GI Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for vomiting?

Which three centres in this part of the brain are involved in vomiting?

A

Medulla

Vomiting centre
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
Vestibular nuclei

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2
Q

What does the CTZ do?

A

It contains receptors which detect emetic agents in the blood - signals to the vomiting centre to induce vomiting.

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3
Q

Which parts of the body can signal to the vomiting centre?

A

CTZ
GI tract (enterochromaffin cells)
Vestibular nuclei
Higher cortical structures

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4
Q

How does the GI tract signal the vomiting centre?

A

Enterochromaffin cells detect things like toxic agents, microorganisms, mechanical distension - they then release neurotransmitters which trigger the vomiting centre.

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5
Q

Which are the main neurotransmitters that directly trigger the vomiting centre?

A

ACh, Histaminę, 5-HT, Dopamine and Substance P

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6
Q

Which substances directly stimulate the CTZ?

A

Opioids, ketoacids and urea

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7
Q

What conditions can cause mainly morning vomiting?

A

Pregnancy
Uraemia
Alcoholic gastritis

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8
Q

What is feculent emesis a sign of?

A

Distal intestinal obstruction

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9
Q

What is projectile vomiting a sign of?

A

Raised ICP

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10
Q

What can cause vomiting during or shortly after a meal?

A

Psychogenic causes
Peptic ulcer disease

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11
Q

What is the treatment aim of anti-emetics?

A

To correct the specific cause of the vomiting

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12
Q

What is the MOA of Cyclizine?

A

Blocks histamine receptors in CNS - reducing stimulation of sickness neurons

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13
Q

Which drugs can be given for sickness caused by motion / narcotics / anaesthetics and radiotherapy?

A

Cyclizine
Promethazine

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14
Q

What are the CIs of Cyclizine and Promethazine?

A
  • Don’t use if P has hypersensitivity to the drug
  • May increase toxicity of alcohol so don’t use if P inebriated.
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15
Q

What are the SEs of Cyclazine and Promethazine?

A

Drowsiness
Confusion
Constipation
Urinary retention

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16
Q

What is the MOA of Promethazine?

A

Blocks cholinergic and histamine receptors in the CNS.

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17
Q

Give two examples of H1 receptor antagonists used as anti-emetics?

A

Cyclizine
Promethazine

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18
Q

How do muscarinic receptor antagonists work as anti-emetics?

A

Block the M1, M3 and M5 receptors in the central vomiting circuits and vestibular system.

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19
Q

Which anti-emetic is a 5HT-3 Receptor Antagonist?

A

Ondansetron

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20
Q

How does Ondansetron work?

A

It blocks the 5HT3 receptors involved in the vomiting reflex.

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21
Q

Which anti-emetic can be given for vomiting due to cytotoxic drugs, radiation or post-op sickness?

A

Ondansetron

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22
Q

What are the adverse effects of Ondanestron?

A

Headache, dizziness, constipation and QT prolongation

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23
Q

What are the CIs to Ondansetron?

A

Arrhythmia with QT prolongation
Hypersensitivity with any excipient

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24
Q

Name three dopamine receptor antagonists used as anti-emetics?

A

Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Metoclopramide

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25
Q

How do dopamine receptor antagonists work as anti-emetics?

A

They block the D2 receptors in the CTZ but also block histamine and muscarinic receptors.

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26
Q

Which anti-emetic drug has both a dopamine receptor antagonist effect and a peripheral effect on the GI tract itself inc its motility?

NB. This drug can also be used as a GERD treatment

A

Metoclopramide

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27
Q

Which drug can be used for delayed chemo induced N&V, and symptomatic treatment of N&V inc for migraine?

A

Metoclopramide

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28
Q

What are the adverse effects of metoclopramide?

A

Movement disorders
Fatigue
Motor restlessness
Spasmodic torticollis

Also - stimulates prolactin release = causes galactorrhea and menstruation disorders

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29
Q

What are the CIs of Metoclopramide?

