Heart Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mode of action of Lidocaine?

A

Inactivates Na gated channels in both nerves AND cardiac muscle

Therefore decreases conduction.

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2
Q

What are the side effects of lidocaine?

A

CNS activation / depression
Hypotension

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3
Q

How is lidocaine administered?

A

Is not orally active so has to be given by injection
Metabolised by liver
1/2 life = 90-120 mins

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4
Q

Describe the 4 phases of the cardiac cycle

A

Phase 0 – rapid depolarisation due to voltage-gated Na+ channels opening – Na+ flows into myocyte.
Phase 1 – initial repolarisation – Na+ channels close, DRKC open – K+ leaves myocyte
Phase 2 – plateau – Ca2+ channels opened (time and voltage dependent) – Ca2+ in = K+ leaving. Ca channels stay open until end of plateau phase when they start to close.
Phase 3 – rapid repolarisation – Ca2+ channels closed, DRKC open, K+ leaves – myocyte repolarises.
Phase 4 – resting potential – K+ leaves myocyte through IRKC

K+ channels – are 2 types = inward rectifier K+ channels and delayed rectifier K+ channels.
- Inward rectifier K+ channels (IRKC) = maintain resting Vm until AP. Open when Vm <-60mV. Function – to clamp the Vm at rest by letting K+ out of cell, repolarising it.
- Delayed rectifier K+ channels (DRKC) = part of AP – open when membrane depolarises and closes after time delay = is both voltage and time dependent.

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5
Q
A
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6
Q

How do β blockers affect the nodes?

A

They slow spontaneous depolarisation of cardiac tissue

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7
Q

Which drugs are considered Class I in the VW classification?

A

Class I = Fast channel blockers

Disopyramide
Lidocaine
Flecanide

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8
Q

Which drugs are considered Class II in the VW classification?

A

Class II = Β blockers

Bisoprolol
Atenolol

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9
Q

Which drugs are considered Class III in the VW classification?

A

K+ channel blockers

Amiodarone

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10
Q

Which drugs are considered Class IV in the VW classification?

A

Ca Channel Blockers

Verapamil
Diltiazem

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11
Q

How do Class 1 agents selectively inhibit tachycardias?

A

They bind strongly when the channel is open or inactive (not resting).

Therefore the more frequently the channel is open (e.g. in tachycardia) - the greater the block.

Thus they inhibit tachycardia but allow normal HR

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12
Q

What is the difference between class 1 drugs?

A
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13
Q

What is flecanide used for?

A

Paroxysmal AF
AVRT
WPW

Slows condition in accessory pathways
Stabilises atria

DONT USE FOR VENTRICULAR ARRHYTHMIAS

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14
Q

What are the SEs of flecanide?

A

Can be pro-arrhythmic - do Echo prior to starting to check for abnormalities

Increases pacing thresholds - do pacemaker check before prescribing

Dizziness
Blurred vision
(Because it acts on neurological tissue as well as heart tissue)

Do ECG before starting and changing dose

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15
Q

Is amiodarone lipo-phillic or lipo-phobic?

A

Lipiophillic - highly - concentrates in the fat in the body

Means it has a LONG half life!

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16
Q

What is the loading dose of amiodarone?

A

200mg TDS - 1 week
200 mg BD - 1 week
200mg OD

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17
Q

Which molecule does amiodarone contain?

A

Iodine

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18
Q

How does amiodarone work?

A

Blocks ion channels inc delayed rectifier K+ channels = prolonged action potential (delays Phase III depolarisation)

Stabilises atrial and ventricular myocytes
Slows AV node conduction
Blocks accessory pathways

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19
Q

What are the side effects of amiodarone?

A

Lots!
Inc blue grey skin

Initially it causes pneumonitis which can progress to fibrosis

Iodine - important in thyroid hormone - can cause hyper and hypo thyroid

Secreted in tears - can become deposited on the cornea and cause keratitis. Can cause visual problems at night

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20
Q

How often should Ps on amiodarone be monitored?

A
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21
Q

What can amiodarone be used for?

A

AF - when other medication has failed to control

Malignant ventricular arrhythmias

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22
Q

Apart from amiodarone, which other Class III agent can be used for arrhythmias?

