02.05 Hypertensive Vascular Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Most important risk factor for coronary artery disease and stroke

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Extent and velocity of shortening or force of contraction

A

Contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prime determinant of arterial pressure over the long term

A

Intravascular volume (TPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maintains pressure homeostasis via pressure, volume and chemoreceptor signals

A

Autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most potent vasoconstrictor

A

Angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common cause of secondary hypertension

A

Renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Due to obstruction of renal artery
Mechanism through activation of RAAS
Deterioration of renal function associated with an ACE-I/ARB/DRB

A

Renovascular hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Surgery is the only definitive treatment

A

Primary aldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common congenital cardiovascular cause of hypertension

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First-line agent

A

Diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inhibit NaCl pump in the distal convoluted tubule (inc. na secretion, diuresis, dec. sv, dec. CO)

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Very strong diuretic, usually reserved for renal insufficiency

A

Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Centrally acting sympathetic agonist

Useful for patients with autonomic neuropathy

A

Sympatholytic agents (clonidine, methyldopa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side effects include orthostatic HPN, somnolence, dry mouth, rebound HPN on withdrawal, secual dysfunction, myocarditis, thrombocytopenia, bradycardia, weakness

A

Sympatholytic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors
Used for phreochromocytoma
Not been shown or proven to reduce CV events

A

Alpha-blockers (Terasozin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blocks beta-adrenergic receptors
Good for tachycardic patients, palpitations, anxiety
Proven to reduce CV events in post-MI, CAD, CHF

A

Beta-blockers (metraprolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, carvediol)

17
Q

Side effects include bronchospasm, weakness, easy fatigue, bradycardia, AV block

A

Beta-blockers

18
Q

Directly dilates peripheral vessels

Usually in combination with diuretic or beta-blockers

A

Direct vasodilator (hydralazine)

19
Q

Decreases peripheral resistance by reducing intracellular calcium
Proven to reduce morbidity and mortality

A

Calcium channel blockers

20
Q

3 types of CCB

A

Phenylalkylamine (verapamil)
Benzothiazepine (Diltiazem)
Dihydropyridine (Nifedipine, amiodipine)

21
Q

Side effects include flushing, palpitations, headache, pedal edema, AV block

A

CCB

22
Q

Aldosterone antagonist

A

Spironolactone

23
Q

Very effective in primary hyperaldosteronism

A

RAAS blocker

24
Q

Side effects include gynecomastia, impotence, hyperkalemia

A

RAAS blocker

25
Q

Blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

ACE-I (catopril, enalapril)

26
Q

Side effects include cough and hyperkalemia

A

ACE-I

27
Q

Selective blocker of angiotensin I receptors

A

ARB (losartan, irbesartan, teimisartan)

28
Q

Selective blocker of renin

A

Direct renin inhibitor (aliskerin)