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XRAY > XRAY A&P > Flashcards

XRAY A&P Flashcards

1
Q

Dr. Johnson is your favorite radiologist, so you decided to go to his office to say hello. While there, he explains that the hospital administrator is a patient in ICU. He asks you to log into the computer system so he can check the medical records and the health status of the administrator. Which of the following is the appropriate response?A. You quickly type in your password so Dr. Johnson can look at the administrator’s medical records.B. You explain to Dr. Johnson that you cannot do that because you could get in trouble for breaching the patient’s rights to privacy.C. You check with the department manager to see if it is all right to use your password to login for Dr. Johnson.D. You inform Dr. Johnson that you just did a portable chest exam on the administrator and he was just put on life support.

A

B. You explain to Dr. Johnson that you cannot do that because you could get in trouble for breaching the patient’s rights to privacy.

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2
Q

After a barium enema, you notice that the sheets have fecal material and blood on them. What should be done with the sheets?A. Place them in a leak proof linen bagB. Place them in a red biohazardous bagC. Place them in a red bag and then put them in a leak-proof linen bagD. Double bag them

A

A. Place them in a leak proof linen bag

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3
Q

Seven pairs of ribs are visualized in the right lung field of an infant AP chest radiograph. Which of the following would be necessary to improve this radiograph?A. Increase kVp to see the ribs below the diaphragmB. Catch infant on inspiration to visualize ten ribs in the right lung fieldC. Use a grid to absorb scatter radiationD. Pinch the infant to make it cry

A

B. Catch infant on inspiration to visualize ten ribs in the right lung field

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4
Q

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand?A. TunnelB. CarpalC. Ulnar flexionD. Lateral in extension

A

D. Lateral in extension

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5
Q

Which of the following positions of the abdomen should be used to demonstrate air-fluid levels when an erect position cannot be obtained?A. ProneB. FowlerC. Right anterior obliqueD. Left lateral decubitus

A

D. Left lateral decubitus

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6
Q

When manipulating a digital image, what does changing the window width do?A. Changes the brightness of the imageB. Changes the contrast of the imageC. Changes the resolution of the imageD. Changes the size of the image

A

B. Changes the contrast of the image

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7
Q

What does the term asepsis mean?A. Free from infectionB. UnsterileC. CleanD. Spread of disease

A

A. Free from infection

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8
Q

To demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus, which of the following would be correct?A. Supinate the handB. Internally rotate the armC. Abduct the armD. Flex the elbow

A

A. Supinate the hand

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9
Q

Where should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the knee joint?A. 1 cm proximal to the base of the patellaB. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patellaC. 1 cm distal to the base of the patellaD. Parallel to patellar surface

A

B. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patella

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10
Q

The distal end of an endotracheal tube should be placed _______ superior to the carina.A. 1 cmB. 3 cmC. 5 cmD. 7 cm

A

C. 5 cm

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11
Q

Which of the following are best demonstrated in the oblique position of the lumbar spine?A. Intervertebral foraminaB. Spinous processesC. Zygapophyseal jointsD. Pedicals

A

C. Zygapophyseal joints

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12
Q

Which of the following refers to the movement of the imaging plate as it is being read by the laser?A. Fast scanB. Slow scanC. DirectionD. Sliding

A

B. Slow scan

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13
Q

The red arrow is pointing at what anatomical structure?A. Sella turcicaB. External auditory meatusC. Lateral margin of the orbitD. Sphenoid sinus

A

D. Sphenoid sinus

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14
Q

Fuji’s cassette-based system uses a sensitivity (S) number to determine if the proper exposure was received by the imaging plate. If 200 is the ideal number, what number would indicate the plate was exposed to twice the necessary radiation?A. 50B. 100C. 200D. 400

A

B. 100

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15
Q

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?A. APB. 15 - 20 degree medial obliqueC. 45 degree medial obliqueD. Lateral

A

C. 45 degree medial oblique

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16
Q

Non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast media:A. contains no iodine.B. produces no adverse reaction.C. does not dissolve into charged particles.D. is less expensive than ionic, water-soluble contrast media.

A

C. does not dissolve into charged particles.

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17
Q

Where should the CR enter for an AP projection during an operative cholangiogram?A. At the level of the iliac crestB. At the level of the ASISC. At the xiphoid tipD. Where the surgeon indicates

A

D. Where the surgeon indicates

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18
Q

The 4th cervical vertebra lies at the level of which of the following topographical landmarks?A. Sternal notchB. Angle of the mandibleC. Thyroid cartilageD. Mastoid process

A

C. Thyroid cartilage

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19
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered a type of transmission-based precaution?A. AIDSB. ContactC. AirborneD. Droplet

A

A. AIDS

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20
Q

Which of the following is the name for the socket which holds the head of the femur?A. Glenoid fossaB. AcetabulumC. Mandibular fossaD. Olecrannon

A

B. Acetabulum

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21
Q

What is the greatest advantage of digital imaging?A. Contrast resolutionB. Spatial resolutionC. Decreased exposureD. Less distortion

A

A. Contrast resolution

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22
Q

Which of the following documents express a patient’s choices about his/her future care?A. Patient’s Bill of RightsB. Standards of EthicsC. Living WillD. Informed Consent

A

C. Living Will

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23
Q

When should the exposure be made for an AP projection or lateral position of the upper airway?A. After deep inspirationB. After expirationC. During a slow, deep inspirationD. During rapid respiration

A

C. During a slow, deep inspiration

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24
Q

In computed radiography, if a cassette has NOT been used for _______ hours, the imaging plate should be erased.A. 8B. 16C. 24D. 48

A

D. 48

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25
Q

For a lateral position of the L5-S1 junction, the central ray enters on the midcoronal plane at a point:A. 1 1/2” inferior to the iliac crest.B. 2 1/2” superior to the iliac crest.C. 3 1/2” inferior to the iliac crest.D. directly on the iliac crest.