A

Dronedarone

Not used very often - used as an alternative to amiodarone when they can’t tolerate it - much less effective than amiodarone

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23
Q

What are the following receptors in the adrenergic system responsible for?
- α 1
- α 2
- β 1
- β 2

A
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24
Q

Which drug is first line for most tachyarrhythmias?

A

β blockers

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25
Q

What can β blockers be used for?

A

Tachyarrhythmias
Ectopic beats
VF
VT
SVT
AF

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26
Q

How do calcium channel blockers work?

A

They block calcium channels = less intracellular calcium

=>
Smooth muscle relaxation
Decreased force of cardiac contraction
Decreased AV node conduction

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27
Q

When are calcium channel blockers contraindicated?

A

Severe left ventricular dysfunction = dont want to reduce the force of contraction that you have?

Their use is limited to structurally and functionally normal hearts

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28
Q
A
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29
Q

When are Verapamil and Diltiazem used?

A

Not effective for ventricular arrhythmias
Only used for supraventricular arrhythmias

Mainly - AF - slows ventricular rate by blocking the AVN.

Also used for SVT - IV Verapamil is 2nd line (not if on β blocker or has HF). Oral V or D used to prevent SVT.

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30
Q

How does Adenosine work?

A

Blocks the AV node conduction via the A1 receptor

Used IV to terminate SVT

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31
Q

What is adenosine used to treat?

A

SVTs - given rapid IV

Will terminate - AVNRT, atrioventricular tachycardia

Will temporarily slow & reveal - atrial tachycardia & atrial flutter

Will reveal occult accessory pathways

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32
Q

What are the side effects of adenosine?

A

Nasty drug - slows the heart aggressively and causes marked vasodilation and poss bronchoconstriction, Ps feel like they are dying for about 20 seconds

  • chest tightness, breathlessness, dizziness, nausea, hypotension (from vasodilation)
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33
Q

When is adenosine contra indicated?

A

In asthmatic patients - because it causes bronchoconstriction

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34
Q

How does atropine work?

A

Is a competitive antagonist of ACh muscarinic receptors (M1 - M5)

Cardiac action - blocks M2 receptors - increases SAN rate and AV conduction - increases HR.

Does the opposite of adenosine

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35
Q

What is atropine used for?

A

Sinus bradycardia
2nd or 3rd degree HB at the AVN (i.e. narrow complex).

Does not work for HB below the AVN - only works on conduction tissue at the AVN level or above.

If broad complex - atropine will not work.

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36
Q

Why do Ps who have an inferior MI often become bradycardia?

A

Because the RCA that causes inferior infarcts supplies the SAN and AVN

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37
Q

How does isoprenaline work?

A

Is a non-selective β agonist

  • inc HR, force of contraction and vasodilator
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38
Q

What is isoprenaline used for?

A

2nd / 3rd degree HB below the AVN

I.e. HB with broad complexes

Only ever given as a bridge to a pacemaker

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39
Q

Which channel is the one responsible for cardiac auto-tonicity?

A

If channel (funny channel)

Uses a large Na+ current inward and tiny K+ current outward

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40
Q

Which drug is used as a specific blocker of the If current - therefore acts solely on the SAN to reduce HR?

A

Ivabradine

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41
Q

Why can Ivabradine not be used in AF?

A

The SAN doesn’t work in AF - therefore will have no effect

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42
Q

What is Ivabradine used for?

A

Inappropriate sinus tachycardia - e.g. post-covid, POTS

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43
Q

How does Digoxin work?

A

Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase pump

  • inc Na+, inc intracellular Ca
  • thus increases contractility of the heart.

Not known why - but slows AVN conduction as a result

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44
Q

What is digoxin used for?

A

AF - but often 2nd or 3rd line

Due to the fact it has a narrow therapeutic window and can cause almost every arrhythmia possible

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45
Q

How can digoxin present on ECG?

A

With a reverse tick

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46
Q

What is the antidote to digoxin?

A

Digibind

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47
Q
A
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48
Q
A
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49
Q
A
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50
Q

Do drugs help improve prognosis in arrhythmias?

A

No - they reduce frequency and help Sx but do not improve prognosis

(Except β blockers in congenital long QT syndromes)

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51
Q

Which class of the VW classification drugs may be pro-arrhythmic?

A

Class I and III

May prolongate QT and QRS intervals

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52
Q
A
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53
Q

What do we want to do when treating angina?

