003 Urinary Tract Imaging - Basic Principles of CT, MRI, and Plain Film Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

Absorbed dose for therapy is measured in units called gray (Gy);
1 rad = __ = 1 centigray (cGy)

A

Absorbed dose for therapy is measured in units called gray (Gy);
1 rad = 0.01 Gy = 1 centigray (cGy)

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2
Q

The amount of energy absorbed by a tissue for diagnostic purposes is referred to as the __ and is measured in sievert (Sv). Exposure of the eyes and gonads to radiation has a more significant biologic impact than exposure of other parts of the body. The occupational safety limit is __. Exposure time during fluoroscopy should be minimized by the use of short bursts of fluoroscopy; positioning the image intensifier as close to the patient as feasible substantially reduces scatter radiation.

A

The amount of energy absorbed by a tissue for diagnostic purposes is referred to a the EQUIVALENT DOSE and is measured in sievert (Sv). Exposure of the eyes and gonads to radiation has a more significant biologic impact than exposure of other parts of the body. The occupational safety limit is 50 mSv. Exposure time during fluoroscopy should be minimized by the use of short bursts of fluoroscopy; positioning the image intensifier as close to the patient as feasible substantially reduces scatter radiation.

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3
Q

There are four basic types of iodinated contrast media:

  1. __
  2. __
  3. __
  4. __
A

There are four basic types of iodinated contrast media:

  1. IONIC MONOMER
  2. NONIONIC MONOMER
  3. IONIC DIMER
  4. NONIONIC DIMER
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4
Q

__ are potentially fatal, are not dose dependent, and are more common in patients with a history of adverse reactions to contrast media, those with asthma or diabetes, those with impaired renal and cardiac function, and those on beta-adrenergic blockers.

A

IA REACTIONS are potentially fatal, are not dose dependent, and are more common in patients with a history of adverse reactions to contrast media, those with asthma or diabetes, those with impaired renal and cardiac function, and those on beta-adrenergic blockers.

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5
Q

It is common to have __, __, __, __, __, and occasionally __ after administration of contrast media.

A

It is common to have NAUSEA, FLUSHING, PRURITUS, URTICARIA, HEADACHE, and occasionally EMESIS after administration of contrast media.

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6
Q

Patients at high risk for adverse allergic reactions should be medicated with __, given 12 to 24 hours before the injection of contrast media, as well as __.

A

Patients at high risk for adverse allergic reactions should be medicated with STEROIDS, given 12 to 24 hours before the injection of contrast media, as well as ANTIHISTAMINES.

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7
Q

For __, it is useful to dilute contrast media by half with sterile saline, which facilitates identifying filling defects in the collecting system. There is a low risk of contrast reactions in patients in whom a retrograde or loopogram is performed.

A

For RETROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY, it is useful to dilute contrast media by half with sterile saline, which facilitates identifying filling defects in the collecting system. There is a low risk of contrast reactions in patients in whom a retrograde or loopogram is performed.

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8
Q

__ does not need to be held before contrast administration in a patient with normal renal function and no comorbidities.

A

METFORMIN does not need to be held before contrast administration in a patient with normal renal function and no comorbidities.

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9
Q

The risk of developing __ is increased in patients with decreased renal function (GFR < 60mL/min), diabetes mellitus, dehydration, advanced age, congestive heart failure, liver disease, and cardiac ejection fraction less than 40%.

A

The risk of developing CONTRAST-INDUCED NEPHROPATHY is increased in patients with decreased renal function (GFR < 60mL/min), diabetes mellitus, dehydration, advanced age, congestive heart failure, liver disease, and cardiac ejection fraction less than 40%.

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10
Q

__ is primarily filtered by the glomerulus. It is a good agent to assess renal function.

A

TcDTPA is primarily filtered by the glomerulus. It is a good agent to assess renal function.

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11
Q

Because __ is both filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule, it localizes in the renal cortex and is a good agent for assessing cortical scarring and ectopic renal tissue.

A

Because TcDMSA is both filtered by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule, it localizes in the renal cortex and is a good agent for assessing cortical scarring and ectopic renal tissue.

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12
Q

__ is cleared mainly by tubular secretion; it has a limited ability to access renal function.

A

TcMAG3 is cleared mainly by tubular secretion; it has a limited ability to access renal function.

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13
Q

A T1/2 less than 10 minutes suggests an __. A T1/2 greater than 20 minutes is consistent with __.

A

A T1/2 less than 10 minutes suggests an UNOBSTRUCTED SYSTEM. A T1/2 greater than 20 minutes is consistent with RENAL OBSTRUCTION.

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14
Q

A positive bone scan is/is not specific for cancer. Moreover, the volume of cancer cannot be quantitated on bone scan. Patients with widely metastatic disease may have diffuse uptake (hyper scan) and no discrete lesions.

A

A positive bone scan IS NOT specific for cancer. Moreover, the volume of cancer cannot be quantitated on bone scan. Patients with widely metastatic disease may have diffuse uptake (hyper scan) and no discrete lesions.

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15
Q

__, __, and __ have been used as imaging agents for PET scans.

A

GLUCOSE, CHOLINE, and AMINO ACIDS have been used as imaging agents for PET scans.

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16
Q

__ is used as an imaging agent in PET scanning and takes advantage of the fact that tumors have increased glycolysis and decreased dephosphorylation. This scan is useful in testicular germ cell tumors, particularly seminomas, in determining residual viable tumor following chemotherapy.

A

18F-FLUORODEOXYGLUCOSE (FDG) is used as an imaging agent in PET scanning and takes advantage of the fact that tumors have increased glycolysis and decreased dephosphorylation. This scan is useful in testicular germ cell tumors, particularly seminomas, in determining residual viable tumor following chemotherapy.

17
Q

The Hounsfield units scale assigns a value of:
-1000 Hounsfield units for __
0 Hounsfield units for __
+1000 Hounsfield units for __

A

The Hounsfield units scale assigns a value of:
-1000 Hounsfield units for AIR
0 Hounsfield units for WATER
+1000 Hounsfield units for DENSE BONE

18
Q

With the exception of some indinavir stones, all renal and ureteral calculi may/may not be detected by helical CT.

A

With the exception of some indinavir stones, all renal and ureteral calculi MAY be detected by helical CT.

19
Q

The advantage of MRI is high-contrast resolution of __ on T1-weighted images; on T2-weighted images, __ has a high signal and appears bright. Gadolinium increases the brightness of T1-weighted images. Hemorrhage within a cyst results in a high signal on T1-weighted images. MRI is the imaging modality of choice for patients with iodine contrast allergies.

A

The advantage of MRI is high-contrast resolution of SOFT TISSUE on T1-weighted images; on T2-weighted images, FLUID has a high signal and appears bright. Gadolinium increases the brightness of T1-weighted images. Hemorrhage within a cyst results in a high signal on T1-weighted images. MRI is the imaging modality of choice for patients with iodine contrast allergies.

20
Q

The risk of developing NSF after gadolinium administration is increased in patients with GFRs less than __.

A

The risk of developing NSF after gadolinium administration is increased in patients with GFRs less than 30 mL/min.

21
Q

Adrenal adenomas have high lipid content and may be differentiated from adrenal cancers or metastatic disease by __.

A

Adrenal adenomas have high lipid content and may be differentiated from adrenal cancers or metastatic disease by SPECIALIZED CT OR MRI SCANS.

22
Q

__ of pheochromocytomas do not enhance on T2-weighted images.

A

35% of pheochromocytomas do not enhance on T2-weighted images.

23
Q

__ and __ are excellent imaging studies to determine the presence and extent of renal vein and vena cava tumor thrombus. Uptake of gadolinium by the thrombus on MRI differentiates tumor from bland (blood clot) thrombus.

A

MRI and CT are excellent imaging studies to determine the presence and extent of renal vein and vena cava tumor thrombus. Uptake of gadolinium by the thrombus on MRI differentiates tumor from bland (blood clot) thrombus.

24
Q

Prostate MRI coupled with an assessment of __ increases the diagnostic accuracy for detecting cancer.

A

Prostate MRI coupled with an assessment of DYNAMIC CONTRAST UPTAKE AND WASHOUT increases the diagnostic accuracy for detecting cancer.

25
Q

MR spetroscopy for prostate cancer is based on decreased __ levels and increased __ and __ levels.

A

MR spetroscopy for prostate cancer is based on decreased CITRATE levels and increased CREATINE and CHOLINE levels.

26
Q

Bladder filling in patients with spinal cord injuries higher than T6 may precipitate __.

A

Bladder filling in patients with spinal cord injuries higher than T6 may precipitate AUTONOMIC DYSREFLEXIA.

27
Q

Radiation exposure diminishes/increases as the square of the distance from the radiation source.

A

Radiation exposure DIMINISHES as the square of the distance from the radiation source.