A

Don’t use if hypersensitivity to this drug
GI haemorrhage
Mechanical obstruction
Neuroleptic or induced tardive dyskinesia
Parkinsons’s

DONT use if on levodopa or dopaminergic agonists

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30
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Involuntary and abnormal movements of the jaw, lips and tongue

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31
Q

How does dopamine affect the gut?

A

It relaxes the gut - activates muscular D2 receptors in lower oesophageal sphincter and stomach AND inhibits the release of Ash from intrinsic myenteric cholinergic neurons.

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32
Q

How does metoclopramide promote gut motility?

A

Inhibits D2 receptors
Stops inhibition of muscarinic receptors

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33
Q

What is the primary ligand of NK1 receptors?

A

Substance P

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34
Q

Where are NK1 receptors found?

A

In vomiting areas of the brain
Throughout the GI tract.

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35
Q

What happens when Substance P is given IV?

A

Causes vomiting in the P.

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36
Q

How do cannaboids work as anti-emetics?

A

Are agonists of the endogenous cannabinoid receptors in the vomiting centre (CB1 and CB2).

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37
Q

Which glucocorticoid can be used as an anti-emetic?

A

Dexamethasone

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38
Q

What types of N&V is dexamethasone used for?

A

Chemotherapy and radiotherapy induced N&V
Post-op N&V

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39
Q

A patient is receiving highly emetogenic chemotherapy for metastatic carcinoma. To prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, she is likely to be treated with which of the following?
A. Levodopa
B. Methotrexate
C. Misoprostol
D. Ondansetron
E. Omeprazole

A

The 5-HT3 receptor antagonists are highly effective at preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, which can be a dose-limiting toxicity of anticancer drugs. The answer is D

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40
Q

Spasmodic torticollis is side effect of which antiemetic drug?

A. Aprepitant
B. Cyclizine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Nabilone
E. Ondansetron

A

C

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41
Q

A patient is recently diagnosed as having Parkinson disease. Which antiemetic drug is contraindicated in this patient?

A. Aprepitant
B. Cyclizine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
E. Scopolamine

A

Metoclopramide.
Its a D2 receptor antagonist
In Parkinson there is degeneration of dopamine neurons.
Giving metoclopramide will block D2 receptors leading to decrease availability of D2 receptors on which dopamine require to act.

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42
Q

Following drugs act on various receptors in chemoreceptor trigger zone. Identify receptors on which these drugs act?
A. Aprepitant
B. Cyclizine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Ondansetron
E. Scopolamine

A

A. Aprepitant Neurokinin1
B. Cyclizine Histamine1
C. Metoclopramide Dopamine2
D. Ondansetron Serotonin (5HT3)
E. Scopolamine Muscarinic

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43
Q

Name a drug that is a bulk-forming laxative.

A

Ispaghula Husk - Fybogel

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44
Q

What is a first line osmotic laxative?

What is a second line osmotic laxative?

A

First line - macrogol

Second line - lactulose

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45
Q

What stimulant laxatives can you name?

A

Senna (1st line)
Bisacodyl (2nd line) - avoid in IBD
Docusate sodium (3rd line)

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46
Q

How long do you need symptoms to be diagnosed for chronic constipation?

A

At least 12w in the preceding 6m.

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47
Q

How do we treat acute / chronic constipation?

A

Step 1 = bulk forming laxative
Step 2 = + or switch to osmotic laxative (esp if stools are hard)
Step 3 = + in stimulant laxative

48
Q

How do we treat opioid induced constipation differently?

A

Offer osmotic and stimulant laxatives - do not offer bulk forming!

If no response - consider naloxegol

49
Q

How do you stop laxatives?

A

Don’t stop suddenly
Reduce gradually based on frequency & consistency

If on combo - reduce and stop one at a time (Stimulant laxatives first)

50
Q

What suppositories / enemas can you name?

A

Glycerol suppository
Bisacodyl suppository
Citrate (Micralax) enema
Phosphate enema

51
Q

What actions does a glycerol suppository have?

A

Is a softener, stimulant and lubricant

52
Q

How do PPIs work?

A

Inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase pump on parietal cells

53
Q

What are the side effects of PPIs?

A

Diarrhoea
Inc risk of C Diff

54
Q

How does ranitidine work?

