal hyperproliferation and excess sebum production to cause ACNE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

drugs that cause acne

A

androgens.
EGFR inhibitors.
lithium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what keeps intracellular calcium concentrations low in skel mm?

A

Ca-ATPase pump in SR membrane- sequesters calcium soon after it binds troponin C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ryanodine receptor

A

facilitates calcium release from SR into intracellular fluid when skel muscle cell membrane is depolarized

29
Q

urge incontinence (overactive bladder syndrome)

A

due to uninhibited bladder contractions (detrusor instability).

treat with antimuscarinic (M3) drugs to decrease contractions and sense of urgency, increase bladder capacity.

30
Q

BRAF mutation

A

protein kinase involved in signaling pathways for melanocyte proliferation.

seen in 40-60% of MELANOMA.
V600E (valine replaced by glutamate).

31
Q

breast mass: solid sheets of pleomorphic, high-grade cells with central necrosis

A

comedocarcinoma (DCIS)

32
Q

what causes hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis?

A

increased extra-renal formation of 1,25-OH2 vit D by activated macrophages.

(activated T cells secrete IFN-g to increase 1-alpha hydroxylase activity)

*high levels suppress PTH secretion

33
Q

chloride shift in RBCs

A

bicarb (made from CO2 by carbonic anhydrase) diffuses OUT of RBC.

Cl ions diffuse INTO RBC to maintain electrical neutrality.

*responsible for high RBC Cl content in venous blood

34
Q

what causes retraction (dimpling) of overlying skin in invasive breast cancer?

A

infiltration of Cooper’s (suspensory) ligament

35
Q

what causes orange peel appearance (peau d’orange) in breast cancer?

A

blockage of lymphatic drainage by tumor- lymphedema, pitting, and thickening of skin..

*common in inflammatory breast cancer

36
Q

what vessel is often damaged by femoral neck fracture (displaced fracture)?

A

MEDIAL femoral circumflex artery.

injury = avascular necrosis of femoral head.

37
Q

trochanteric anastomosis

A
  1. superior gluteal a.
  2. inferior gluteal a.
  3. medial femoral circumflex.
  4. lateral femoral circumflex.
38
Q

lepromin skin test

A

Mycobacterium leprae Ags are injected intradermally.

POSITIVE: tuberculoid leprosy (strong CD4+ Th1 cell-mediated response).

NONREACTIVE: lepromatous leprosy (weak cell-mediated response).

39
Q

where are ketones produced?

A

liver mitochondria- FA breakdown.

then released into circulation to peripheral tissues.

40
Q

what tissues metabolize ketones?

A
  1. skel mm.
  2. cardiac mm.
  3. renal cortex.
  4. brain (in starvation).

converted to acetyl coA in mito.

41
Q

why can’t liver use ketone bodies?

A

liver lacks THIOPHORASE (succinyl CoA-acetoacetate CoA transferase) needed to converted acetoacetate into acetoacetyl CoA

42
Q

why can’t erythrocytes use ketone bodies?

A

lack mitochondria

43
Q

fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

A

allosterically inhibits fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (gluconeogenesis).

allosterically activates phosphofructokinase-1 (glycolysis).

44
Q

what increases fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels levels?

A

insulin

45
Q

where do all rxns of pentose phosphate pathway occur?

A

cytoplasm

46
Q

lipoic acid is a cofactor for…?

A

mitochondrial enz:

  1. PDH (def: lactic acidosis).
  2. alpha-ketoglutarate DH in TCA.
  3. branched chain ketoacid DH (def: MSUD).
47
Q

what inhibits lipoic acid?

A

arsenic- rice water stool, garlic breath, vomiting

48
Q

accumulated homogentistic acid

A

due to deficient homogentistic acid oxidase (tyrosine degradation)- ALKAPTONURIA.

causes pigment deposits in conn tissues: darkened sclera, ear cartilage, arthritis, ankylosis

49
Q

myeloperoxidase

A

neutrophil enzyme that catalyzes hydrogen peroxide + chlorine into hypochlorite (BLEACH)

50
Q

cholecystectomy

A

no gallbladder to store bile so bile is constantly released into duodenum

51
Q

normal handling of dietary lipids

A

digestion in duo.

absorption in jejunum.

52
Q

what prevents hemorrhagic cystitis from cyclophosphamide tx?

A

MESNA (2-mercaptoethanesulfonate)- sulfhydryl compound that binds acrolein metabolite in urine

53
Q

CF vs Kartagener

A

both cause recurrent infxs and infertility but only Kartagener is assoc with situs inversus

54
Q

most common cause of SVC syndrome

A

2: non-Hodgkin lymphoma

bronchogenic carcinoma (mediastinal mass)

55
Q

SVC sx

A

impaired venous return from upper body- facial swelling, headache, visual disturbances.

dilated vessels of neck and trunk.

56
Q

TX of enterobiasis (pinworm)

A

perianal pruritus + Scotch tape test.

mebendazole/albendazole.
Pyrantel Pamoate in Pregos.

57
Q

gummas

A

necrotizing granulomas that occur on skin, mucosa, SQ tissue, bone and within organs in TERTIARY SYPHILIS

58
Q

positive VDRL and pleocytosis in CSF (LUMBAR PUNCTURE)

A

= NEUROSYPHILIS (tertiary)

59
Q

condyloma lata

A

large gray warty growths of secondary syphilis

60
Q

toxic component of LPS

A

lipid A: activates macrophages (IL-1, TNF-a) for septic shock

61
Q

vasopressin at V2 receptor

A

increases permeability of luminal membrane of inner medullary collecting duct to water and urea (increased REABSORPTION)

62
Q

complete vs. partial central DI

A

complete: more than 50% rise in urine osmolality with vasopressin admin.
partial: indicates that some vasopressin is present but not enough for normal kidney function.

63
Q

nonoxidative rxns of HMP shunt

A

transketolase and transaldolase

64
Q

unexplained oral thrush (Candida) in otherwise healthy person =

A

possible HIV infx

65
Q

elevated HbA2

A

beta thal minor (trait) and intermedia

beta globin chain underproduction causes decreased HbA1 synth

66
Q

most pronounced intestinal changes in celiac

A

duo and prox jejunum

67
Q

matched V/Q defect (ventilation defect is anatomically matched by perfusion defect)

A

indicates lung collapse or consolidation

68
Q

what parts of kidney suffer first with hypoxia?

A

proximal tubules and

thick ascending loop Henle

All subjects Q (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions