XRAY A&P Flashcards
1
Q
Dr. Johnson is your favorite radiologist, so you decided to go to his office to say hello. While there, he explains that the hospital administrator is a patient in ICU. He asks you to log into the computer system so he can check the medical records and the health status of the administrator. Which of the following is the appropriate response?A. You quickly type in your password so Dr. Johnson can look at the administrator’s medical records.B. You explain to Dr. Johnson that you cannot do that because you could get in trouble for breaching the patient’s rights to privacy.C. You check with the department manager to see if it is all right to use your password to login for Dr. Johnson.D. You inform Dr. Johnson that you just did a portable chest exam on the administrator and he was just put on life support.
A
B. You explain to Dr. Johnson that you cannot do that because you could get in trouble for breaching the patient’s rights to privacy.
2
Q
After a barium enema, you notice that the sheets have fecal material and blood on them. What should be done with the sheets?A. Place them in a leak proof linen bagB. Place them in a red biohazardous bagC. Place them in a red bag and then put them in a leak-proof linen bagD. Double bag them
A
A. Place them in a leak proof linen bag
3
Q
Seven pairs of ribs are visualized in the right lung field of an infant AP chest radiograph. Which of the following would be necessary to improve this radiograph?A. Increase kVp to see the ribs below the diaphragmB. Catch infant on inspiration to visualize ten ribs in the right lung fieldC. Use a grid to absorb scatter radiationD. Pinch the infant to make it cry
A
B. Catch infant on inspiration to visualize ten ribs in the right lung field
4
Q
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate foreign bodies in the hand?A. TunnelB. CarpalC. Ulnar flexionD. Lateral in extension
A
D. Lateral in extension
5
Q
Which of the following positions of the abdomen should be used to demonstrate air-fluid levels when an erect position cannot be obtained?A. ProneB. FowlerC. Right anterior obliqueD. Left lateral decubitus
A
D. Left lateral decubitus
6
Q
When manipulating a digital image, what does changing the window width do?A. Changes the brightness of the imageB. Changes the contrast of the imageC. Changes the resolution of the imageD. Changes the size of the image
A
B. Changes the contrast of the image
7
Q
What does the term asepsis mean?A. Free from infectionB. UnsterileC. CleanD. Spread of disease
A
A. Free from infection
8
Q
To demonstrate the greater tubercle of the humerus, which of the following would be correct?A. Supinate the handB. Internally rotate the armC. Abduct the armD. Flex the elbow
A
A. Supinate the hand
9
Q
Where should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the knee joint?A. 1 cm proximal to the base of the patellaB. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patellaC. 1 cm distal to the base of the patellaD. Parallel to patellar surface
A
B. 1 cm distal to the apex of the patella
10
Q
The distal end of an endotracheal tube should be placed _______ superior to the carina.A. 1 cmB. 3 cmC. 5 cmD. 7 cm
A
C. 5 cm
11
Q
Which of the following are best demonstrated in the oblique position of the lumbar spine?A. Intervertebral foraminaB. Spinous processesC. Zygapophyseal jointsD. Pedicals
A
C. Zygapophyseal joints
12
Q
Which of the following refers to the movement of the imaging plate as it is being read by the laser?A. Fast scanB. Slow scanC. DirectionD. Sliding
A
B. Slow scan
13
Q
The red arrow is pointing at what anatomical structure?A. Sella turcicaB. External auditory meatusC. Lateral margin of the orbitD. Sphenoid sinus
A
D. Sphenoid sinus
14
Q
Fuji’s cassette-based system uses a sensitivity (S) number to determine if the proper exposure was received by the imaging plate. If 200 is the ideal number, what number would indicate the plate was exposed to twice the necessary radiation?A. 50B. 100C. 200D. 400
A
B. 100
15
Q
Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?A. APB. 15 - 20 degree medial obliqueC. 45 degree medial obliqueD. Lateral
A
C. 45 degree medial oblique
16
Q
Non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast media:A. contains no iodine.B. produces no adverse reaction.C. does not dissolve into charged particles.D. is less expensive than ionic, water-soluble contrast media.
A
C. does not dissolve into charged particles.
17
Q
Where should the CR enter for an AP projection during an operative cholangiogram?A. At the level of the iliac crestB. At the level of the ASISC. At the xiphoid tipD. Where the surgeon indicates
A
D. Where the surgeon indicates
18
Q
The 4th cervical vertebra lies at the level of which of the following topographical landmarks?A. Sternal notchB. Angle of the mandibleC. Thyroid cartilageD. Mastoid process
A
C. Thyroid cartilage
19
Q
Which of the following would NOT be considered a type of transmission-based precaution?A. AIDSB. ContactC. AirborneD. Droplet
A
A. AIDS
20
Q
Which of the following is the name for the socket which holds the head of the femur?A. Glenoid fossaB. AcetabulumC. Mandibular fossaD. Olecrannon
A
B. Acetabulum
21
Q
What is the greatest advantage of digital imaging?A. Contrast resolutionB. Spatial resolutionC. Decreased exposureD. Less distortion
A
A. Contrast resolution
22
Q
Which of the following documents express a patient’s choices about his/her future care?A. Patient’s Bill of RightsB. Standards of EthicsC. Living WillD. Informed Consent
A
C. Living Will
23
Q
When should the exposure be made for an AP projection or lateral position of the upper airway?A. After deep inspirationB. After expirationC. During a slow, deep inspirationD. During rapid respiration
A
C. During a slow, deep inspiration
24
Q
In computed radiography, if a cassette has NOT been used for _______ hours, the imaging plate should be erased.A. 8B. 16C. 24D. 48
A
D. 48
25
For a lateral position of the L5-S1 junction, the central ray enters on the midcoronal plane at a point:A. 1 1/2" inferior to the iliac crest.B. 2 1/2" superior to the iliac crest.C. 3 1/2" inferior to the iliac crest.D. directly on the iliac crest.
A. 1 1/2" inferior to the iliac crest.
26
In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?A. Medial cuneiformB. Lateral cuneiformC. CuboidD. Navicular
B. Lateral cuneiform
27
The nasal bones articulate with which of the following bones?1. Ethmoid2. Frontal3. MaxillaeA. 1 onlyB. 1 & 2 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
28
Medications include which of the following?A. Contrast mediaB. AnalgesicsC. DiureticsD. All of the above
D. All of the above
29
Which of the following DICOM standards assures digital images will look the same on various monitors?A. DICOM LCDB. DICOM encoding schemeC. DICOM grayscale standard display functionD. DICOM capture system
C. DICOM grayscale standard display function
30
Which of the following would relate to a film-screen radiograph having low contrast?1. Long scale2. Many shades of gray3. Low kVpA. 1 & 2 onlyB. 1 & 3 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3
A. 1 & 2 only
31
A patient that develops hives after the injection of a contrast medium may be given which type of drug?A. AntihistamineB. AntibioticC. AnalgesicD. Anti-inflammatory
A. Antihistamine
32
Which of the following positions/projections best demonstrates the esophagus filled with barium?A. APB. LAOC. RAOD. Right lateral decubitus
C. RAO
33
What is the name of the most distal part of the stomach?A. Cardiac orificeB. PylorusC. BodyD. Fundus
B. Pylorus
34
Which of the following is an acceptable means for receiving a request to perform an examination?1. Verbal request over the phone from the physician's office2. Written request from the physician's office3. Verbal request from the patientA. 1 onlyB. 1 & 2 onlyC. 2 & 3 onlyD. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1 & 2 only
35
Where is the needle placed for a lumbar puncture during a myelogram?A. T12 - L1B. L1 - L2C. L3 - L4D. L5 - S1
C. L3 - L4
36
Which of the following radiographic procedures would require nonionic contrast media as opposed to ionic contrast media?A. Intravenous urographyB. MyelographyC. SialographyD. Venography
B. Myelography
37
Which of the following is/are associated with good body mechanics?A. Provide a broad base of supportB. When lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straightC. Keep your load well balanced and close to your bodyD. All of the above
D. All of the above
38
Which of the following is the preferred SID for a portable (mobile) radiograph of the chest?A. 36"B. 40"C. 55"D. 72"
D. 72"
39
For a true lateral position of the skull, the midsagittal plane must be in which for these positions?A. Perpendicular to the image receptorB. At a right angle to the image receptorC. Parallel to the image receptorD. Parallel to the CR
C. Parallel to the image receptor
40
After a myelogram, the patient may be taken to _______ for additional studies while the contrast is still in the subarachnoid space.A. CTB. MRIC. SonographyD. Nuclear medicine
A. CT
41
Which of the following will be on the cover of a patient's chart if he/she does not want to be resuscitated if he/she quits breathing or his/her heart stops beating?A. CPRB. NPOC. DNRD. Stop
C. DNR
42
During retrograde urography contrast media is administered in which of the following ways?A. IntravenouslyB. Via a cystoscopeC. Via a ureteral catheterD. Intramuscularly
C. Via a ureteral catheter
43
How would you attempt to stop the bleeding if your patient started to hemorrhage from the radial artery?A. Raise the armB. Place a tourniquet directly above the elbowC. Place a tourniquet directly below the elbowD. Apply direct pressure to the wound
D. Apply direct pressure to the wound
44
Which of the following describes the term projection?A. Patient positionB. Path of the x-ray beamC. Radiographic viewD. Body habitus type
B. Path of the x-ray beam
45
Any image on a radiograph that is foreign to the patient, describes which of the following?A. StaticB. EmissionC. ArtifactD. Crescent mark
C. Artifact
46
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?A. GallbladderB. SpleenC. PancreasD. Liver
B. Spleen
47
For the oblique position, the foot should be rotated how many degrees medially?A. 15B. 30C. 45D. 60
B. 30
48
Which of the following should be done to reduce OID on a PA projection of the wrist?A. Increase SIDB. Flex fingers slightlyC. Elevate elbowD. Extend thumb upward
B. Flex fingers slightly
49
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the rectum filled with barium?A. SupineB. ErectC. RPOD. Lateral
D. Lateral
50
Betadine is used for which of the following?A. Topical anestheticB. Contrast agentC. LubricantD. Skin disinfectant
D. Skin disinfectant
51
According to the anode heel effect, in the diagram to the right, which letter corresponds to the greatest radiation intensity?A. AB. BC. CD. D
D. D
52
AP weight bearing knees are ordered to demonstrate which of the following pathologies?A. Tibial plateau fractureB. ArthritisC. EdemaD. Torn meniscus
B. Arthritis
53
Failure of a radiographer to provide reasonable care describes which of the following?A. AssaultB. BatteryC. NegligenceD. Slander
C. Negligence
54
To best demonstrate the body of the mandible in an axiolateral projection, the head must be placed in which of the following positions?A. True lateralB. 30 degree rotation toward the affected sideC. 45 degree rotation toward the affected sideD. 60 degree rotation toward the affected side
B. 30 degree rotation toward the affected side
55
To prevent shape distortion which of the two elements must be parallel?A. The object and the CRB. The object and the image receptorC. The CR and the image receptorD. The CR and the object
B. The object and the image receptor
56
A patient suddenly has difficulty breathing, what is the first thing a radiographer must do?A. Lie the patient supineB. Call for helpC. Administer oxygenD. Begin CPR
B. Call for help
57
Which of the following is a graphical representation of the numerical values that make up a digital image?A. HistogramB. Bar graphC. Scatter graphD. Pictograph
A. Histogram
58
Beam restriction will affect which of the following radiographic qualities?A. BrightnessB. ContrastC. Recorded detailD. Distortion
B. Contrast
59
Why was this lumbar spine radiograph repeated?A. Bucky tray was not pushed inB. Grid cutoffC. Right marker in anatomyD. X-ray tube was not detented
D. X-ray tube was not detented
60
The scapular Y position is used to demonstrate which of the following?A. Acromioclavicular separationB. The shoulder joint in an oblique positionC. Anterior or posterior dislocation of the humerusD. The relationship between the coracoid process and the scapular spine
C. Anterior or posterior dislocation of the humerus
61
To make sure the proper patient information and images get sent to the proper folder in PACS, the best practice is to make sure the _______ on the worklist matches the _______ on the patient's requisition.A. gender, genderB. birth date, birth dateC. accession number, accession numberD. patient's name, patient's name
C. accession number, accession number
62
In the radiograph to the right, the red arrow is pointing to which of the following anatomical parts?A. Distal phalanx of the great toeB. Middle phalanx of the great toeC. Proximal phalanx of the great toeD. 1st metatarsal of the great toe
C. Proximal phalanx of the great toe
63
What is the greatest disadvantage of digital imaging?A. Contrast resolutionB. Spatial resolutionC. Decreased exposureD. Less distortion
B. Spatial resolution
64
What is the function of contrast in a radiograph?A. Increase brightnessB. Increase the sharpness of detailC. Increase the visibility of detailD. Increase distortion
C. Increase the visibility of detail
65
How would the digit "0" of a CR or DR digital image appear on a monitor?A. Black pixelB. White pixelC. Gray pixelD. Dull pixel
B. White pixel
66
What is the rounded process on the proximal, lateral aspect of the femur called?A. Lateral epicondyleB. Greater trochanterC. Medial tubercleD. Femoral tuberosity
B. Greater trochanter
67
Which of the following positions/projections is demonstrated in this radiograph?A. Lateral cervical spineB. Lateral cervical spine in flexionC. Lateral cervical spine in extensionD. Oblique
C. Lateral cervical spine in extension
68
A lateral projection of the thoracic spine requires a breathing technique of at least how many seconds?A. 1B. 3C. 5D. 7
B. 3
69
Which of the following would increase the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)?A. Increase x-ray intensityB. Increase scatter radiationC. Increase electronic noiseD. Increase background noise
A. Increase x-ray intensity
70
How will the use of radiographic grids affect the contrast of a radiograph?A. Produce lower contrastB. Produce higher contrastC. Eliminate contrastD. Have no effect on contrast
B. Produce higher contrast
71
If a digital imaging system can record 10 lines per millimeter, what is its spatial resolution?A. 1 lp/mmB. 5 lp/mmC. 10 lp/mmD. 20 lp/mm
B. 5 lp/mm
72
An AP projection of the pelvis requires the patient to be supine, the CR perpendicular, and entering a point:A. midway between the crests of the ilium.B. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.C. parallel to the sacroiliac joints.D. at the level of the sacral foramina.
B. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis.
73
During a myelogram, what position is the patient in when his head is put lower than his feet?A. FowlerB. ProneC. TrendelenburgD. Sim's
C. Trendelenburg
74
Name 10 endocrine glands
PinealPituitary (Anterior/Posterior)ThyroidParathyroidAdrenal (medulla/cortex)OvariesPlacentaTestesPancreasThymus
75
What gland secretes melatonin?
pineal
76
What gland secretes growth hormone?
Anterior pituitary
77
What gland secretes thyroid stimulating hormone?
anterior pituitary
78
What gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormones?
anterior pituitary
79
What gland secretes prolactin?
anterior pituitary
80
What gland secretes luteinizing hormone?
anterior pituitary
81
What gland secretes follicle stimulating hormone?
anterior pituitary
82
What gland secretes antidiuretic hormone?
posterior pituitary
83
What gland secretes oxytocin?
posterior pituitary
84
What gland secretes thyroxine?
thyroid
85
What gland secretes triiodothyronine?
thyroid
86
What gland secretes parathyroid hormone?
parathyroid
87
What gland secretes thymosins?
thymus
88
What gland secretes calcitonin?
thyroid
89
What gland secretes chromaffin cells?
adrenal medulla
90
What gland secretes epinephrine & norepinephrine?
adrenal medulla
91
What gland secretes vital hormones?
adrenal cortex
92
What gland secretes aldosterone?
adrenal cortex
93
What gland secretes cortisol?
adrenal cortex
94
What gland secretes male adrenal androgens?
adrenal cortex
95
What gland secretes hormones of Islets of Langerhans?
pancreas
96
What gland secretes alpha, beta & delta hormones?
pancreas
97
What glands secrete estrogen?
ovaries & placenta
98
What glands secrete progesterone?
ovaries & placenta
99
What secretes gonadotropin?
placenta
100
What gland secretes testosterone?
testes
101
What hormone is also known as Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone?
luteinizing hormone
102
What does thyroxine do?
metabolizes iodine
103
What does triiodothyronine do?
breaks down food, increases metabolism
104
Which thyroid hormone is secreted the most?
thyroxine
105
What does calcitonin do?
decreases calcium in blood
106
What does parathyroid hormone do?
increases calcium in blood
107
What happens if you get too much calcium?
become sluggish
108
What do chromaffin cells do?
store & secrete epinephrine/norepinephrine
109
What does aldosterone do?
regulates mineral & electrolytes, makes body retain water
110
What type of hormone is cortisol?
glucocorticoid
111
What can male adrenal androgens be made into?
estrogen
112
What do alpha hormones do?
secrete glucagon (breaks down glycogen into glucose)
113
What do beta hormones do?
secrete insulin (forms glycogen from glucose)
114
What do delta hormones do?
secrete somatostatin (inhibits secretion of glucagon & insulin)
115
What does estrogen do?
helps with secondary sex characteristics
116
What is the main female hormone?
progesterone
117
Name the 3 types of muscle tissue.
smooth cardiac skeletal
118
Where is smooth muscle found?
walls of visceral organs (except heart)eye musclesairways
119
What attaches muscle to bone?
tendons
120
What attaches bone to bone?
ligaments
121
What provides the energy to power muscles?
ATP
122
Muscle contraction results from what?
the sliding together of thick myosin & thin actin filaments within the muscle cell
123
Which muscle filament is thick?
myosin
124
Which muscle filament is thin?
actin
125
Do skeletal muscles act alone or in pairs/groups?
pairs/groups
126
What do we call the skeletal muscle that is most responsible for a given movement?
agonist or prime mover
127
What are the muscles that work in cooperation with the agonist/prime mover called?
synergists
128
What is the muscle that produces the opposite movement of the agonist/prime mover called?
antagonist
129
Muscles respond to what?
nerve impulses
130
Where do muscles receive nerve impulses?
neuromuscular junctions
131
What is secreted at neuromuscular junctions?
neurotransmitters
132
Explain what causes stimulation of a muscle fiber?
Nerve impulse travels from nerve to muscle cell at neuromuscular junctionneurotransmitter is secreted & is diffused across the junctionneurotransmitter stimulates muscle fiber
133
What neurotransmitter do motor neurons use to control skeletal muscle?
acetylcholine
134
Muscles working under anaerobic conditions produce what?
lactic acid
135
What chemical causes muscle fatigue?
lactic acid
136
What is the end of a muscle that is attached to a moving part called?
insertion
137
What is the end of a muscle that is attached to a fixed point called?
origin
138
What are the functional units of muscle fibers called?
sarcomeres
139
In a lever system, what is the lever?
a bar
140
What is a fulcrum?
the fixed point in a lever system
141
What is the applied force in a lever system called?
effort
142
In a lever system, what is the load?
some form of resistance
143
What is an example of a fulcrum in the body?
joints
144
What is an example of a lever in the body?
a bone
145
What is an example of an effort in the body?
muscle contraction
146
What is an example of a load in the body?
the weight of the bone itself along with overlying tissues
147
What is the contractile response of a single muscle fiber to a muscle impulse?
muscle twitch
148
What are the important ions in the nervous system?
sodium & potassium
149
What is it called when many action potentials are triggered in a motor neuron, resulting in a contraction of increasing strength?
a sustained contraction
150
Slow twitch (red fibers) muscle fibers
dependent on O2 and are fatigue resistant.
