Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MBBS > Year 4 > Flashcards

Year 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common side effect of macrolides?

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Polymyalgia Rheumatica?

A 
Pain and inflammation in many joints and tissues around the joints
Particularly effects:
	○ Shoulders
	○ Neck
	○ Hip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Bigeminy

A

alternating ventricular ectopic beat (wide QRS) and sinus beat (with narrow QRS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is HPOA?

A

HPOA - hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
• Clubbing and periostitis
• Test for be palpating the wrists for tenderness
Mechanism thought to be the same as for clubbing - megakaryoctes and large platelets manage to find their way into the systemic circulation and release lots of growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is tazocin?

A

Piperacillin and tazobactam combo antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is tazocin’s range of effect?

A

Includes
• Gram positive
• Gram negative
• Pseudomonas aeriginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Indapamide?

A

A thiazide like diuretic

Generally used in the treatment of HT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the common low molecular weight heparin?

A

Enoxaparin/ Clexane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is apixaban?

A

A Factor Xa inhibitor

Used for treatment of thromboembolism and for prophylaxis also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nimodipine

A

Ca channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Classes of antiarrhythmics?

A
  1. Na channel blockers
  2. Beta Blockers
  3. K channel Blockers
  4. Ca Channel blockers
  5. Other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some Type 1 Antiarrythmics?

A

Lignocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is atropine

A

An Ach receptor antagonist, can be given for bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some Type 2 Antiarrythmics?

A

Atenolol, metoprolol, carvedilol, propranolol, bisoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some Type 3 Antiarrythmics?

A

Amiodorone

Sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some Type 5 Antiarrythmics?

A

Adenosine

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name a K binder

A

Resonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trimethoprim

A

An Abx used to treat UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aspirin’s antithrombosis MOA

A

Decreased production of Thromboxane A2 by COX-1. Thromboxane A2 normally mediates the expression of GP IIb/ IIIa on platelet membranes. This is usually responsible for fibrinogen binding to and binding the platelets together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Narrow spectrum Penecillin with staph action?

A

flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What class of Abx is gentamycin

A

aminoglycaside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some Type 4 Antiarrythmics?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment for migraines?

A

Acute: Mg
If severe: Triptan (sumitriptan)
Supportive: NSAIDs/ Aspirin, anti-emetics, hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Donepezil

A
  • Reversible cholinesterase inhibitor

* Used to treat dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute abdomen causes

A
  • Appendicitis
  • Kidney stone - ureteric colic
  • Biliary colic / cholecystitis
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Salpingitis
  • Bowel obstruction
  • Bowel ischaemia
  • AAA
  • Diverticulitis
  • Pancreatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

borders of the anterior triangle of the neck

A

sternomastoid
line from chin to manubrium
inferior aspect of the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what anti-arrhythmic can be used to cardiovert?

A

amiodorone, sotolol, lignocaine (only in emergencies for ventricular arrhythmias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diff between Bell’s palsy and stroke on examination

A

Bell’s palsy also causes weakness of forehead muscles as is a LMNL. Forehead gets dual innervation from both cerebral cortexes so the deficit isnt pronounced in stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

borders of the anterior triangle of the neck

A

sternomastoid
line from chin to manubrium
inferior aspect of the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common cause of facial nerve palsy

A

Bell’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Diff between Bell’s palsy and stroke on examination

A

Bell’s palsy also causes weakness of forehead muscles as is a LMNL. Forehead gets dual innervation from both cerebral cortexes so the deficit isnt pronounced in stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

sialolithiasis most common gland affected

A

submandibular (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sentinal node is….

A

any LN which receives DIRECT drainage from a particular area (not just the FIRST node)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

histology of papillary thyroid carcinoma

A 
psammoma bodies 
(concentric lamellated calcified structures)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cells found in histology suggestive of lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

histology of papillary thyroid carcinoma

A

psammoma bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most common type of thyroid ca

A

papillary carcinoma (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

surveillance marker for disease recurrence after total thyroidectomy for papillary carcinoma

A

thyroglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

thyroid papillary carcinoma prognosis after thyroidectomy

A

90% 10year survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which NOAC is not a factor Xa inhibitor?

A

Dabigatran (direct thrombin inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Bivalirudin?

A

A direct thrombin inhibitor,

Doesn’t cause HITTS, recommended in ACS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What nerve are you likely to damage with a mid humoral fracture?

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What muscles does the median nerve supply?

A
  • All the flexors of the forearm except flexor Capri ulnaris
  • LOAF muscles
    • Lumbricals (1st and second)
    • Opponens pollicis
    • Abductor pollicis brevis
    • Flexor pollicis brevis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Side effects of parotidectomy…?

A

Frey’s syndrome (gestatory diaphoresis)
Damage to the facial nerve
Salivary fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Uhthoff’s phenomenon…?

A

Worsening of neurological symptoms with heat/exercise. Seen with demyelinating disorders e.g. MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Investigation to confirm TB eradication…?

A

Sputum culture with Ziel Nielson stain for acid fast bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a Colles fracture…?

A

FOOSH with extra-articular fracture of distal radius and dorsal displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a Smith fracture…?

A

FOOSH (flexed), with extra-articular fracture of distal radius and palmar displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 statistical error?

A

Type 1: false positive (incorrectly rejecting the null hypothesis)
Type 2: false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the inheritance and pathology of Haemophilia A?

A

X linked recessive, decreased factors VIIIc.

Some carriers can have decreased factor VIII which can lead to heavier bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DDx for Acute abdomen with pain in RLQ

A 
Appendicitis
Mesenteric adenitis (young)
Salpingitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Ureteric colic
Pyelonephritis
Diverticulitis 
Crohn's disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Orientations/Locations of the appendix

A

Retrocaecal (75%)
Pelvic (20%)
Ileal (5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Muscles inserting into Pes Anserinus…?

A

Gracilis, Sartorius and Semitendinosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Causes of hyperuricaemia…?

A

Overproduction: ETOH, psoriasis, myeloproliferative disorders.
Underexcretion: Renal failure, diuretics, dehydration, starvation, low dose aspirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a Colles fracture…?

A

FOOSH with extra-articular fracture of distal radius and dorsal angulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a Smith fracture…?

A

FOOSH (flexed), with extra-articular fracture of distal radius and palmt5frar angulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is tennis elbow…?

A

Lateral epicondylitis, caused by tear of extensor carpi radialis brevis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is golfer’s elbow…?

A

Medial epicondylitis, caused by tear to flexor carpi redialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Muscles of the rotator cuff…?

A

Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Criteria for rheumatic fever

A 
Jones criteria
Evidence of streptococcal infection
Major
- pancardiits
- migratory polyarthritis
- erythema marginatum
- sydenham chorea 
- subcut nodules

Minor

  • fever
  • arthalgia
  • PHx rheumatic heart disease or fever
  • Acute phase reactions (ESR, CRP, leukocytosis)
  • prolonged PR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Management of Colles fracture…?

A

Closed reduction to restore radial height + dorsal slab/below elbow cast for 5-6 weeks.

62
Q

2 commonest causes of pneumoperitoneum

A

perforated peptic ulcer

perforated diverticulum during diverticulitis

63
Q

Risk factors for cholelithiasis and cholecystitis

A 
Female
Forty
Fertile
Fat
Fair
64
Q

What is a useful scale in determining severity of pancreatitis

A

Ranson’s criteria

65
Q

complications of severe pancreatitis

A

SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome)
ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
MOF (multiple organ failure)

66
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion…?

A 
CHF
Liver failure
Nephrotic syndrome
Pulmonary Embolism
Fluid Overload
Constrictive Pericarditis
67
Q

Beck’s triad (for cardiac tamponade)…?

A

Raised JVP
Pulsus Paradoxus/Hypotension
Dull heart sounds

68
Q

Treatment of Opioid overdose

A

Naloxone

69
Q

Treatment of paracetomol overdose

A

N-acetylcystine

70
Q

Class I haemorrhage

% blood loss and clinical findings

A

0-15%
BP maintained
minimal tachycardia
normal RR

71
Q

Class II haemorrhage

% blood loss and clinical findings

A

15-30%
BP maintained
tachycardia >100bpm
tachypnoea >20

pale
diaphoretic
delayed capillary refill

72
Q

Class III haemorrhage

% blood loss and clinical findings

A

30-40%
Low BP
Tachycardia >120bpm
RR >30

Pale
diaphoretic
delayed capillary refill
confusion

73
Q

Class IV haemorrhage

% blood loss and clinical findings

A

> 40%
significant hypotension
HR 140bpm
RR >35

significant acidosis
depressed mental state/unconscious

74
Q

prognostic tool for liver cirrhosis

A

Childs-Pugh score

75
Q

1 Year survival for Childs-Pugh A

A

100%

76
Q

1 year survival for Childs-Pugh B

A

80%

77
Q

1 Year survival for Childs-Pugh C

A

45%

78
Q

Risk factors for Gastric Ca

A 
Asian ethnicity (esp Japan)
smoking 
GORD
pernicious anaemia 
H. pylori 
diet: preserved foodstuff (nitrosamines)
79
Q

Troisier’s sign

A

Finding of an enlarged Virchow’s node

80
Q

Virchow’s node

A

L) Supraclavicular node

sign of metastatic abdominal malignancy (e.g. gastric ca)

81
Q

ABx for suspected appendicitis

A

amoxycillin
gentamicin
metronidazole

82
Q

Charcot’s triad

A

Jaundice
Rigors
RUQ pain

Combination of signs found in typical cholangitis

83
Q

Features of acute cholecystitis on US

A

Stones
Thick-walled gallbladder
echogenic shaddowing
pericholecystic fluid

84
Q

pancreatic Ca tumour marker

A

CA 19-9

85
Q

Colorectal Ca tumour marker

A

CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)

86
Q

HCC tumour marker

A

AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)

87
Q

CML genetic abnormality

A

BCR-ABL fusion gene

88
Q

NET (Neuroendocrine Tumour) tumour marker

A

CgA (chromogranin A)

89
Q

complications of diverticulitis

A

fistula formation
abscess formation
perforation + faecal peritonitis

90
Q

preferred imaging technique for diverticulitis

A

CT

91
Q

dysphagia vs odynophagia

A

difficulty swallowing = dysphagia

painful swallowing = odynophagia

92
Q

procedures considered high risk for VTE

A

hip and knee arthroplasty
cancer surgery
intra-abdominal procedure
surgery taking >45min

93
Q

CHADS2 score

A 
Congestive Heart Failure
Hypertension 
Age >75
Diabetes Mellitus 
Stroke or TIA symptoms previously (2 points)

score >2 = significant risk of stroke

94
Q

HAS-BLED score

A 
Hypertension 
Abnormal renal or liver function 
Stroke 
Bleeding 
Labile INR
Elderly 
Drugs/alcohol
95
Q

Individual risk factors for VTE (other than immobility)

A 
obesity 
age >60
Prev Hx DVT
IBD
HRT (and OCP)
malignancy 
sepsis
dehydration
96
Q

AF causes

A

Pulmonary disease (COPD, PE)
Ischemia (ACS)
Rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis)
Anemia (high output failure/tachycardia)/Atrial myxoma
Thyrotoxicosis (tachycardia)
Ethanol/Endocarditis
Sepsis/Sick Sinus Syndrome

97
Q

What are anti Smith antibodies associated with?

A

SLE

98
Q

benztropine

A

an anticholinergic, used to treat acute dystonic reaction.

99
Q

What is the mechanism of anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

abduction, extension, external rotation

100
Q

What is hippocratic reduction of a shoulder dislocation?

A

As its name suggests the Hippocratic method of reducing the dislocation by counter-traction against the foot placed gently immediately below the axilla, is the most ancient of the methods described.
http://www.emedici.com/images/CPL572.jpg

101
Q

Cause of a ‘Dinner fork deformity’…?

A

Colles fracture. I tried to insert a picture but it didn’t work… yeah just put a link in maybe

102
Q

what’s the most common clavicle fracture?

A

Middle third (> 2/3 of clavicle fractures)

103
Q

Triggers for migraine?

A 
Chocolate/ Cheese
Hormonal
OCP
Caffeine
alcohOL
Anxiety
Travel
Exercise
104
Q

Medical treatment for patient with paroxysmal AF with BP 160/80

A

Beta Blocker e.g. atenolol or metoprolol.

usually use oral unless urgent rate control required and then give IV metoprolol tartrate.