A

Reduce O2 demand

Increase O2 supply

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54
Q

Can you improve the O2 supply if there is fixed stenosis?

A

Not without stenting or bypassing the stenosis

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55
Q

Which are the most effective anti anginal drugs?

A

β blockers

They reduce HR and force of contraction => reduction of myocardial O2 demand

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56
Q
A
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57
Q

What forms of nitrate are there?

A

GTN Spray

Slow release tablets - Isosorbide mononitrate & Isosorbide denigrate

IV GTN & ISMN - for use in unstable angina

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58
Q

What are the side effects of nitrates?

A

Vasodilation can cause headache, hypotension, dizziness, syncope (GTN)

Can also get tolerance with continuous use
- need to take nitrate holidays or slow-release preparations.

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59
Q

How do Ca channel blockers work?

A

Dec intracellular Ca by blocking Ca channels

=>
Dilation of arterioles
Dec ionotropy
Dec HR via SAN and AVN

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60
Q

Which Ca channel blocker only works by vasodilation?

A

Amlodipine - has no effect on the heart itself

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61
Q

Which drugs (1st and 2nd line) are used as anti platelets for chronic stable angina?

Why are anti platelets used for chronic stable angina?

A

1st L = aspirin

2nd L = DOACs (Clopidogrel, then Prasugrel or Ticagrelor)

Antiplatelets are used because patient has atherosclerotic obstructive artery disease underlying their angina. You therefore want to prevent thrombosis which might occlude an artery = anti-platelets.

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62
Q

Which anti-anginal drugs (1st and 2nd line) are used for chronic stable angina?

A

1st line = Bisoprolol (+ GTN prn)

2nd line = Diltiazem, Amlodipine, Isosorbine Mononitrate

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63
Q

Which anti-hypertensive drugs are first and second line for chronic stable angina?

A

1st line = Ramipril

2nd line = Losartan, Candesartan & Amlodipine

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64
Q

Which lipid-lowering agent is first and second line for chronic stable angina?

A

1st line = Atorvastatin

2nd line = Simvastatin or Rosuvastatin

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65
Q

What are the two aims when treating angina?

A

Want to reduce O2 demand

Want to increase O2 supply

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66
Q

Which are the most effective anti anginal drugs?

A

β blockers - they reduce HR and ionotropy - thus reducing myocardial O2 demand

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67
Q

Why are nitrates used in the treatment of angina?

A

They reduce preload and afterload (by dilating veins and arterioles) - thus reducing cardiac workload

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68
Q

Which nitrates are given as
- spray
- slow release tablets
- IV

A

Spray = GTN
Slow release = isosorbide mononitrate
IV = GTN/Isosorbide mononitrate

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69
Q

What are the side effects of nitrates?

A

Headache (can be severe and put Ps off using)
Hypotension/dizziness
Syncope (GTN)

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70
Q

Why do Ps have to have nitrate holidays? What can they use instead?

A

You can get tolerance with continuous use of nitrates = loss of effect

Can use slow-release preparations instead

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71
Q

Why are calcium channel blockers used for angina?

A

They reduce afterload (by vasodilation) - amlodipine only works in this manner.

They can also reduce contractility and HR = reduced demand on the heart

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72
Q

When choosing between a β blocker and Ca channel blocker for angina - what helps you choose which drug to go with?

A

β blocker good if Ps have HF, migraine or arrhythmias.

Can cause ankle swelling.

Ca channel blocker good if P has Raynaud’s or hypertension, asthma, COPD, PVD or resting bradycardia.

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73
Q

When would you not use Ca channel blockers for angina?

A

If a P has an underlying diagnosis of HF.

Calcium channel blockers, with the exception of amlodipine, should be avoided in heart failure as they can further depress cardiac function and exacerbate symptoms. Have a negative inotropic effect and may cause hemodynamic decompensation in patients with reduced ejection fraction.

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74
Q

First step for angina is to choose between β blocker and Ca channel blocker. What is the next step in Rx?

A

To add in the other drug - i.e. β blocker or Ca channel blocker depending on what was chosen first of all.

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75
Q

Why should you never use Diltiazem with a β blocker?

A

Together there is a combined propensity to block the AVN = this can cause profound bradycardia.