A

A. 1 1/2” inferior to the iliac crest.

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26
Q

In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?A. Medial cuneiformB. Lateral cuneiformC. CuboidD. Navicular

A

B. Lateral cuneiform

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27
Q

The nasal bones articulate with which of the following bones?1. Ethmoid2. Frontal3. MaxillaeA. 1 onlyB. 1 & 2 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3

A

D. 1, 2 & 3

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28
Q

Medications include which of the following?A. Contrast mediaB. AnalgesicsC. DiureticsD. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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29
Q

Which of the following DICOM standards assures digital images will look the same on various monitors?A. DICOM LCDB. DICOM encoding schemeC. DICOM grayscale standard display functionD. DICOM capture system

A

C. DICOM grayscale standard display function

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30
Q

Which of the following would relate to a film-screen radiograph having low contrast?1. Long scale2. Many shades of gray3. Low kVpA. 1 & 2 onlyB. 1 & 3 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3

A

A. 1 & 2 only

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31
Q

A patient that develops hives after the injection of a contrast medium may be given which type of drug?A. AntihistamineB. AntibioticC. AnalgesicD. Anti-inflammatory

A

A. Antihistamine

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32
Q

Which of the following positions/projections best demonstrates the esophagus filled with barium?A. APB. LAOC. RAOD. Right lateral decubitus

A

C. RAO

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33
Q

What is the name of the most distal part of the stomach?A. Cardiac orificeB. PylorusC. BodyD. Fundus

A

B. Pylorus

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34
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable means for receiving a request to perform an examination?1. Verbal request over the phone from the physician’s office2. Written request from the physician’s office3. Verbal request from the patientA. 1 onlyB. 1 & 2 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3

A

B. 1 & 2 only

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35
Q

Where is the needle placed for a lumbar puncture during a myelogram?A. T12 - L1B. L1 - L2C. L3 - L4D. L5 - S1

A

C. L3 - L4

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36
Q

Which of the following radiographic procedures would require nonionic contrast media as opposed to ionic contrast media?A. Intravenous urographyB. MyelographyC. SialographyD. Venography

A

B. Myelography

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37
Q

Which of the following is/are associated with good body mechanics?A. Provide a broad base of supportB. When lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straightC. Keep your load well balanced and close to your bodyD. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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38
Q

Which of the following is the preferred SID for a portable (mobile) radiograph of the chest?A. 36”B. 40”C. 55”D. 72”

A

D. 72”

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39
Q

For a true lateral position of the skull, the midsagittal plane must be in which for these positions?A. Perpendicular to the image receptorB. At a right angle to the image receptorC. Parallel to the image receptorD. Parallel to the CR

A

C. Parallel to the image receptor

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40
Q

After a myelogram, the patient may be taken to _______ for additional studies while the contrast is still in the subarachnoid space.A. CTB. MRIC. SonographyD. Nuclear medicine

A

A. CT

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41
Q

Which of the following will be on the cover of a patient’s chart if he/she does not want to be resuscitated if he/she quits breathing or his/her heart stops beating?A. CPRB. NPOC. DNRD. Stop

A

C. DNR

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42
Q

During retrograde urography contrast media is administered in which of the following ways?A. IntravenouslyB. Via a cystoscopeC. Via a ureteral catheterD. Intramuscularly

A

C. Via a ureteral catheter

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43
Q

How would you attempt to stop the bleeding if your patient started to hemorrhage from the radial artery?A. Raise the armB. Place a tourniquet directly above the elbowC. Place a tourniquet directly below the elbowD. Apply direct pressure to the wound

A

D. Apply direct pressure to the wound

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44
Q

Which of the following describes the term projection?A. Patient positionB. Path of the x-ray beamC. Radiographic viewD. Body habitus type

A

B. Path of the x-ray beam

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45
Q

Any image on a radiograph that is foreign to the patient, describes which of the following?A. StaticB. EmissionC. ArtifactD. Crescent mark

A

C. Artifact

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46
Q

Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?A. GallbladderB. SpleenC. PancreasD. Liver

A

B. Spleen

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47
Q

For the oblique position, the foot should be rotated how many degrees medially?A. 15B. 30C. 45D. 60

A

B. 30

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48
Q

Which of the following should be done to reduce OID on a PA projection of the wrist?A. Increase SIDB. Flex fingers slightlyC. Elevate elbowD. Extend thumb upward

A

B. Flex fingers slightly

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49
Q

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the rectum filled with barium?A. SupineB. ErectC. RPOD. Lateral

A

D. Lateral

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50
Q

Betadine is used for which of the following?A. Topical anestheticB. Contrast agentC. LubricantD. Skin disinfectant

A

D. Skin disinfectant

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51
Q

According to the anode heel effect, in the diagram to the right, which letter corresponds to the greatest radiation intensity?A. AB. BC. CD. D

A

D. D

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52
Q

AP weight bearing knees are ordered to demonstrate which of the following pathologies?A. Tibial plateau fractureB. ArthritisC. EdemaD. Torn meniscus