A

H2 receptor blocker - blocks the receptor on parietal cells for histamine - therefore stopping stimulation of the H+/K+ ATPase pump

55
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

Inhibit COX enzymes - COX 1 (GI tract) and COX 2 (pain and inflammation generally)

56
Q

What is a potential complication of Ferrous Sulphate?

A

Constipation - current guidance = repeat iron studies and review if medication absolutely necessary and review dose when needed.

57
Q

What medications can be given for IBS diarrhoea?

A

Loperamide

Antispasmodics - hyoscine butylbromide (buscopan)

58
Q

How does loperamide work?

What are its side effects?

A

Is an agonist for opioid receptors in the bowel wall - reduces intestinal motility and secretion. (specific to gut mu receptors)

Commonest = constipation
Can cause cardiac arrhythmias in higher doses

59
Q

Which laxative should be avoided in IBS?

A

Lactulose - as it can cause excessive bloating

60
Q

What unusual medical Tx can be given to help with IBS symptoms?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline ) - low dose. >90% respond to some extent.

61
Q

What is the brand name of loperamide?

A

Immodium

62
Q

Name one pro-kinetic agent used in management of chronic constipation that is a 5HT4 receptor agonist?

A

Prucalopride

63
Q

How do bulk forming laxatives work?

A

Retain fluid in the stool - which increases faecal mass, causing distension and triggering peristalsis.

Softens stool as well.

64
Q

How do osmotic laxatives work?

A
65
Q

How do stimulant laxatives work?

A
66
Q

How do stool softeners work?

A
67
Q

What are the potential side effects of laxatives?

A
68
Q

What is the ladder of treatment for chronic IBD

A
69
Q

Which corticosteroids can be used for IBD in
(a) IV
(b) oral formulation?

A

a = Hydrocortisone
b = Prednisolone

70
Q

What is first line treatment for
(a) UC
(b) CD?

A

(a). mesalazines
(b) thiopurines

71
Q

What is the MOA of biguanides?

A

Overall reduction in insulin resistance

72
Q

Name a biguanide drug?

A

Metformin

73
Q

What are the SEs of biguanides / metformin?

A

NB. Diabetic population are at risk of neuropathy and B12 deficiency can present in the same way (i.e. peripheral neuropathy)

74
Q

When is metformin contraindicated?

A

Acute metabolic acidosis - inc lactic acidosis & DKA
eGFR <30
Liver problems

75
Q

What are the SEs of sulphonylureas?

A
76
Q

Name a sulphonylurea drug.

A

Gliclazide

77
Q

What is the MOA of sulphonylureas?

A

Blocks the K ATP channels within β cells of pancreas => stimulates insulin secretion

78
Q

When are sulphonylureas contraindicated?

A
79
Q

Name a DPP4 Inhibitor drug

A

Sitagliptin
Linagliptin

80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gliptins (DPP4 inhibitors)?

A

Increases insulin levels and reduces insulin resistance

81
Q

What are the side effects of gliptins?

A
82
Q

When are gliptins contraindicated?

A

Ketoacidosis
Renal failure

83
Q

Name an SGLT2 Inhibitor

A

Dapagliflozin
Canagliflozin
Empagliflozin

84
Q

What are the side effects of SGLT2 Inhibitors?

A
85
Q

Name a GLP1 Agonist

A

Dulaglutide
Exanatide
Liraglutide
Semaglutide

86
Q

What is the mechanism of action of GLP1 Agonists?

A

Inc insulin resistance
Inc β cell replication in pancreas and prevents their death
Delayed gastric emptying
Decreased glucagon secretion

87
Q

What are the benefits of GLP1 Agonists?

A

Improved BP and lipid profile
Improve HbA1c
Decreased weight
No hypoglycaemia

88
Q

What are the SEs of GLP1 agonists?

A
89
Q

When are GLP1 agonists contraindicated?

A
90
Q

What are the side effects of insulin?

A
91
Q

How long should Sx of constipation be present for to qualify as chronic constipation?

A

At least 12w in the preceding 6m

92
Q

In acute/chronic constipation - what are the 3 steps of pharmacological management?