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76
Q

After starting a P on β blocker AND ca channel blocker, what is the next line Rx for angina?

A

Addition or substitution of:
- Slow release nitrate (isosorbide mononitrate)
- Ivabradine
- Nicorandil
- Ranolazine

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77
Q

Which anti-platelet drug is used for unstable angina?

A

Aspirin

Some Drs also prescribe DOACs at this stage but not NICE guidance.

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78
Q

Which anti-anginal drug is used for unstable angina?

A

Bisoprolol
GTN PRN

79
Q

Which anti-coagulant drug is used for unstable angina?

A

Fondaparinux (or other LMWH)

Fondaparinux often used because it is OD and cheap

80
Q

Which investigations are done for unstable angina and why?

A

Serial ECGs - checking for ischaemia

Repeat troponin - ?progressing to MI

Echo - check LV function and see if there is a regional wall motion abnormality

Coronary angiogram - ?whether P needs revascularisation

81
Q

How do platelets aggregate to form a clot?

A

Plaque rupture exposures collagen
VWF binds to this - allows platelets to adhere (uses GP1b receptor).

Platelets nearby are then activated using GP2b3a receptors (binds with fibrinogen), P2Y12 receptors (needs ADP) and Tx Receptors (needs COX1)

82
Q

Which anti-platelet drugs are used in IHD?

A

Aspirin
DOACs

83
Q

What is the downside of using clopidogrel?

A

There can be patient resistance to the drug - up to 40% of Ps dont get the full benefit. This means there is a huge variation in how Ps respond.

Prasugrel and Ticagrelor are more reliable and potent that clopidogrel

84
Q

What anti platelet Rx is given for stable IHD?

A

Aspirin
PCI
6m of clopidogrel following PCI

85
Q

What antiplatelet Rx is given for NSTE-ACS (i.e. unstable angina or NSTEMI)?

A

Aspirin - 300mg admission then long term

12m Prasugrel or Ticagrelor (sometimes Clopidogrel)

However dont start 2nd agent straight away - often these Ps have something else going on - start 2nd agents when sure of the diagnosis (e.g. following coronary angiogram)

86
Q

What anti platelet Rx is given for STEMI?

A

Aspirin + Praugrel or Ticagrelor at time of diagnosis

LT = aspirin + 12m Prasugrel or Ticagrelor

87
Q

When is LMWH contraindicated?

A

In Ps with severe renal impairment (<30 GFR) - because they are renally excreted. If severe renal impairment - the drug won’t be excreted and therefore the P will be over anti-coagulated.

88
Q

If LMWH is contraindicated due to renal impairment - what can be given instead?

A

Unfractionated heparin

89
Q

Which anticoagulant is given routinely during angiography via the radial artery and during PCI?

A

Unfractionated heparin

90
Q

4mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF would indicate what?

A

Inferior STEMI - Right coronary artery occlusion

91
Q

What timeframe do you have for PCI to be undertaken?

A

Within 2 hours

92
Q

Why is PCI preferred to thrombolysis?

A

Thrombolysis = less reliable than PCI - only open up about 50%, often only achieves partial flow, and has major bleeding risks.

93
Q

Which two drugs are used for thrombolysis?

A

Alteplase
Tenecteplase

94
Q

What is the difference between secondary prevention and primary prevention in IHD?

A
95
Q

If an echo shows LV anteroseptal akinesia - which coronary artery is like to have been occluded?

A

LAD

96
Q

Which drugs should be given to patients post-MI?

A
97
Q

Which anti-platelet drugs are given to Ps post MI? Why?

A

Aspirin
Prasugrel or Ticagrelor

Both prevent plaque and stent thrombosis

98
Q

Which anti-hypertensive classes should be given to a P post MI? Why?

A

β blockers
ACEI
Aldosterone antagonist

All help prevent HF and LV remodelling. β blockers additionally stop arrhythmias.
Finally all improve prognosis.

99
Q

What community care is given to Ps after suffering an MI?

A
100
Q
A
101
Q

What is the MOA of Abciximab?

A

Glycoprotein 2b/3a antagonist

102
Q

What lifestyle advice should be given to Ps with IHD for primary and secondary prevention?

A
103
Q

What are the commonest causes of exertional syncope?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy

104
Q

What is a cardiomyopathy?

A

Disease of the cardiac muscle

105
Q

What is the difference between dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated = LV wall is stretched and weakened

Hypertrophic - LV wall is thickened

106
Q

What causes dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Ischaemic causes = IHD - 70% (e.g. chronic ischaemia due to multi vessel disease)

Non-ischaemic causes =
- HT (2nd commonest cause)
- Congenital
- ETOH
- Viral
- Toxins (chemo drugs)
- Metabolic - hypothyroid, iron overload, thiamine deficiency
- Idiopathic

107
Q

What type of HF is caused by dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

HFrEF

Dilated ventricle = high diastolic volume, impaired systolic function => reduced ejection fraction

108
Q

What is the standard Rx for HFrEF?

A

ACEI
β blocker
Aldosterone antagonist
SGLT2 inhibitor

109
Q

What conditions require anti-thrombotic medication?

A

CAD - angina, STEMI, NSTE-ACS, post-PCI and post-CABG
AF
Mechanical heart valves
LV aneurysm with thrombus

110
Q

What is the MOA of aspirin?

A

Irreversible inhibitor of COX1
COX1 - involved in both promoting and inhibiting platelet aggregation
Stimulates both Thromboxane - promotes and prostacyclin - inhibits

Under normal circumstances - these two molecules cancel each out - however when you give high dose aspirin - you inhibit both

But at LOW dose - you only inhibit Thromboxane & platelet aggregation - which means prostacyclin and its inhibition of platelet aggregation dominates

111
Q

When is aspirin given?

A

MI
ACS
Angina
Post PCI / Post CABG

112
Q

What are the SE of aspirin?

A

Peptic ulceration - give PPI
Rash
Ototoxic at high dose
Reyes syndrome in children - fatal brain and liver damage

113
Q

What is the name of the syndrome that aspirin can cause in children?

A

Reye’s syndrome

114
Q

How does clopidogrel work?

A

Inhibits P2Y12 receptors - stops platelet adhesion, aggregation and activation

115
Q

What are the SEs of clopidogrel?

A

Bleeding - effects can last for 7 days after cessation - can be CI for surgery

Rash

40% have clopidogrel resistance - do not get full platelet inhibition

116
Q

How do ticagrelor and prasugrel work?

A

Both inhibitor P2Y12 - more potent and reliably than clopidogrel

117
Q

What are the SEs of ticagrelor and prasugrel?

A

Bleeding risk = more than clopidogrel. Prasugrel has the highest risk.

Ticagrelor can cause breathlessness

118
Q

Which drugs target the GP2b3a receptor?

A

Abciximab
Tirofiban

119
Q

What is the risk of Abciximab and Tirofiban?

A

They are very powerful anti-thrombotic drugs
Therefore carry high bleeding risk

120
Q

When are abciximab and tirofiban used?

A

Only during high risk coronary stent procedures

121
Q

What drugs are given for CAD?

A

Aspirin (or clopidogrel if intolerant)

DAPT given for 12m following ACS - Prasugrel or Ticagrelor

DAPT given for 6m following elective PCI - Clopidogrel

2b3a only given during high risk PCI

122
Q

When do we start DAPT?

A

If definitely a STEMI - start both drugs immediately

Elective PCI - prior to procedure

Non-STE ACS - give aspirin at diagnosis and 2nd agent after angiogram has confirmed diagnosis

123
Q

What drug needs to be given with a mechanical heart valve?

A

Warfarin

124
Q

What are usual target INR levels when on warfarin?

A

2-3
Can go as high as 3.5-4.5

125
Q

What is the mode of action of warfarin?

A

1972 was diSCo

Inhibits - 2, 7, 9 and 10, protein C and protein S

126
Q

What things does warfarin interact with?

A

Alcohol
Green vegetables
Abx, anticonvulsants and more drugs
Metabolised by CP450

127
Q

When is warfarin used?

A

Mechanical heart valves
Mitral stenosis w AF
Intra-cardiac thrombus

128
Q

When are DOACs preferred to warfarin/

A

AF Stroke prophylaxis
DVT
PE

129
Q

How can warfarin be reversed?

A

Slowly with Vit K
Rapidly with IV blood factors

130
Q

What are the SEs of warfarin?

