You Nasty! Flashcards

1
Q

TORCH

A
Toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a an important contributor to early and later childhood morbidity

A

infectious acquired in utero or during birth process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the only two prenatal screenings done in the U.S.

A

syphilis and rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does Toxoplasmosis present in the baby?

A

Triad:
Chorioretinitis
Hydrocephalus
Intracranial calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a late finding in toxoplasmosis due to failure to treat

A

chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is seen in late finding for toxoplasmosis

A

intellectual disability, deafness, seizures and spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the treatment for Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine and Sulfadizine (folinic acid leucovorin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Syphilis presentation in the baby?

A

asymptomatic at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do babies get syphilis?

A

mother received no prenatal care, no PCN, or inadequate treatment before/during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Babies <2 show what syphilis manifestations?

A

syphilitic rhinitis (snuffles), maculopapular rash (palms), heptaosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Babies > 2 show what syphilis manifestations?

A

saddle nose, hutchinson teeth, saber shins, mulberry molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for syphilis?

A

paraenteral penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rubella presentation in the mother?

A

mild, self limited illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CRS presentation in the child?

A

sensorineural deafness, cardiac malformations, radiolucent bone disease, blueberry muffin, growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is CRS usually seen?

A

in infants who mothers emigrated from countries w/ no rubella vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is CRS treated?

A

Prevention is most important for management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Children with CRS are contagious until….

A

1yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CMV presentation in baby?

A

asymptomatic, w/ 10% of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common congenital viral infection

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does the mother get CMV?

A

close contact w/ young children, daycares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common defect in CMV babies?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss (1/3 detected @ birth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CMV children are identified solely on the basis of what?

A

failed newborn hearing screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment for life threatening CMV?

A

Ganciclovir IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for non-life threatening CMV?

A

Valganciclovir oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for asymptomatic CMV?

A

NONE, antiviral is not needed!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are most cases of neonatal HSV infection?

A

Perinatally acquired HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is perinatally HSV transmitted?

A

through infected maternal genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do perinatally infected HSV babies present?

A

normal @ birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What ways do perinatally acquired HSV develop?

A
  • Localized to skin, eyes, and mouth (SEM)
  • Localized CNS disease
  • Disseminated disease involving multiple organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does a congenital HSV baby present?

A

Triad:
Skin vesicles
Ulcerations
Scarring

Eye damage, severe CNS (microcephaly or hydranencephaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for Herpes?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ZIKA presentation in mama?

A

asymptomatic

low grade fever, rash, arthralgia, conjuctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ZIKA presentation in baby?

A

microcephaly, arthrogryposis, facial disproportion

34
Q

When is the greatest risk for ZIKA?

A

1st trimester

35
Q

Treatment for ZIKA?

A

NONE, supportive

36
Q

What are the two most important approaches to preggo patient?

A

Timely diagnosis, high index of suspicion

37
Q

3 viral vulvar lesions?

A

Condyloma acuminata
Molluscum Contagiosum
HSV

38
Q

Which HPV strains cause genital warts

A

6 and 11

39
Q

Treatment for condyloma acuminata?

A

patient- Imiquimod cream, Podofilox gel, Sinecatchins

provider- TCA, cryotherapy, surgical removal

40
Q

Mollusucum contagiosum is caused by what virus?

A

pox virus

41
Q

Mollusucum contagiosum treatment?

A

resolves in 6-12 mo or up to 4yrs
physical removal: cryotherapy, curettage, laser
oral: cimetidine
topical: podophyllotoxin cream (NOT FOR PREGGO)

42
Q

Treatment for initial, episodic, and suppressive therapy for genital HSV?

A

Acyclovir or Valacyclovir

43
Q

Treatment for intital epsoide of HSV?

A

Acyclovir oral

Valacyclovir

44
Q

Treatment for episodic therapy of HSV?

A

Acyclovir oral

Valacyclovir oral

45
Q

Treatment for suppressive therapy of HSV?

A

Acyclovir oral

Valacyclovir oral

46
Q

3 bacterial vulvar lesions?

A

Folliculitis
Chancre Syphilis
Chancroid

47
Q

What two bugs cause folliculitis?

A

Staph aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa (hot tub)

48
Q

Treatment for folliculitis?

A

resolves 2 wks
avoid shaving, warm compress
topical abx: mupirocin
oral abx: dicloxacillin

49
Q

Syphilis treatment?

A

Bezathine penicillin G IM single dose

50
Q

Followup for syphilis period?

A

6 and 12 months

51
Q

Diagnosis of syphilis?

A

Nontreponemal test (VDRL or RPR) and Treponemal test (FTA-ABS)

52
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

53
Q

What two test if negative may lead to a chancroid diagnosis?

A

syphilis and HSV

54
Q

Treatment for chancroid?

A

Azithromycin

Ceftriazone

55
Q

Follow-up for chancroid?

A

re-examine 3-7 days

56
Q

Candidiasis is caused by what?

A

Candida albicans (90%)

57
Q

Whom are candidiasis infections more likely seen?

A

preggo, diabetics, obese, immunosuppressed, OCP, abx, steroids

58
Q

Symptoms of a candidiasis infection

A

itching, burning, irritation

59
Q

How does the discharge look in a candidiasis infection?

A

white curdy, cottage cheese, thick

60
Q

What is seen on wet mount for candidiasis?

A

hyphae and buds

61
Q

Treatment for candidiasis?

A

Oral fluconazole 150mg x1 or Imadizoles

62
Q

MC bacterial infection organism?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

63
Q

What is seen on wet mount for bacterial infection?

A

clue cells

64
Q

Treatment for bacterial infection?

A

Metronidazole gel or Clindamycin cream

65
Q

How does the discharge look in a bacterial infection?

A

yellow, gray-white, thin adherent

66
Q

Symptoms of a bacterial infection

A

fishy odor, gets worse after sex, ph>4.5, + whiff test

67
Q

3 types of cervicitis?

A

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea Trichomoniasis

68
Q

Most reported cervicitis?

A

Chlamydia

69
Q

Treatment for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

70
Q

Follow up for chlamydia?

A

All women retest 3mo

71
Q

2nd most common cervicitis?

A

Gonorrhea

72
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhea?

A

male- urethritis

female- overlooked

73
Q

Appearance of discharge in gonorrhea?

A

greenish or yellow

74
Q

Treatment for Gonorrhea?

A

Ceftraixone IM AND Azithromycin

75
Q

What organism is associated w/ PID, endometritis, infertility, ectopic/preterm

A

Trichomoniasis vaginalis

76
Q

Symptoms of trichomoniasis?

A

itching, burning, copious discharge, dysuria, dyspareunia, frothy discharge

77
Q

Treatment for trichomoniasis?

A

Metronidazole oral OR tinidazole oral

78
Q

Diagnosis of trichomoniasis?

A

petechiae “strawberry patches”

79
Q

Two organisms that cause PID?

A

C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhea

80
Q

Symptoms of PID?

A

Muscular guarding, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, pelvic exam, fever, chills

81
Q

PID parenteral treatment?

A

Cefotetan IV or Cefoxitin IV PLUS Doxy IV

82
Q

PID outpatient treatment?

A

Ceftriaxone IM x1 PLUS Doxycycline +/- Metronidazole for 14dy