105
Q

Medical treatment for patient with paroxysmal AF with BP 110/60 and known heart failure

A

digoxin (dose according to age, eGFR and monitor plasma digoxin concentration)

106
Q

half life of digoxin in pts with normal renal function

A

at least 24hrs

107
Q

When would you use ticagrelor

A

It is an antiplatelet.
can be co-administered with aspirin.
used to prevent atherothrombotic events in patients with ACS.
it is reversible and has a short half life so can be used in pts who need to undergo PCI or CABG.

108
Q

What causes acute rheumatic fever?

A

antibodies after Lancefield group A Beta-Haemolytic streptococci infection –> antibodies cross-react with the valve tissue.

109
Q

Describe the arthritis from rheumatic fever

A

migratory polyarthritis, mostly affecting larger joints

110
Q

antibiotics for HAP

A

ceftriaxone + metronidazole

111
Q

antibiotics for severe HAP

A

tazocin + metronidazole

112
Q

antibiotics for osteomyelitis in non-diabetic patient

A

high dose flucloxacillin

113
Q

How do you treat a Kolles or a Smith fracture?

A

Smith needs ORIF as it’s generally unstable.

Kolle’s can be managed conservatively with closed ruction and a cast.

114
Q

What disease does VZV cause?

A

Early infection: varicella (chicken pox)

Later re-activation: herpes zoster (shingles)

115
Q

What’s the antidote to benzodiazapine oversedation?

A

Flumazenil

116
Q

How many dopamine receptors are there?

A

5

117
Q

Signs of C diff infection?

A
  • significant diarrhoea (smells of horse amnure)
  • recent antibiotic use
  • fever
  • abdominal pain
118
Q

Meanings of Spondylosis vs Spondylolysis vs Spondylolisthesis

A

Sponylosis: osteoarthritis of the facet joints
Spondylolysis: degenerations of the pars inter-articularis
Spondylolithesis: one vertebra is pushed forwards on another

119
Q

Acute Pancreatitis Causes

A 
I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic
Gallstones (45%)
Ethanol (35%)
Tumours: pancreas, ampulla, choledochocele (cyst)
Scorpion stings 
Microbiological 
	○ CMV, EBV, VZV
	○ M pneumoniae, salmonella, campylobacter
Autoimmune: 
Surgery/trauma 
Hyperlipidemia, Hypercalcemia, Hypothermia, hereditary
	○  CFTR
	○ Hypercalcaemia - vit D, Ca, 
	○ Developmental abnormalities
Emboli or ischemia
Drugs/toxins
	○ SAND
		○ Steroids
		○ Azothiaprine
		○ NSAIDs
		○ diuretics
Frusomide
120
Q

Which ankle ligaments usually are injured?

A

lateral ones usually sprained

- specifically the anterior talo-fibular ligament and the calcaneo-fibular ligament are most commonly affected

121
Q

Garden Classification

A
  1. incomplete fracture
  2. complete fracture, non-displaced
  3. Partially displaced
  4. Fully displaced
122
Q

Definition of clean vs clean-contaminated vs contaminated vs dirty.

A

Clean wound
No entering of a viscus that is normally contaminated by bacteria. Risk of infection is 2%.

Clean - contaminated
A colonised viscus is entered but in a controlled environment. Risk of infection is 4-10%.

Contaminated
There is already a perforation or bacteria are able to get into the area.

Dirty
The surgery takes place at a site where there is already infection.

123
Q

Charcot’s triad? Raynaud’s pentad.

A
  1. fever
  2. RUQ pain
  3. Jaundice
  4. Confusion
  5. Low BP
124
Q

what are the features of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

CREST syndrome

Calcinosis 
Raynaud's
Oesophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
125
Q

Immune mediated disease types

A
  1. Anaphylactc
  2. Cytotoxic
  3. IC
  4. Cell-mediated/ delayed hypersensitivity
126
Q

What causes pseduogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition

127
Q

DDx Hypercholesterolaemia…?

A 
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Obesity 
Cushing's Syndrome
Nephrotic Syndrome
Multiple Myeloma
128
Q

Medications to lower cholesterol…? (there are more than one)

A

Statins: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, achieve a 55% reduction
Ezetimibe: Blocks cholesterol absorption in the small intestine, achieves a 20% reduction.