A

B. Arthritis

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53
Q

Failure of a radiographer to provide reasonable care describes which of the following?A. AssaultB. BatteryC. NegligenceD. Slander

A

C. Negligence

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54
Q

To best demonstrate the body of the mandible in an axiolateral projection, the head must be placed in which of the following positions?A. True lateralB. 30 degree rotation toward the affected sideC. 45 degree rotation toward the affected sideD. 60 degree rotation toward the affected side

A

B. 30 degree rotation toward the affected side

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55
Q

To prevent shape distortion which of the two elements must be parallel?A. The object and the CRB. The object and the image receptorC. The CR and the image receptorD. The CR and the object

A

B. The object and the image receptor

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56
Q

A patient suddenly has difficulty breathing, what is the first thing a radiographer must do?A. Lie the patient supineB. Call for helpC. Administer oxygenD. Begin CPR

A

B. Call for help

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57
Q

Which of the following is a graphical representation of the numerical values that make up a digital image?A. HistogramB. Bar graphC. Scatter graphD. Pictograph

A

A. Histogram

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58
Q

Beam restriction will affect which of the following radiographic qualities?A. BrightnessB. ContrastC. Recorded detailD. Distortion

A

B. Contrast

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59
Q

Why was this lumbar spine radiograph repeated?A. Bucky tray was not pushed inB. Grid cutoffC. Right marker in anatomyD. X-ray tube was not detented

A

D. X-ray tube was not detented

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60
Q

The scapular Y position is used to demonstrate which of the following?A. Acromioclavicular separationB. The shoulder joint in an oblique positionC. Anterior or posterior dislocation of the humerusD. The relationship between the coracoid process and the scapular spine

A

C. Anterior or posterior dislocation of the humerus

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61
Q

To make sure the proper patient information and images get sent to the proper folder in PACS, the best practice is to make sure the _______ on the worklist matches the _______ on the patient’s requisition.A. gender, genderB. birth date, birth dateC. accession number, accession numberD. patient’s name, patient’s name

A

C. accession number, accession number

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62
Q

In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?A. Distal phalanx of the great toeB. Middle phalanx of the great toeC. Proximal phalanx of the great toeD. 1st metatarsal of the great toe

A

C. Proximal phalanx of the great toe

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63
Q

What is the greatest disadvantage of digital imaging?A. Contrast resolutionB. Spatial resolutionC. Decreased exposureD. Less distortion

A

B. Spatial resolution

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64
Q

What is the function of contrast in a radiograph?A. Increase brightnessB. Increase the sharpness of detailC. Increase the visibility of detailD. Increase distortion

A

C. Increase the visibility of detail

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65
Q

How would the digit “0” of a CR or DR digital image appear on a monitor?A. Black pixelB. White pixelC. Gray pixelD. Dull pixel

A

B. White pixel

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66
Q

What is the rounded process on the proximal, lateral aspect of the femur called?A. Lateral epicondyleB. Greater trochanterC. Medial tubercleD. Femoral tuberosity

A

B. Greater trochanter

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67
Q

Which of the following positions/projections is demonstrated in this radiograph?A. Lateral cervical spineB. Lateral cervical spine in flexionC. Lateral cervical spine in extensionD. Oblique

A

C. Lateral cervical spine in extension

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68
Q

A lateral projection of the thoracic spine requires a breathing technique of at least how many seconds?A. 1B. 3C. 5D. 7

A

B. 3

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69
Q

Which of the following would increase the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)?A. Increase x-ray intensityB. Increase scatter radiationC. Increase electronic noiseD. Increase background noise

A

A. Increase x-ray intensity

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70
Q

How will the use of radiographic grids affect the contrast of a radiograph?A. Produce lower contrastB. Produce higher contrastC. Eliminate contrastD. Have no effect on contrast

A

B. Produce higher contrast

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71
Q

If a digital imaging system can record 10 lines per millimeter, what is its spatial resolution?A. 1 lp/mmB. 5 lp/mmC. 10 lp/mmD. 20 lp/mm

A

B. 5 lp/mm

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72
Q

An AP projection of the pelvis requires the patient to be supine, the CR perpendicular, and entering a point:A. midway between the crests of the ilium.B. 2” superior to the symphysis pubis.C. parallel to the sacroiliac joints.D. at the level of the sacral foramina.

A

B. 2” superior to the symphysis pubis.

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73
Q

During a myelogram, what position is the patient in when his head is put lower than his feet?A. FowlerB. ProneC. TrendelenburgD. Sim’s

A

C. Trendelenburg

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74
Q

Name 10 endocrine glands

A

PinealPituitary (Anterior/Posterior)ThyroidParathyroidAdrenal (medulla/cortex)OvariesPlacentaTestesPancreasThymus

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75
Q

What gland secretes melatonin?

A

pineal

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76
Q

What gland secretes growth hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary

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77
Q

What gland secretes thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

anterior pituitary

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78
Q

What gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormones?

A

anterior pituitary

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79
Q

What gland secretes prolactin?

A

anterior pituitary

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80
Q

What gland secretes luteinizing hormone?

A

anterior pituitary

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81
Q

What gland secretes follicle stimulating hormone?

A

anterior pituitary

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82
Q

What gland secretes antidiuretic hormone?

A

posterior pituitary

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83
Q

What gland secretes oxytocin?

A

posterior pituitary

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84
Q

What gland secretes thyroxine?

A

thyroid

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85
Q

What gland secretes triiodothyronine?

A

thyroid

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86
Q

What gland secretes parathyroid hormone?

A

parathyroid

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87
Q

What gland secretes thymosins?

A

thymus

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88
Q

What gland secretes calcitonin?

A

thyroid

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89
Q

What gland secretes chromaffin cells?

A

adrenal medulla

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90
Q

What gland secretes epinephrine & norepinephrine?

A

adrenal medulla

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91
Q

What gland secretes vital hormones?

A

adrenal cortex

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92
Q

What gland secretes aldosterone?

A

adrenal cortex

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93
Q

What gland secretes cortisol?

A

adrenal cortex

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94
Q

What gland secretes male adrenal androgens?

A

adrenal cortex

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95
Q

What gland secretes hormones of Islets of Langerhans?

A

pancreas

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96
Q

What gland secretes alpha, beta & delta hormones?

A

pancreas

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97
Q

What glands secrete estrogen?

A

ovaries & placenta

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98
Q

What glands secrete progesterone?

A

ovaries & placenta

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99
Q

What secretes gonadotropin?

A

placenta

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100
Q

What gland secretes testosterone?

A

testes

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101
Q

What hormone is also known as Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone?

A

luteinizing hormone

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102
Q

What does thyroxine do?

A

metabolizes iodine

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103
Q

What does triiodothyronine do?

A

breaks down food, increases metabolism

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104
Q

Which thyroid hormone is secreted the most?

A

thyroxine

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105
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

decreases calcium in blood

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106
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do?

A

increases calcium in blood

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107
Q

What happens if you get too much calcium?

A

become sluggish

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108
Q

What do chromaffin cells do?

A

store & secrete epinephrine/norepinephrine

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109
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

regulates mineral & electrolytes, makes body retain water

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110
Q

What type of hormone is cortisol?

A

glucocorticoid

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111
Q

What can male adrenal androgens be made into?

A

estrogen

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112
Q

What do alpha hormones do?

A

secrete glucagon (breaks down glycogen into glucose)

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113
Q

What do beta hormones do?

A

secrete insulin (forms glycogen from glucose)

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114
Q

What do delta hormones do?

A

secrete somatostatin (inhibits secretion of glucagon & insulin)

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115
Q

What does estrogen do?

A

helps with secondary sex characteristics

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116
Q

What is the main female hormone?

A

progesterone

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117
Q

Name the 3 types of muscle tissue.

A

smooth cardiac skeletal

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118
Q

Where is smooth muscle found?

A

walls of visceral organs (except heart)eye musclesairways

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119
Q

What attaches muscle to bone?

A

tendons

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120
Q

What attaches bone to bone?

A

ligaments

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121
Q

What provides the energy to power muscles?

A

ATP

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122
Q

Muscle contraction results from what?

A

the sliding together of thick myosin & thin actin filaments within the muscle cell

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123
Q

Which muscle filament is thick?

A

myosin

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124
Q

Which muscle filament is thin?

A

actin

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125
Q

Do skeletal muscles act alone or in pairs/groups?

A

pairs/groups

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126
Q

What do we call the skeletal muscle that is most responsible for a given movement?

A

agonist or prime mover

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127
Q

What are the muscles that work in cooperation with the agonist/prime mover called?

A

synergists

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128
Q

What is the muscle that produces the opposite movement of the agonist/prime mover called?

A

antagonist

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129
Q

Muscles respond to what?

A

nerve impulses

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130
Q

Where do muscles receive nerve impulses?

A

neuromuscular junctions

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131
Q

What is secreted at neuromuscular junctions?

A

neurotransmitters

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132
Q

Explain what causes stimulation of a muscle fiber?

A

Nerve impulse travels from nerve to muscle cell at neuromuscular junctionneurotransmitter is secreted & is diffused across the junctionneurotransmitter stimulates muscle fiber

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133
Q

What neurotransmitter do motor neurons use to control skeletal muscle?

A

acetylcholine

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134
Q

Muscles working under anaerobic conditions produce what?

A

lactic acid

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135
Q

What chemical causes muscle fatigue?

A

lactic acid

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136
Q

What is the end of a muscle that is attached to a moving part called?

A

insertion

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137
Q

What is the end of a muscle that is attached to a fixed point called?

A

origin

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138
Q

What are the functional units of muscle fibers called?

A

sarcomeres

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139
Q

In a lever system, what is the lever?

A

a bar

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140
Q

What is a fulcrum?

A

the fixed point in a lever system

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141
Q

What is the applied force in a lever system called?

A

effort

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142
Q

In a lever system, what is the load?

A

some form of resistance

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143
Q

What is an example of a fulcrum in the body?

A

joints

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144
Q

What is an example of a lever in the body?

A

a bone

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145
Q

What is an example of an effort in the body?

A

muscle contraction

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146
Q

What is an example of a load in the body?

A

the weight of the bone itself along with overlying tissues

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147
Q

What is the contractile response of a single muscle fiber to a muscle impulse?

A

muscle twitch

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148
Q

What are the important ions in the nervous system?

A

sodium & potassium

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149
Q

What is it called when many action potentials are triggered in a motor neuron, resulting in a contraction of increasing strength?

A

a sustained contraction

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150
Q

Slow twitch (red fibers) muscle fibers

A

dependent on O2 and are fatigue resistant.

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151
Q

Fast Twitch (white fibers) muscle fibers

A

anaerobic, contract and fatigue rapidly; found in hands and eyes

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152
Q

Describe muscle tone

A

results from a continuous state of partial contraction; important in maintaining your posture

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153
Q

Describe Isometric Contractions

A

Contract with no movement; example is pushing against something

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154
Q

Describe Isotonic Contractions

A

contraction with muscle shortening, example is lifting a weight

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155
Q

What is all or none response?