A

Step 1 - Offer a bulk-forming laxative (Fybogel - Ispaghula Husk)

Step 2 - Add in / switch to osmotic laxative (esp if stools hard) (Macrogrol 1st line, Lactulose 2nd line)

Step 3 - Add in a stimulant laxative gel) (Senna 1st, Bisacodyl 2nd, Docusate Sodium 3rd)

93
Q

In opioid induced constipation, what is the pharmacological management?

A

Step 1 - offer an osmotic and stimulant laxative

Step 2 - if inadequate response, consider naloxegol (high cost!)

94
Q

In faecal loading / impaction - what is the pharmacological management?

A

1). High dose macrogol

2) Consider bisacodyl / glycerol suppository or citrate enema

3). Phosphate enema

95
Q

How do you stop laxatives?

A

Reduced gradually based on frequency / consistency - dont stop suddenly.

If on a combo - reduce and stop 1 at a time.

96
Q

What is the interaction between Adcal-D3 and Ferrous Sulphate?

A

Adcal (oral CaCO3) decreases the absorption of oral iron.

Therefore take Adcal 1 hour before or 2 hours after iron is taken.

97
Q

What side effect can ferrous sulphate cause?

A

Constipation

98
Q

Which is more likely to have rectal involvement - UC or Crohn’s?

A

UC

99
Q

What Sx are different between UC and Crohn’s?

A
100
Q

How does Rx of UC and CD differ?

A

CD is less likely to respond to 5ASAs (Mesalazine) - therefore not recommended due to limited benefit.

Specialists may prescribe to see if there is a response.

UC much better response to Mesalzaine

101
Q

When should steroids be used for an IBD flare?

A

When it has been severe as an inpatient (IV then switch to oral)

or moderate Sx as an outpatient (oral)

102
Q

Why do we have different dosing regimes for 5ASAs in UC?

A

Maintenance dosing regime

Flare management dosing regime (usually double the maintenance dose)

103
Q

What SEs do you need to beware of when prescribing steroids?

A

Osteoporosis – Adcal D3 (or other calcium & vit D supp)

Peptic ulceration and perforation – with/after food. Could use PPI but then have risk of fractures

Diabetes – monitoring and then std treatment if needed

Muscle wasting – appropriate exercise/movement

Psychiatric – switch of steroid
Long-term steroid can be associated with extreme side effects including mood changes such as irritability and depression, osteoporosis, cataracts, and risk of steroid dependency and withdrawal

104
Q

Which laxatives are bulk forming?

A

Fybogel

104
Q

Which laxatives are osmotic?

A

1st line = Macrogol

2nd line = Lactulose

105
Q

Which laxatives are stimulants?

A

1st line = Senna
2nd line = Bisacodyl
3rd line = Docusate Sodium

106
Q

What should be offered for acute / chronic constipation that is non-opioid induced?

A

1). Bulk forming
2) +/- Osmotic laxative (esp if stools are hard)
3). + Stimulant laxative

106
Q

What should be offered for opioid induced constipation?

A

1). Osmotic + Stimulant laxative
2). If inadequate response - consider naloxegol - HIGH COST

107
Q

What should be offered for Ps with faecal impaction?

A

1). High dose macrogol
2) Consider bisacodyl/glycerol suppository or citrate enema
3). Consider phosphate enema

108
Q

How should Ps stop taking laxatives?

A

Dont stop suddenly
Gradually reduced based on frequency and consistency of stools

If on a combo of laxatives - stop one at a time (starting with stimulants)

109
Q
A
110
Q

Which marker is very sensitive for inflammation in the GI Tract?

A

Faecal calprotectin

111
Q

Which drug is used for UC but no longer used for Crohn’s?

A

Mesalazines

112
Q

Which steroid should be used for UC and Crohn’s flares if symptoms are moderate?

A

Prednisolone PO - 40mg

113
Q

Which steroid should be used for UC and Crohn’s if Sx are severe?

A

Hydrocortison IV 100mg QDS
typically 2-5 days
then switch to oral prednisolone 40mg on a reducing regime (5mg per week)

114
Q
A