129
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Pericarditis…?

A
  1. Typical chest pain (sharp, retrosternal, worse on leaning forwards)
  2. Pericardial rub
  3. New/Worsening pericardial effusion
  4. ECG changes - widespread ST elevation, PR depression
130
Q

Causes of Pericarditis…?

A

Infection: Coxsackie A & B, echovirus, HIV, staph, pneumo, TB, Hib, histoplasmosis
Malignancy: Breast, Hodgkin Lymphoma, ANYTHING else.
Radiotherapy
Trauma
Connective tissue disease
Renal failure
Drugs (Penicillin, Isoniazed, chemotherapy)

131
Q

Management of pericarditis…?

A

Ibuprofen and Colchicine

132
Q

Treatment of acute pulmonary oedema…?

A

LMNOP;

Loop diuretics
Morphine
Nitrates
Oxygen
Positive pressure ventilation + Position patient with legs hanging down

Plus nitroprusside or hydralazine if that fails

133
Q

Contraindications/Precautions with Beta-blockers…?

A

Contra; 2nd or 3rd degree heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

Precautions; worsens Asthma and Raynaud’s

134
Q

C-P450 inhibitors…?

A 
Grapefruit juice
SSRIs
PPIs
Amiodarone
Valproate
Sulfamethoxazole
Ketoconazole
135
Q

What is Carcinoid syndrome and what investigation is useful…?

A

Episodic flushing, diarrhoea and bronchospasm
Caused by a tumour of the bronchi or GIT which secretes various products, one of which is 5-hydroxytryptophan, which is what you test for in urine.

136
Q

Acute seizure management…?

A

Turn patient to lateral decubitus position and clear/suction airway
Give high dose O2
Do a pin-prick glucose test
Obtain IV access and give Midazolam, Phenytoin.
Investigate cause

137
Q

Acute Asthma management…?

A

IV hydrocortisone
Oxygen, lots
Nebulized salbutamol

138
Q

Acute Anaphylazis management…?

A

ABCs, remove trigger
IM adrenaline 500 micrograms
high flow O2, SABA
IV access, begin fluid administration (Hartmann’s)

139
Q

Criteria for Sepsis/SIRS…?

A
  1. Temp 38.8
  2. HR >90bpm
  3. Resp rate >20 or paCO2 12
140
Q

Empiric Abx for Infective endocarditis…?

A

IV Benzylpenicillin, flucoxicillin, gentamycin

141
Q

Acute COPD exacerbation, what O2 sats are you aiming for…?

A

88-92%, any higher may remove hypxic drive in CO2 retainers.

142
Q

Lights criteria…?

A

Determines exudate vs transudate in pleural effusion

  1. Pleural/Serum protein >0.5
  2. Pleural/Serum LDH >0.6
  3. Pleural LDH >0.45 upper limit normal serum LDH

If any one is positive –> exudate.

143
Q

Contraindications for exercise stress testing…?

A

Acute MI, PE, dissection, pericarditis, severe AS, inability to exercise.

144
Q

Indications for open reduction…?

A

NO CAST

Non-union
Open fracture

Compromise (neurovascular)
Articular involvement
Salter harris 3,4,5
Trauma (poly)

145
Q

What causes pseduogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition

146
Q

What laboratory screening test can you perform for HCC?

A

Alpha-feto protein

147
Q

Empirical antibiotics for CAP?

A

Macrolide (e.g. erythromycin) or doxycycline

148
Q

Empirical antibiotics for HAP?

A

Ceftriaxone
OR quinolones (e.g. moxifloxacin)
OR beta-lactam and inhibitor

149
Q

5 types of psoriatic arthritis

A 
asymmetric oligoarthritis
arthritis of distal interphalangeal joints
destructive/mutilans arthritis
symmetric polyarthritis
sacroiliitis and spondylitis
150
Q

Criteria for breast conserving surgery?

A

single lesion

tumour <3cm (<4cm in a larger breast)

lesion more than 2cm away from the nipple/areola

lower histological grade

no extensive nodal involvement

MBBS (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions