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MLA - Pharmacology Revision > Yr3 Drugs List > Flashcards

Yr3 Drugs List Flashcards

1
Q

Which drugs are ACEIs?

A

Ramipril
Lisinopril
Enalapril

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2
Q

Which drugs are ARBs?

A

Candesartan
Losartan

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3
Q

Which drugs are α blockers?

A

Doxazosin

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4
Q

Which drugs are β blockers?

A

Bisoprolol
Propanolol
Carvediol

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5
Q

Which drugs are calcium channel blockers?

A

Amlodipine
Diltiazem
Verapamil

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6
Q

Which drugs are loop diuretics?

A

Furosemide
Bumetanide

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7
Q

Which drugs are thiazide like diuretics?

A

Indapamide

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8
Q

Which drugs are thiazide diuretics?

A

Bendroflumethazide

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9
Q

Which drugs are potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Amiloride
Spironalactone

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10
Q

direct acting vasodilators?

A

Sodium Nitroprusside

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11
Q

Which drugs are nitrates?

A

GTN
Isosorbide mononitrate

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12
Q

Which drugs are vasopressin analogues?

A

Terlipressin

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13
Q

Cardiac glycoside?

A

Digoxin

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14
Q

Class I Antiarrhythmic?

A

Flecanide - Na channel blocker

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15
Q

Class II Antiarrhythmic?

A

Atenolol - β blocker

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16
Q

Class III Antiarrhythmic?

A

Amiodarone, Dronedarone - K channel blocker

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17
Q

Class IV Antiarrhythmic?

A

Verapamil - Ca channel blocker

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18
Q

Other anti arrhythmic?

A

Adenosine

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19
Q

Heparins?

A

Unfractionated heparin

LMWH = Dalteparin, Tinzaparin, Enoxaparin

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20
Q

Factor Xa Inhibitors?

A

Edoxaban
Apixaban
Rivaroxaban

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21
Q

Thrombin Inhibitors

A

Dabigatran

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22
Q

Vitamin K antagonist

A

Warfarin

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23
Q

Parenteral anticoagulant - Factor Xa inhibitor

A

Fondaparinux

Inhibitors FXa but is not a DOAC.

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24
Q

Thrombolytic agents

A

Alteplase
Tenecteplase

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25
Q

COX1 Inhibitor (Antiplatelet)

A

Aspirin

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26
Q

ADP receptor antagonist (aka P2Y12 Inhibitor) (Antiplatelet)

A

Clopidogrel
Ticagrelor
Prasugrel

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27
Q

G2b3a Inhibitor

A

Abciximab

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28
Q

Statins

A

Simvastatin
Atorvastatin

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29
Q

Fibrates

A

Bezafibrate

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30
Q

Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor

A

Ezetimibe

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31
Q

Drugs for anaemia

A

Ferrous sulphate
Folic acid
Vit B12

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32
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (xanthine derivatives)

A

Theophylline

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33
Q

Short acting β 2 agonist

A

Salbutamol

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34
Q

Long acting β 2 agonist

A

Formoterol
Salmeterol

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35
Q

Muscarinic antagonists for bronchodilation

A

Aclidinium bromide
Ipratropium bromide
Tiotropium

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36
Q

LTRAs

A

Montelukast

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37
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Beclamethasone
Betamethasone
Budesonide
Dexamethasone
Fluticasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone

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38
Q

Mineralcorticoid

A

Fludrocortisone

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39
Q

Anticholinergics (antimuscarinics)

A

Atropine
Solifenacin

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40
Q

Anticholinesterase

A

Pyridostigmine

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41
Q

α + β receptor agonists

A

Adrenaline (Epinephrine)

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42
Q

Local anaesthetic

A

Lidocaine

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43
Q

IV anaesthetic

A

Propofol

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44
Q

Inhaled anaesthetics

A

Halogenated ether

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45
Q

Dopamine precursor

A

Levodopa

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46
Q

Dopamine precursor + decarboxylase inhibitor

A

Co-careldopa (Levodopa + Carbidopa)

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47
Q

Dopamine agonist

A

Ropinirole

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48
Q

MAO-B Inhibitors

A

Rasagiline

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49
Q

COMPT Inhibitors

A

Entacapone

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50
Q

Other antiparkinson meds

A

Amantadine

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51
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

A

Donepezil

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52
Q

NMDA Receptor Antagonist

A

Memantine

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53
Q

Antiepileptics

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Diazepam
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Sodium Valproate

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54
Q

Tricyclic AD

A

Amitriptyline

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55
Q

SSRIs

A

Citalopram
Fluoxetine
Sertraline

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56
Q

SNRIs

A

Duloxetine
Venlafaxine

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57
Q

Tetracyclic AD

A

Mirtazapine

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58
Q

Typical AP

A

Haloperidol
Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine

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59
Q

Atypical APs

A

Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Lurasidone
Olanzipine
Paliperidone
Quetiapine
Risperidone

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60
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
Lorazepam

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61
Q

Sedatives (non-benzo)