A

Teratogenic
Warfarin induced skin necrosis (if you start warfarin with out heparin anticoagulation - the first thing that gets inhibited are Protein C & S - short 1/2 L.
Means that without heparin the P is transiently hypercoaguable = skin necrosis)

131
Q

Which factors does heparin inhibit

A

2+7 =9,10,11,12

132
Q

Which pathway is used to monitor heparin?

A

APTTr (intrinsic pathway)

133
Q

What is used to monitor warfarin?

A

Extrinsic pathway - INR

134
Q

What are the side effects of heparin?

A

Bleeding

135
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine - potent vasdilator

136
Q

When is heparin used?

A

CKD
Dialysis
ECMO / Bypass
Elective PCI

137
Q

Which are the LMWH?

A

Dalteparin
Enoxaparin
Tinzaparin

138
Q

What are LMWHs used for?

A

NSTE-ACS
AF
In pregnancy in place of warfarin

139
Q

When are LMWHs contra-indicated?

A

When there is poor renal function - they are renally cleared

140
Q

What is the serious side effect of heparin?

A

HIT - Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia

More common with UFH than LMWH - caused by ABs (previous exposure) - activate platelets causing a prothrombotic state

141
Q

What are the S&S of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Falling platelet count
Blood clot - either growing or new
Can get skin necrosis

142
Q

When is anticoagulation recommended using CHADVASC?

A

1 = should be considered
2 = anticoagulation is recommended

143
Q

How do DOACs work?

A

Inhibit FactorX

144
Q

What are the DOACs?

A

Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Dabigatran (but Factor 2a not Xa)

145
Q

What is the mode of action of Dabigatran?

A

Thrombin inhibitor (2a)

146
Q

When are DOACs used?

A

AF
DVT
PE

147
Q

Why are DOACs preferred to warfarin?

A

More reliable
Less monitoring
Fewer interactions
Similar bleeding risk

148
Q

When should you consider fibrinolysis in acute thrombotic stroke?

A

If a P cannot (or has not) transferred to PCI within 2 hours

149
Q

Which drugs are used for fibrinolysis?

A

Alteplase
Tenecteplase

150
Q

How do alteplase and tenecteplase work?

A

Activate plasminogen into plasmin - this breaks cross-links between fibrin molecules = breaks down clots

151
Q

What are the SEs of alteplase and tenecteplase?

A

High bleeding risk - 5%

152
Q

How can you differentiate between acute and chronic HF?

A

Acute = causes pulmonary oedema
Chronic = peripheral oedema

153
Q

At what BP can Ps said to be in cardiogenic shock?

A

<90mmHg

154
Q

What do we want to stop in order to treat HF?

A

Stop RAAS
Stop SS activation
Give diuretics

155
Q

How do loop diuretics work?

A

Block NaK2Cl transporter in LOH = loss of Na = loss of water
V powerful

Also cause vasodilation of pulmonary arteries

156
Q

What are loop diuretics used for?

A

Peripheral oedema
IV for acute pul oedema

157
Q

Which drugs are loop diuretics?

A

Furosemide
Bumetanide

158
Q

What are the SEs of loop diuretics

A

Ototoxicity
Low K

Low Na, Ca & Mg
Inc uric acid
Dehydration
Renal impairment

159
Q

Why do you get hypokalaemia with loop diuretics?

A

Get Na loss in the LOH
= means more Na travels to the DCT - where more Na/K is activated - causing Na reabsorption and loss of K+ = hypokalaemia

160
Q

Which are the ACEIs?

A

Ramipril
Lisinopril
Enalapril

161
Q

What are the SEs of ACEIs?

A
162
Q

Which SEs of ACEIs are caused by excess bradykinin?

A

Dry cough
Angioedema

163
Q

How do AR2Bs work?

A

Block ATII effect - similar effect to ACEIs without the cough

164
Q

Which drugs are AR2Bs?

A

Losartan
Candesartan

165
Q

How do aldosterone antagonists work?

A

Block upregulation of Na channels in the DCT by aldosterone
= less Na reabsorbed
= more water excreted
= less pressure in the vessels

166
Q

Which drugs are aldosterone antagonists?

A

Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Amiloride

167
Q

What are aldosterone antagonists also known as?

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics

168
Q

What are the side effects of spironalactone?

A

Impaired renal function
Hyperkalaemia
Gynaecomastia

169
Q

Why does the SS nervous system get activated in HF?

A

Low CO
= SS activation = inc ADR
this increases contractility -> inc CO
also - activates RAAS = vasoconstriction = inc afterload

170
Q

Why is SS activation in HF a bad thing?

A

Causes cardiotoxicity from the catecholamines
-> structural changes inc LV dilation and adverse remodelling
-> in LV systolic dysfunction

171
Q

What does activation of β 1 receptors cause?

A

inc HR
inc contractility
inc renin release

172
Q

Which β blockers are used in HF?

A

Bisoprolol
Carvedilol

173
Q

Why are β blockers used in HF?

A

Slow HR = inc diastolic filling time
Reduce afterload (BP)
Reduce renin release by reducing RAAS activation

Do not affect contractility (unlike calcium blockers)

174
Q

What are the SEs of β blockers?

A

Fatigue
Bradycardia

Breathlessness
Inc asthma

Claudication, cold hands / feet, Erectile dysfunction

175
Q

Why can β blockers not be good for diabetic Ps?

A

They mask the Sx of hypoglycaemia

176
Q

Which drug works by blocking in the If current in the SAN?

A

Ivabradine

177
Q

Which SGLT2 inhibitor has the strongest evidence base for CHF?

A

Dapagliflozin

178
Q

What are the 4 pillars of HFrEF management?

A

ACEi / ARB / ARNI

BB

MRA (Spironalactone)

SGLT2i

179
Q

If Sx persist in HFrEF - what can ACE/ARB by replaced with?

A

Valsartan - if EF <35%

180
Q

If Sx persist in HFrEF - what meds can be added?

A

Ivabradine
Hydralazine and nitrate
Digoxin (if sinus rhythm)

181
Q

How does Valsartan work?
What is the main SE?

A

Neprilysin inhibitor

SE = angio-oedema - high incidence

182
Q

What can cause acute HF?

A

MI
Valve dysfunction

183
Q

What is the most serious potential complication of acute HF?

A

Cardiogenic shock - as heart is unable to maintain CO

Ps will be cold, clammy, thready pulse, SBP <90

184
Q

At what pulmonary capillary pressure will pulmonary oedema occur?

A

> 25mmHg

185
Q

What management do we do for acute HF?

A

PODMAN

Position - sit upright
Oxygen
Diuretics - IV furosemide
Morphine
Anti-emetic
Nitrate - GTN spray, IV isosorbide mononitrate

186
Q

What drug must you not give in acute HF?

A

Β blockers

Decreased Cardiac Output: In acute heart failure, the heart’s pumping ability is severely impaired. Beta-blockers can further reduce cardiac output due to their negative inotropic and chronotropic effects, worsening the condition.

Worsening Symptoms: By lowering the heart rate and contractility, beta-blockers can exacerbate symptoms such as shortness of breath and fatigue due to insufficient blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues.

Inadequate Perfusion: Reduced cardiac output and blood pressure can lead to inadequate perfusion of vital organs, which is especially dangerous in acute settings where the body’s demand for oxygen and nutrients is high.

187
Q

What are the steps of managing acute HF according to NICE?

A

Pul oedema? Give IV furosemide
If not effective - start NIV ventilation
If still not good - Intubate and ventilate

Only give nitrates if HT, MI or MR/AR

Opiates - use for severe distress

188
Q

If Ps have cardiogenic shock and acute HF - what type of drug can be given?

A

Inotropes & Pressors

189
Q

What types of NIV can be given in acute HF?

A

CPAP
BiPAP

190
Q

How is cardiogenic shock managed?

A

TREAT MAIN CAUSE

IV saline (not if pul oedema!)
Ionotropes - dobutamine, adrenaline
Pressors - noradrenaline

Intubate, ventilation, ECMO, intra-aortic ballo pump

191
Q

What is cardiogenic shock most commonly due to?

A

Acute MI (STEMI more than NSTEMI - more myocardium damaged in STEMI)
Acute valve dysfunction - endocarditis
Arrhythmias
Myocarditis
Drug toxicity

192
Q

What is ECMO?

A

Extra corporeal membrane oxygenation

193
Q

What is CRT?

A

Cardiac resynchronisation therapy

194
Q

When should Ps be considered for device therapy in CHF?

A

Ps with poor LV function - with EF <35% and BBB should be considered - especially LBBB.