Yr3 Drugs List Flashcards
1
Q
Which drugs are ACEIs?
A
Ramipril
Lisinopril
Enalapril
2
Q
Which drugs are ARBs?
A
Candesartan
Losartan
3
Q
Which drugs are α blockers?
A
Doxazosin
4
Q
Which drugs are β blockers?
A
Bisoprolol
Propanolol
Carvediol
5
Q
Which drugs are calcium channel blockers?
A
Amlodipine
Diltiazem
Verapamil
6
Q
Which drugs are loop diuretics?
A
Furosemide
Bumetanide
7
Q
Which drugs are thiazide like diuretics?
A
Indapamide
8
Q
Which drugs are thiazide diuretics?
A
Bendroflumethazide
9
Q
Which drugs are potassium sparing diuretics?
A
Amiloride
Spironalactone
10
Q
direct acting vasodilators?
A
Sodium Nitroprusside
11
Q
Which drugs are nitrates?
A
GTN
Isosorbide mononitrate
12
Q
Which drugs are vasopressin analogues?
A
Terlipressin
13
Q
Cardiac glycoside?
A
Digoxin
14
Q
Class I Antiarrhythmic?
A
Flecanide - Na channel blocker
15
Q
Class II Antiarrhythmic?
A
Atenolol - β blocker
16
Q
Class III Antiarrhythmic?
A
Amiodarone, Dronedarone - K channel blocker
17
Q
Class IV Antiarrhythmic?
A
Verapamil - Ca channel blocker
18
Q
Other anti arrhythmic?
A
Adenosine
19
Q
Heparins?
A
Unfractionated heparin
LMWH = Dalteparin, Tinzaparin, Enoxaparin
20
Q
Factor Xa Inhibitors?
A
Edoxaban
Apixaban
Rivaroxaban
21
Q
Thrombin Inhibitors
A
Dabigatran
22
Q
Vitamin K antagonist
A
Warfarin
23
Q
Parenteral anticoagulant - Factor Xa inhibitor
A
Fondaparinux
Inhibitors FXa but is not a DOAC.
24
Q
Thrombolytic agents
A
Alteplase
Tenecteplase
25
COX1 Inhibitor (Antiplatelet)
Aspirin
26
ADP receptor antagonist (aka P2Y12 Inhibitor) (Antiplatelet)
Clopidogrel
Ticagrelor
Prasugrel
27
G2b3a Inhibitor
Abciximab
28
Statins
Simvastatin
Atorvastatin
29
Fibrates
Bezafibrate
30
Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor
Ezetimibe
31
Drugs for anaemia
Ferrous sulphate
Folic acid
Vit B12
32
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (xanthine derivatives)
Theophylline
33
Short acting β 2 agonist
Salbutamol
34
Long acting β 2 agonist
Formoterol
Salmeterol
35
Muscarinic antagonists for bronchodilation
Aclidinium bromide
Ipratropium bromide
Tiotropium
36
LTRAs
Montelukast
37
Glucocorticoids
Beclamethasone
Betamethasone
Budesonide
Dexamethasone
Fluticasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone
38
Mineralcorticoid
Fludrocortisone
39
Anticholinergics (antimuscarinics)
Atropine
Solifenacin
40
Anticholinesterase
Pyridostigmine
41
α + β receptor agonists
Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
42
Local anaesthetic
Lidocaine
43
IV anaesthetic
Propofol
44
Inhaled anaesthetics
Halogenated ether
45
Dopamine precursor
Levodopa
46
Dopamine precursor + decarboxylase inhibitor
Co-careldopa (Levodopa + Carbidopa)
47
Dopamine agonist
Ropinirole
48
MAO-B Inhibitors
Rasagiline
49
COMPT Inhibitors
Entacapone
50
Other antiparkinson meds
Amantadine
51
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
Donepezil
52
NMDA Receptor Antagonist
Memantine
53
Antiepileptics
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Gabapentin
Pregabalin
Diazepam
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Sodium Valproate
54
Tricyclic AD
Amitriptyline
55
SSRIs
Citalopram
Fluoxetine
Sertraline
56
SNRIs
Duloxetine
Venlafaxine
57
Tetracyclic AD
Mirtazapine
58
Typical AP
Haloperidol
Chlorpromazine
Prochlorperazine
59
Atypical APs
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Lurasidone
Olanzipine
Paliperidone
Quetiapine
Risperidone
60
Benzodiazepines
Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
Lorazepam
61
Sedatives (non-benzo)
Zopiclone
Zolpidem
Melatonin
62
Benzodiazepine antagonist
Flumazenil
63
Barbituates
Phenobarbital
64
Mood stabiliser
Lithium
Sodium valproate
65
Opioids
Codeine phosphate
Morphine sulphate
Methadone
Oxycodone
Tramadol
Buprenorphine
66
Non-selective NSAIDs
Aspirin
Diclofenac
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
67
COX2 Inhibitors
Etoricoxib
68
Other analgesics
Paracetamol
69
Neuropathic agents
Amitriptyline
Capsaicin (topical)
Duloxetine
Gabapentin
Morphine
Pregabalin
Tramadol
70
Paracetamol Reversal Agent
N-acetylcysteine
71
Opioid Antagonist
Naloxone
72
Bisphosphonates
Alendronic acid
Disodium pamidronate
Zolendronic acid
73
HRT
Oestrogen
Progesterone-only
Combined hormonal contraceptive
74
Thyroid hormone
Levothyroxine
75
Antithyroid drugs
Carbimazole
Propylthiouracil
76
PTH analogues
Teriparatide
77
Insulins
Short
Intermediate
Long acting
78
Sulfonylurea
Gliclazide
79
Biguanide
MetforminSG
80
SGLT2 Inhibitors
Dapagliflozin
81
GLP1 Agonists
Dulaglutide
Exenatide
82
DPP4 Inhibitors
Linagliptin
Sitagliptin
83
PPIs
Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
84
Antacids
Sodium alginate + calcium carbonate and Na carbonate
85
MOA of Metoclopramide, Haloperidol and Domperiodone
D2 receptor antagonists (act on CTZ)
86
MOA of Ondansetron?
5HT3 Receptor antagonist - acts on GIT and CTZ
87
MOA of Cyclizine & Promethazine?
H1 receptor blocker - acts on the higher cortical structures that feed to the vomiting centre
88
Other additional anti emetic drugs?
Levomepromazine
Betahistine dihydrochloride
89
Which APs can also act as anti-emetics?
Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
90
What are the AEs of the H1R antagonists Cyclizine & Promethazine?
Drowsiness, confusion, constipation, urinary retention (antic-cholinergic)
91
What are the AEs of the 5HT3R antagonist Ondansetron?
QT prolongation (CI in Ps with QTc prolongation), headache, dizziness, constipation
92
What are the AE of D2R antagonists such as metoclopramide, haloperidol or domperidone?
AE = disorders of movement, fatigue, spasmodic torticollis, motor restlessness. CI – Gi haemorrhage, mechanical obstruction, neuroepilepsy Hx, metoclopramide tardive dyskinesia, Parkinson’s or Ps already on levodopa or dopaminergic agonists.
93
Stimulant laxative
Senna
Glycerol suppositories
94
Stool softener + stimulant
Docusate sodium
95
Other antiemetics
Promethazine
Levomepromazine
96
Bulk forming laxative
Ispaghula husk
97
Lymphocyte signalling (immunosuppressants)
Ciclosporin
98
Antimetabolites (immunosuppressants)
Azathioprine
Methotrexate
Mycophenolate mofetil
99
Bowel cleansing preparations
Macrogol + anhydrous sodium sulfate
+ Potassium chloride
+ Sodium bicarbonate
+ Sodium chloride
100
Purine analogue (immunosuppressant)
Mercaptopurine
101
Osmotic laxatives
Lactulose
Macrogol
Sodium phosphate enemas
102
Aminosalicylic acid (immunosuppressant)
Mesalazines
Sulfasalazine
103
What is the mode of action of Infliximab & Adalimumab?
TNF-α inhibitors (immunosuppressants)
104
What is the mode of action of Tocilizumab?
IL-6 receptor inhibitor (immunosuppressant)
105
What is the mode of action of Omalizumab?
Anti-IgE monocolonal AB (immunosuppressant)
106
What is the mode of action of Rituximab?