A

muscle will respond completely or not at all; stimulus must surpass threshold to illicit response, response will be a complete contraction or none at all

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156
Q

Are voluntary muscles controlled by the somatic or autonomic nervous system?

A

somatic

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157
Q

Are involuntary muscles controlled by the somatic or autonomic nervous system?

A

autonomic

158
Q

Is skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

voluntary

159
Q

Is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

160
Q

Is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

involuntary

161
Q

List the skeletal muscle structure in order from the outside to the inside.

A

Aponeurosis (covers groups of muscles)Fascia (covers single muscle)EpimysiumPerimysiumFasciclesEndomysiumMuscle Fibers

162
Q

List structure of muscle fibers from the outside to the inside.

A

SarcolemmaMyofibrilsSarcomeresActin & Myosin

163
Q

Which filament is thin?

A

actin

164
Q

Which filament is thick?

A

myosin

165
Q

What is the contracting, functioning unit of a muscle fiber?

A

sarcomeres

166
Q

Sarcomeres have what 4 qualities?

A

A bands I bands H zones Z lines

167
Q

List the steps to muscle contraction.

A

Muscle is at rest (polarized) Stimulus from nerve (threshold stimulus) Depolarization (Na+ channels open/Na+ flows in - action potential travels along) Repolarization (K channels open/K flows out - membrane returns to negative resting potential/polarized state)

168
Q

What is metabolism?

A

All chemical processes occuring in the body

169
Q

What does ATP stand for?

A

adenosine triphosphate

170
Q

Why is ATP important to muscles?

A

It is required to make muscles work.

171
Q

What is oxidation?

A

the loss of electrons

172
Q

What is reduction?

A

a gain of electrons

173
Q

Where does cellular respiration occur?

A

in the mitochondria

174
Q

What are the steps of cellular respiration?

A

glycolysis (pyruvic acid) / \ O2 present lack of O2 / / \ transition reaction alcohol lactic acid (acetyl coenzyme A) / Krebs Cycle / electrons picked up by NAD & FAD / electron transport chain (32 ATP made - 36 total)

175
Q

What is the equation for cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP

176
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

the ability to maintain a constant internal environment regardless of external conditions

177
Q

List order of steps of homeostatic control.

A

stimulus (↑ or ↓ of body temp) is received by receptors (temp. sensitive receptors in skin) input is sent via afferent pathway to control center (brain) control center decides if stimulus crosses threshold (if so) control center sends output via the efferent pathway to effector (sweat glands/skeletal muscles) response (sweat evaporation & ↓ temp/shivering & ↑ temp) causes end of stimulus

178
Q

How many cranial, spinal nerves are there?

A

12

179
Q

How many spinal nerves are there total?

A

31

180
Q

How many cervical, spinal nerves are there?

A

8

181
Q

How many thoracic, spinal nerves are there?

A

12

182
Q

How many lumbar, spinal nerves are there?

A

5

183
Q

How many sacral, spinal nerves are there?

A

5

184
Q

How many coxygeal, spinal nerves are there?

A

1

185
Q

Name the 8 characteristics of life.

A

Maintain boundaries (skin, cell membranes)Movement (muscles, fluids through organs)Responsiveness/Irritability (muscle reflex to stimuli, CO2 low=rapid breathing response)DigestionMetabolismExcretion (digestion, urinary, respiratory)Reproduction (cells, organisms)Growth (body part, cells, organism)

186
Q

What regulates metabolism?

A

Hormones secreted by endocrine glands

187
Q

Name the 5 survival needs.

A

NutrientsOxygenWaterTemperaturePressure

188
Q

What is some type of sensor monitoring the environment that responds to stimuli by sending input to control center via afferent pathway?

A

receptor

189
Q

What does an effector do?

A

Provides the means for control center’s output to stimulusSends feedback to influence the effect of stimuli (either reducing or enhancing it)

190
Q

What numbers are acids on pH scale?

A

0-7

191
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum sends the object that is made to which organelle

A

golgi apparatus

192
Q

What are fibrous sheets of connective tissue which may be attached to coverings of adjacent muscles?

A

aponeuroses

193
Q

What muscles cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover?

A

antagonists

194
Q

What attaches muscle to bone?

A

tendon

195
Q

What type of muscle contraction is it if the muscle length stays the same during contraction?

A

isometric

196
Q

What type of muscle contraction is it if the muscle contracts & its ends are pulled closer together?

A

isotonic

197
Q

What type of muscle is found in the wall of hollow organs?

A

smooth muscle

198
Q

What type of muscle is found in the heart & has intercalated disks?

A

cardiac muscle

199
Q

Which muscle covers the shoulder joint?

A

deltoid

200
Q

Which muscle is the calf muscle?

A

gastrocnemius

201
Q

Which muscle forms the anterior arm?

A

biceps brachii

202
Q

What is the immovable end of a skeletal muscle?

A

origin

203
Q

What 2 electrolytes are important for nerve cell conduction and transmission of impulses?

A

potassium & sodium

204
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12

205
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31

206
Q

How many cervical nerves are there?

A

8

207
Q

How many thoracic nerves are there?

A

12

208
Q

How many lumbar nerves are there?

A

5

209
Q

How many sacral nerves are there?

A

5

210
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are there?