A

Zopiclone
Zolpidem
Melatonin

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62
Q

Benzodiazepine antagonist

A

Flumazenil

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63
Q

Barbituates

A

Phenobarbital

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64
Q

Mood stabiliser

A

Lithium
Sodium valproate

65
Q

Opioids

A

Codeine phosphate
Morphine sulphate
Methadone
Oxycodone
Tramadol
Buprenorphine

66
Q

Non-selective NSAIDs

A

Aspirin
Diclofenac
Ibuprofen
Naproxen

67
Q

COX2 Inhibitors

A

Etoricoxib

68
Q

Other analgesics

A

Paracetamol

69
Q

Neuropathic agents

A

Amitriptyline
Capsaicin (topical)
Duloxetine
Gabapentin
Morphine
Pregabalin
Tramadol

70
Q

Paracetamol Reversal Agent

A

N-acetylcysteine

71
Q

Opioid Antagonist

A

Naloxone

72
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Alendronic acid
Disodium pamidronate
Zolendronic acid

73
Q

HRT

A

Oestrogen
Progesterone-only
Combined hormonal contraceptive

74
Q

Thyroid hormone

A

Levothyroxine

75
Q

Antithyroid drugs

A

Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil

76
Q

PTH analogues

A

Teriparatide

77
Q

Insulins

A

Short
Intermediate
Long acting

78
Q

Sulfonylurea

A

Gliclazide

79
Q

Biguanide

A

MetforminSG

80
Q

SGLT2 Inhibitors

A

Dapagliflozin

81
Q

GLP1 Agonists

A

Dulaglutide
Exenatide

82
Q

DPP4 Inhibitors

A

Linagliptin
Sitagliptin

83
Q

PPIs

A

Omeprazole
Lansoprazole

84
Q

Antacids

A

Sodium alginate + calcium carbonate and Na carbonate

85
Q

MOA of Metoclopramide, Haloperidol and Domperiodone

A

D2 receptor antagonists (act on CTZ)

86
Q

MOA of Ondansetron?

A

5HT3 Receptor antagonist - acts on GIT and CTZ

87
Q

MOA of Cyclizine & Promethazine?

A

H1 receptor blocker - acts on the higher cortical structures that feed to the vomiting centre

88
Q

Other additional anti emetic drugs?

A

Levomepromazine
Betahistine dihydrochloride

89
Q

Which APs can also act as anti-emetics?

A

Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol

90
Q

What are the AEs of the H1R antagonists Cyclizine & Promethazine?

A

Drowsiness, confusion, constipation, urinary retention (antic-cholinergic)

91
Q

What are the AEs of the 5HT3R antagonist Ondansetron?

A

QT prolongation (CI in Ps with QTc prolongation), headache, dizziness, constipation

92
Q

What are the AE of D2R antagonists such as metoclopramide, haloperidol or domperidone?

A

AE = disorders of movement, fatigue, spasmodic torticollis, motor restlessness. CI – Gi haemorrhage, mechanical obstruction, neuroepilepsy Hx, metoclopramide tardive dyskinesia, Parkinson’s or Ps already on levodopa or dopaminergic agonists.

93
Q

Stimulant laxative

A

Senna
Glycerol suppositories

94
Q

Stool softener + stimulant

A

Docusate sodium

95
Q

Other antiemetics

A

Promethazine
Levomepromazine

96
Q

Bulk forming laxative

A

Ispaghula husk

97
Q

Lymphocyte signalling (immunosuppressants)

A

Ciclosporin

98
Q

Antimetabolites (immunosuppressants)

A

Azathioprine
Methotrexate
Mycophenolate mofetil

99
Q

Bowel cleansing preparations

A

Macrogol + anhydrous sodium sulfate
+ Potassium chloride
+ Sodium bicarbonate
+ Sodium chloride

100
Q

Purine analogue (immunosuppressant)

A

Mercaptopurine

101
Q

Osmotic laxatives

A

Lactulose
Macrogol
Sodium phosphate enemas

102
Q

Aminosalicylic acid (immunosuppressant)

A

Mesalazines
Sulfasalazine

103
Q

What is the mode of action of Infliximab & Adalimumab?

A

TNF-α inhibitors (immunosuppressants)

104
Q

What is the mode of action of Tocilizumab?

A

IL-6 receptor inhibitor (immunosuppressant)

105
Q

What is the mode of action of Omalizumab?

A

Anti-IgE monocolonal AB (immunosuppressant)

106
Q

What is the mode of action of Rituximab?

A

Anti-CD20 monocolonal AB (immunosuppressant)

107
Q

Pancreatic enzymes (for malabsorption)

A

Pancreatin
Creol

108
Q

Bile acid therapy for gall stones

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

109
Q

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor (antigout drugs)

A

Allopurinol

110
Q

Alkaloids (antigout drugs)

A

Colchicine

111
Q

Rank Ligand Inhibitors

A

Denosumab

112
Q

Vitamin B analogue

A

Pabrinex (B1, B2 & B6)

113
Q

Vitamin D analogue

A

Cholecalciferol

114
Q

H1 receptor blocker - antihistamine

A

Chlorphenamine
Cetirizine
Cyclizine
Loratadine
Promethazine

115
Q

H2 receptor blockers - acid-peptic disease

A

Famotidine
Nizatidine

116
Q

Penicillins (β lactam)

A

Amoxicillin
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Flucloxacillin

117
Q

β lactam AB + β lactamase inhibitor

A

Co-amoxiclav

118
Q

Glycopeptide Abxs

A

Vancomycin

119
Q

Cephalosporins (Abx)

A

Cephalexin
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime

120
Q

Tetracyclines (Abx)

A

Doxycycline

121
Q

Macrolides (Abx)

A

Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

122
Q

Aminoglycosides (Abr)

A

Gentamicin

123
Q

Quinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin

124
Q

Nitromidazole

A

Metronidazole

125
Q

Other Abx

A

Nitrofurantoin
Chloramphenicol

126
Q

Antifungals

A

Fluconazole
Amphotericin B

127
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (antivirals)

A

Entecavir
Tenofovir

128
Q

Nucleotide analogues (antivirals)

A

Aciclovir

129
Q

Hepatitis C Rx

A

DAAs

130
Q

Depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs

A

Succinylcholine

131
Q

Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs

A

Rocuronium

132
Q

Progesterone receptor modulators (termination of pregnancy)

A

Mifepristone

133
Q

Prostaglandin analogue (termination of pregnancy)

A

Misoprostol

134
Q
A
135
Q

Which drugs affect the atrial muscle?

A

Flecainide
Bisoprolol
Amiodarone

136
Q

Which drugs affect the AVN?

A

Bisoprolol
Verapamil
Dilitiazem
Amiodarone
Digoxin
Adenosine

137
Q

Which drugs affect the LV muscle?

A

Magnesium
Flecanide
Bisprolol
Amiodarone

138
Q

Which drugs affect accessory pathways?

A

Flecanide
Amiodarone

139
Q

What is the MOA of Rituximab?

A

Monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 on B lymphocytes and triggers cell death - used as immunotherapy in haematological cancer.

140
Q

Why are steroids used in malignancy?

A

They can trigger cell death in malignant cells.

141
Q

What are Trastuzumab and Pertuzumab used for?

A

Are HER2 inhibitors
Used for HER2 positive breast cancer disease.

142
Q

What does Tamoxifen do?

A

Is a competitive inhibitor of oestrogen receptor - used for ER+ve breast cancer.Wh

143
Q

What does Fulvestrant do?

A

Causes degradation of oestrogen receptors (used for ER+ve breast cancer).

144
Q

Which antiemetic can be given for raised ICP?

A

Cyclizine + high dose steroids (8mg BD dexamethasone)

145
Q

Which antiemetic can be used for hypercalcaemia of malignancy?

A

Haloperidol (+ IVI and bisphosphonates)

146
Q

Which antiemetic is most commonly used for chemo induced nausea?

A

Ondansetron

147
Q

Which antiemetic is good for gastric outlet obstruction?

A

Metoclopramide (speeds up kinetics of the bowel)

148
Q

Which antiemetic is used in complete bowel obstruction?

A

Haloperidol
Cyclizine

Dont use metoclopramide or any pro kinetic

149
Q

What is the MOA of Cisplatin?

A

Alkylating agent of DNA

150
Q

What is the MOA of methotrexate?

A

Is an anti-metabolite. Interferes with DNA synthesis in S phase.

151
Q

What is the MOA of tamoxifen?

A

Oestrogen receptor antagonist - therefore inhibits oestrogen receptors and stops growth of oestrogen dependant cancers.

152
Q

What is the MOA of Vemurafenib?

A

Blocks the V600E BRAF kinase.

Used in melanoma and lung cancer

153
Q

What is the MOA of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?

A

Binds and blocks activity to the HER2 protein - some breast cancers have lots of these receptors which inc division and growth of tumours.

154
Q

What is the MOA of Imatinib?

A

Inhibits EGFR Tyrosine Kinases that are involved in proliferation, invasion, metastasis, angiogenesis and inhibition of apoptosis.

155
Q

What is the MOA of Nivolumab?

A

PD-L1 = programmed death ligand produced by certain tumours - which suppressors T-cell induced death of the tumour cells.

Nivolumab - targets PD-1 and blocks the PD-L1 interaction - means that T-cell induced tumour death can now occur.

Therefore is an immune checkpoint inhibitor.

156
Q

What is the MOA of Ipilumbab?

A

Blocks CTLA4 - which is harvested by tumours to downregulate T-cell response. Therefore restores T-cell function.

157
Q

Which immunologhical treatment is used for cervical cancer?

A

Bevacizumab

158
Q

What is the MOA of Bevacizumab?

A

Stops angiogenesis to the tumour - inhibits binding of VGEF) - thus inc permeability of tumour and increases effect of chemotherapeutic agents.

159
Q
A

MLA - Pharmacology Revision (17 decks)

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