Anti-CD20 monocolonal AB (immunosuppressant)
107
Pancreatic enzymes (for malabsorption)
Pancreatin
Creol
108
Bile acid therapy for gall stones
Ursodeoxycholic acid
109
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor (antigout drugs)
Allopurinol
110
Alkaloids (antigout drugs)
Colchicine
111
Rank Ligand Inhibitors
Denosumab
112
Vitamin B analogue
Pabrinex (B1, B2 & B6)
113
Vitamin D analogue
Cholecalciferol
114
H1 receptor blocker - antihistamine
Chlorphenamine
Cetirizine
Cyclizine
Loratadine
Promethazine
115
H2 receptor blockers - acid-peptic disease
Famotidine
Nizatidine
116
Penicillins (β lactam)
Amoxicillin
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Flucloxacillin
117
β lactam AB + β lactamase inhibitor
Co-amoxiclav
118
Glycopeptide Abxs
Vancomycin
119
Cephalosporins (Abx)
Cephalexin
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime
120
Tetracyclines (Abx)
Doxycycline
121
Macrolides (Abx)
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
122
Aminoglycosides (Abr)
Gentamicin
123
Quinolones
Ciprofloxacin
124
Nitromidazole
Metronidazole
125
Other Abx
Nitrofurantoin
Chloramphenicol
126
Antifungals
Fluconazole
Amphotericin B
127
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (antivirals)
Entecavir
Tenofovir
128
Nucleotide analogues (antivirals)
Aciclovir
129
Hepatitis C Rx
DAAs
130
Depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Succinylcholine
131
Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Rocuronium
132
Progesterone receptor modulators (termination of pregnancy)
Mifepristone
133
Prostaglandin analogue (termination of pregnancy)
Misoprostol
134
135
Which drugs affect the atrial muscle?
Flecainide
Bisoprolol
Amiodarone
136
Which drugs affect the AVN?
Bisoprolol
Verapamil
Dilitiazem
Amiodarone
Digoxin
Adenosine
137
Which drugs affect the LV muscle?
Magnesium
Flecanide
Bisprolol
Amiodarone
138
Which drugs affect accessory pathways?
Flecanide
Amiodarone
139
What is the MOA of Rituximab?
Monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 on B lymphocytes and triggers cell death - used as immunotherapy in haematological cancer.
140
Why are steroids used in malignancy?
They can trigger cell death in malignant cells.
141
What are Trastuzumab and Pertuzumab used for?
Are HER2 inhibitors
Used for HER2 positive breast cancer disease.
142
What does Tamoxifen do?
Is a competitive inhibitor of oestrogen receptor - used for ER+ve breast cancer.Wh
143
What does Fulvestrant do?
Causes degradation of oestrogen receptors (used for ER+ve breast cancer).
144
Which antiemetic can be given for raised ICP?
Cyclizine + high dose steroids (8mg BD dexamethasone)
145
Which antiemetic can be used for hypercalcaemia of malignancy?
Haloperidol (+ IVI and bisphosphonates)
146
Which antiemetic is most commonly used for chemo induced nausea?
Ondansetron
147
Which antiemetic is good for gastric outlet obstruction?
Metoclopramide (speeds up kinetics of the bowel)
148
Which antiemetic is used in complete bowel obstruction?
Haloperidol
Cyclizine
Dont use metoclopramide or any pro kinetic
149
What is the MOA of Cisplatin?
Alkylating agent of DNA
150
What is the MOA of methotrexate?
Is an anti-metabolite. Interferes with DNA synthesis in S phase.
151
What is the MOA of tamoxifen?
Oestrogen receptor antagonist - therefore inhibits oestrogen receptors and stops growth of oestrogen dependant cancers.
152
What is the MOA of Vemurafenib?
Blocks the V600E BRAF kinase.
Used in melanoma and lung cancer
153
What is the MOA of Trastuzumab (Herceptin)?
Binds and blocks activity to the HER2 protein - some breast cancers have lots of these receptors which inc division and growth of tumours.
154
What is the MOA of Imatinib?
Inhibits EGFR Tyrosine Kinases that are involved in proliferation, invasion, metastasis, angiogenesis and inhibition of apoptosis.
155
What is the MOA of Nivolumab?
PD-L1 = programmed death ligand produced by certain tumours - which suppressors T-cell induced death of the tumour cells.
Nivolumab - targets PD-1 and blocks the PD-L1 interaction - means that T-cell induced tumour death can now occur.
Therefore is an immune checkpoint inhibitor.
156
What is the MOA of Ipilumbab?
Blocks CTLA4 - which is harvested by tumours to downregulate T-cell response. Therefore restores T-cell function.
157
Which immunologhical treatment is used for cervical cancer?
Bevacizumab
158
What is the MOA of Bevacizumab?
Stops angiogenesis to the tumour - inhibits binding of VGEF) - thus inc permeability of tumour and increases effect of chemotherapeutic agents.
159