A

1

211
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

a bond formed by the transfer of electrons & the subsequent attraction of opposite charged

212
Q

Describe a hydrogen bond.

A

formed when a Hydrogen atom that is already covalently bonded to 1 electronegative atom is attracted to another electronegative atom so that a “bridge” forms between them

213
Q

What is passive transport?

A

when molecules flow with the concentration gradient

214
Q

What is diffusion?

A

movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low one

215
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

When a protein helps a molecule pass through the lipid bilayer

216
Q

A pH increase/decrease of 1 is how many times more basic/acidic?

A

10 times

217
Q

A pH increase/decrease of 2 is how many times more basic/acidic?

A

100 times

218
Q

A pH increase/decrease of 3 is how many times more basic/acidic?

A

1000 times

219
Q

Name the steps of protein synthesis.

A

Transcription (DNA forms mRNA molecule)Translation (mRNA meets tRNA & amino acids @ ribosome to make polypeptide chain)

220
Q

Describe the steps of translation in detail.

A

mRNA meets up with tRNA (which brings amino acids along) in the cytoplasm at the ribosomeamino acids line up with mRNAevery 3 bases of mRNA makes a codoncompleted item is a polypeptide chain

221
Q

Where does translation occur?

A

in the cytoplasm

222
Q

3 bases of mRNA makes what?

A

a codon

223
Q

What is energy?

A

The ability to do work.

224
Q

What is the energy currency of cells?

A

the ATP cycle

225
Q

What does ATP stand for?

A

adenosine triphosphate

226
Q

What are the steps of the ATP cycle?

A

ADP + P (energy required to form bond) = ATPATP - P (bond breaking releases energy) = ADP

227
Q

What type of reaction is anabolism?

A

a building reaction

228
Q

What type of reaction is catabolism?

A

a breakdown reaction

229
Q

Is hydrolysis anabolic or catabolic?

A

catabolic

230
Q

Is dehydration anabolic or catabolic?

A

anabolic

231
Q

Describe hydrolysis.

A

adding H2O to break bonds

232
Q

Describe dehydration.

A

removing H2O to create bonds

233
Q

What is oxydation?

A

loss of electrons

234
Q

What is reduction?

A

gain of electrons

235
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

act as catalysts & increase reaction rates

236
Q

All enzymes are ______ (classification)?

A

proteins

237
Q

What make proteins?

A

amino acids

238
Q

What are the properties of enzymes?

A

have a specific jobhave specific shapehave optimal pH’s & temps they work atreduce activation energy required for a reactionusually end in “ase”

239
Q

Describe competitive inhibition.

A

When a similar molecule gets in enzyme’s active site before substrate can

240
Q

Describe non-competitive inhibition.

A

When another molecule binds to enzyme somewhere other than active site causing it to change shape so that substrate no longer fits

241
Q

What is an allosteric site?

A

any binding site other than the active site (of enzymes)

242
Q

Where does cellular respiration occur?

A

on cristae of mitochondria

243
Q

What is the formula for cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP

244
Q

What does anaerobic mean?

A

without oxygen

245
Q

What are the stages of cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis (glucose breaks down to pyruvic acid)Transition Reaction(formation of acetyl coenzyme A)Krebs CycleNAD+ & FAD+ pick-up/transport electrons to ETCElectron Transport Chain (ETC)

246
Q

What happens to any leftover electrons after cellular respiration?

A

they bind with O2 to make water

247
Q

What is the final electron acceptor?

A

O2

248
Q

Which stages of cellular respiration are anaerobic?

A

Glycolysis and Transition Reaction

249
Q

Which stages of cellular respiration are aerobic?

A

Krebs cycleNAD+ & FAD+ electron pick-up/transportElectron Transport Chain

250
Q

If no oxygen is available after glycolysis, what happens?

A

fermentation

251
Q

What are the 2 products of fermentation?

A

alcohol & lactic acid

252
Q

How many ATPs are made in glycolysis?

A

2

253
Q

What is the product of glycolysis?

A

pyruvic acid

254
Q

What is formed during the Transition Reaction?

A

acetyl coenzyme A

255
Q

How many ATPs are made during the Krebs Cycle?

A

2

256
Q

How many ATPs are made in the Electron Transport Chain?

A

32

257
Q

1 glucose yields how many ATPs?

A

36

258
Q

Name the types of tissue.

A

EpithelialConnectiveMuscleNervous

259
Q

What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A

lines bodyabsorbs & secreteshas glandsprovides protectiondoes NOT have blood supplyprotects

260
Q

What type of cells are found in epithelial tissue?

A

cuboidcolumnarsquamous

261
Q

Explain the difference between stratified and simple epithelial tissue?

A

stratified - has multiple layers & a basement membranesimple- has one layer

262
Q

What are the types of glands?

A

endocrine & exocrine

263
Q

Describe an exocrine gland.

A

one that excretes into a duct

264
Q

Describe an endocrine gland.

A

one that excretes directly into tissue

265
Q

What are the characteristics of connective tissue?

A

bindssupportshas a matrix (aka ground substance)

266
Q

List some examples of epithelial tissues.

A

epidermismucous & serous membranes

267
Q

What are some examples of connective tissue?

A

bloodcartilagebonesadipose

268
Q

What are the types of connective tissue cells?

A

fibroblastsmastmacrophagesother (chondroblast, osteoblast, heatopoietic stem cells)

269
Q

What do fibroblasts do?

A

secrete protein fibers

270
Q

What do mast cells do?

A

secrete heparin & histamine

271
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

eat cells (they are phagocytotic)

272
Q

How are connective tissues made?

A

from fibroblasts

273
Q

Name the types of connective tissue fibers.

A

CollagenousElasticReticular

274
Q

What are collagenous fibers also referred to as?

A

white fibers

275
Q

What are examples of collagenous fibers?

A

bone & cartilage

276
Q

What is an example of elastic fibers?

A

vocal chords

277
Q

Where would you find reticular fibers?

A

around the eye sockets

278
Q

What does muscle do?

A

provide movement

279
Q

What are the types of muscles?

A

smoothskeletalcardiac

280
Q

Which muscle type is voluntary?

A

skeletal

281
Q

Which type of muscle has intercalated disks?

A

cardiac

282
Q

What does the nervous system do?

A

send & receive impulses

283
Q

What are the types of nervous cells?

A

neurons & neuroglial cells

284
Q

What do neuroglial cells do?

A

support, nourish & protect neurons

285
Q

What are the major types of membranes?

A

serousmucouscutaneoussynovial

286
Q

Where are serous membranes found?

A

lining parts of the body that do NOT open to the outside

287
Q

Where are mucous membranes found?

A

lining parts of the body that DO open to the outside

288
Q

Where are cutaneous membranes found?

A

epidermis & dermis

289
Q

What kind of tissue are serous & mucous membranes made from?

A

epithelium

290
Q

What kind of tissue are cutaneous membranes made from?

A

epithelium & connective tissues

291
Q

What do goblet cells do?

A

secrete mucus

292
Q

What kind of tissue are synovial membranes made from?

A

connective

293
Q

What do synovial membranes do?

A

bind & support

294
Q

What are the functions of the integumentary system?

A

Protection (from pathogens, dehydration)Maintain body temperatureCutaneous sensation (sensor receptors in skin)Metabolic functions (Vit. D production)Blood reservoirExcretion

295
Q

Why is vitamin D important?

A

It allows for calcium absorption.

296
Q

What specific type of cells is the epidermis made of?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

297
Q

What are the layers of the skin?

A

epidermisdermis

298
Q

What is the stratum basale?

A

The embryonic, innermost layer of the epidermis where new cell growth takes place.

299
Q

Where is the stratum basale located?

A

just above the basement layer

300
Q

What is the stratum corneum?

A

The keritanized (dead), outermost layer of the epidermis.

301
Q

Where would you find the basement layer?

A

on the bottom of epithelial cell layers

302
Q

What is the papillae?

A

the ridges where the dermis projects up into the dermis

303
Q

What creates fingerprints?

A

papillae

304
Q

What is collagen and what does it do?

A

a protein that gives skin elasticity

305
Q

What is keratin?

A

a waterproofing protein

306
Q

What is melanin?

A

skin pigment

307
Q

Where does the hair develop/grow from?

A

hair follicle

308
Q

What is the smooth muscle found in the dermis, attached to the hair follicle, that causes the hair to become erect when cold?

A

arrector pili muscle

309
Q

What are sebaceous glands?

A

oil glands

310
Q

What is another term for a sweat gland?

A

sudoriferous gland

311
Q

What are the 2 types of sweat (sudoriferous) glands?

A

eccrine & apocrine

312
Q

Why are eccrine glands activated to cause sweat?

A

due to increased body temperature

313
Q

Why are apocrine glands activated to cause sweat?

A

due to stress, nerves, pain, emotions

314
Q

What are 2 types of modified sweat glands?

A

ceruminous & mammary glands

315
Q

What is cerumin?

A

wax

316
Q

Where are ceruminous glands located?

A

external ear canal

317
Q

What do mammary glands do?

A

create milk via lactation

318
Q

T/F. Stratified squamous epithelium can be found in the epidermis.

A

T

319
Q

T/F. Smooth muscle can be found in the dermis.

A

T (arrector pili muscle)

320
Q

What type of cells make bone?

A

osteoblasts

321
Q

What type of cells make cartilage?

A

chondroblasts

322
Q

What type of cells make blood?

A

hematopoietic stem cells

323
Q

What type of cell makes collagen & extracellular matrix of connective tissue?

A

fibroblasts

324
Q

What is the correct order of the levels of structural hierarchy from lowest to highest?

A

chemical level, cellular level, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

325
Q

What does the lymphatic system do?

A
  • picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels & returns it to blood-disposes of debris in the lymphatic stream-houses white blood cells involved in immunity
326
Q

What does the respiratory system do?

A

keeps blood supplied with O2 & removes CO2

327
Q

What does the urinary system do?

A
  • eliminates nitrogenous waste-regulates water, electrolytes & acid/base balance of the body
328
Q

What is the system responsible for reproduction?

A

reproductive system

329
Q

What system is responsible for breaking down food into units that are able to be absorbed?

A

digestive system

330
Q

Which body system protects deeper tissue from injury, makes vitamin D & houses cutaneous receptors/sweat glands/oil glands?

A

integumentary system

331
Q

Which system stores minerals & forms blood cells?

A

skeletal system

332
Q

Which system responds to internal & external changes by activating appropriate muscles & glands?

A

nervous system

333
Q

Which system transports blood (which carries O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, etc)?

A

cardiovascular system

334
Q

What form the framework of the body?

A

bones

335
Q

What is living tissue supplied by blood vessels, lymphatic vessels & nerves?

A

bone

336
Q

The skeleton provides structure for the body & _______ for body organs?

A

protection

337
Q

What is the end of a long bone called?

A

epiphysis

338
Q

What type of bone is the epiphysis made of?

A

spongy bone

339
Q

What is the shaft of a bone called?

A

diaphysis

340
Q

What type of bone is the diaphysis made of?

A

compact bone

341
Q

Many of the various landmarks on bones are points for _____, _______, & ______ attachments.

A

tendon, ligament & muscle

342
Q

Some of the landmarks on bones are spaces through which ______ & ______ pass.

A

nerves & blood vessels

343
Q

What are constructed with fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, or synovial fluid between articulating bones?

A

joints

344
Q

What is a site where 2 or more bones meet?

A

joint/articulation

345
Q

What is the most freely movable joint?

A

ball & socket

346
Q

What disease is characterized by excessive bone deposition & resorption, with resulting bone abnormally high in spongy bone?

A

Paget’s disease

347
Q

What is the name for a number of disorders in adults in which the bone is inadequately mineralized?

A

osteomalacia

348
Q

What is an inadequate mineralization of bones in children caused by insufficient calcium or vitamin D deficiency.

A

Rickets

349
Q

What is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit?

A

osteoporosis

350
Q

Who is most at risk of osteoporosis?

A

elderly, postmenopausal, caucasian, women

351
Q

Name 6 functions of bone.

A

supportprotectmovementmineral & growth factor storagehematopoiesis (making blood)fat storage

352
Q

How are fractures classified?

A

Position (displaced/non-displaced)Completeness of break (complete/incomplete)Orientation of break to long axis (linear/transverse)Penetration of skin (open/closed aka compound/simple)

353
Q

What are the 4 major steps in fracture repair?

A

Hematoma forms (bruise)Fibrocartilaginous callus formsBony callus formsBone remodeling occurs

354
Q

What do osteoclasts do?

A

break down bone

355
Q

Where is yellow marrow found?

A

diaphysis of long bones (in adults)

356
Q

Where is red marrow found?

A
  • in the epiphysis of long bones & diploe of flat bones in adults- in all of the above plus medullary cavity in infants
357
Q

What is yellow marrow made of?

A

fat

358
Q

Which marrow is more active in hematopoiesis?

A

red marrow

359
Q

Which bones of the body are formed by intramembranous bone growth?

A

skull & clavicles

360
Q

Which bones of the body are formed by endochondral growth?

A

all bones except the skull & clavicles

361
Q

What layer of tissue lies just below the skin (cutaneous layer)?

A

hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)

362
Q

Which layer of the integument (skin) contains a blood supply, nerves & sensory receptors?

A

dermis

363
Q

What is an embryo’s skeleton made of?

A

cartilage & fibrous membranes

364
Q

What kind of ossification occurs when bone develops from fibrous membranes?

A

intramembranous ossification

365
Q

In intramembranous ossification, what is converted to true bone matrix?

A

osteoid

366
Q

What are osteoblasts called once they have been trapped in bone matrix and mature?

A

osteocysts

367
Q

What is the name of the unossified remnants of fibrous membranes in a newborn’s skull?

A

fontanel

368
Q

The human brain expands to what percent of the adult volume during the 1st year of life?

A

50-70%

369
Q

What type of joint is an adult suture?

A

synarthrotic (to protect brain)

370
Q

What type of joint is a newborn suture?

A

amphiarthrotic (to protect brain while still allowing growth)

371
Q

What are the functional classifications of joints?

A

synarthoses (immovable)amphiarthroses (slightly moveable)diarthroses (freely moveable)

372
Q

What are the structural classifications of joints?

A

fibrouscartilaginoussynovial

373
Q

What are the 3 types of fibrous joints?

A

syndemosis (inferior tib/fib)suture (skull)gomphosis (teeth roots

374
Q

What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints?

A

symphysis (pubic symphysis)synchondrosis (growth plate)

375
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A

gliding (intercarpals)hinge (elbow)pivot (C1-C2)ellipsoid (MCP)saddle (1st CMC)ball & socket (hip)

376
Q

What is the coordinating agency for all systems?

A

nervous system

377
Q

What are the 2 structural divisions of the nervous system?

A

CNS (central nervous system)PNS (peripheral nervous system

378
Q

What parts are included in the CNS (central nervous system)?

A

brain & spinal cord

379
Q

What parts are included in the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?

A

cranial nervesspinal nervesperipheral nerves(All parts of the nervous system except the brain and spinal cord)

380
Q

What are the components of the nervous system?

A

neurons & neuroglial cells

381
Q

What are the functioning cells of the nervous system?

A

neurons

382
Q

What are the non-conducting cells of the nervous system that protect & support neurons?

A

neuroglial cells

383
Q

What are the 2 types of appendages or arms of a neuron?

A

dendrites & axons

384
Q

What are the receptors of a neuron called (neuron fibers that conduct impulses to the cell body)?

A

dendrites

385
Q

What part of a neuron conducts impulses away from the cell body?

A

axons

386
Q

What is the “reflex arc?”

A

the complete pathway from stimulus to response

387
Q

What does the receptor (dendrite) do?

A

detects stimulus

388
Q

What are the afferent neurons called (carry impulse to CNS)?

A

sensory neurons

389
Q

Where are impulses coordinated & a response to a stimulus organized?

A

CNS (central nervous system)

390
Q

What are the efferent neurons called (carry impulse away from CNS)?

A

motor neurons

391
Q

What is the muscle or gland outside CNS (central nervous system) that carries out the “response?”

A

effector

XRAY (6 decks)

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