151
Fast Twitch (white fibers) muscle fibers
anaerobic, contract and fatigue rapidly; found in hands and eyes
152
Describe muscle tone
results from a continuous state of partial contraction; important in maintaining your posture
153
Describe Isometric Contractions
Contract with no movement; example is pushing against something
154
Describe Isotonic Contractions
contraction with muscle shortening, example is lifting a weight
155
What is all or none response?
muscle will respond completely or not at all; stimulus must surpass threshold to illicit response, response will be a complete contraction or none at all
156
Are voluntary muscles controlled by the somatic or autonomic nervous system?
somatic
157
Are involuntary muscles controlled by the somatic or autonomic nervous system?
autonomic
158
Is skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary?
voluntary
159
Is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?
involuntary
160
Is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?
involuntary
161
List the skeletal muscle structure in order from the outside to the inside.
Aponeurosis (covers groups of muscles)Fascia (covers single muscle)EpimysiumPerimysiumFasciclesEndomysiumMuscle Fibers
162
List structure of muscle fibers from the outside to the inside.
SarcolemmaMyofibrilsSarcomeresActin & Myosin
163
Which filament is thin?
actin
164
Which filament is thick?
myosin
165
What is the contracting, functioning unit of a muscle fiber?
sarcomeres
166
Sarcomeres have what 4 qualities?
A bands I bands H zones Z lines
167
List the steps to muscle contraction.
Muscle is at rest (polarized) Stimulus from nerve (threshold stimulus) Depolarization (Na+ channels open/Na+ flows in - action potential travels along) Repolarization (K channels open/K flows out - membrane returns to negative resting potential/polarized state)
168
What is metabolism?
All chemical processes occuring in the body
169
What does ATP stand for?
adenosine triphosphate
170
Why is ATP important to muscles?
It is required to make muscles work.
171
What is oxidation?
the loss of electrons
172
What is reduction?
a gain of electrons
173
Where does cellular respiration occur?
in the mitochondria
174
What are the steps of cellular respiration?
glycolysis (pyruvic acid) / \ O2 present lack of O2 / / \ transition reaction alcohol lactic acid (acetyl coenzyme A) / Krebs Cycle / electrons picked up by NAD & FAD / electron transport chain (32 ATP made - 36 total)
175
What is the equation for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP
176
Define homeostasis.
the ability to maintain a constant internal environment regardless of external conditions
177
List order of steps of homeostatic control.
stimulus (↑ or ↓ of body temp) is received by receptors (temp. sensitive receptors in skin) input is sent via afferent pathway to control center (brain) control center decides if stimulus crosses threshold (if so) control center sends output via the efferent pathway to effector (sweat glands/skeletal muscles) response (sweat evaporation & ↓ temp/shivering & ↑ temp) causes end of stimulus
178
How many cranial, spinal nerves are there?
12
179
How many spinal nerves are there total?
31
180
How many cervical, spinal nerves are there?
8
181
How many thoracic, spinal nerves are there?
12
182
How many lumbar, spinal nerves are there?
5
183
How many sacral, spinal nerves are there?
5
184
How many coxygeal, spinal nerves are there?
1
185
Name the 8 characteristics of life.
Maintain boundaries (skin, cell membranes)Movement (muscles, fluids through organs)Responsiveness/Irritability (muscle reflex to stimuli, CO2 low=rapid breathing response)DigestionMetabolismExcretion (digestion, urinary, respiratory)Reproduction (cells, organisms)Growth (body part, cells, organism)
186
What regulates metabolism?
Hormones secreted by endocrine glands
187
Name the 5 survival needs.
NutrientsOxygenWaterTemperaturePressure
188
What is some type of sensor monitoring the environment that responds to stimuli by sending input to control center via afferent pathway?
receptor
189
What does an effector do?
Provides the means for control center's output to stimulusSends feedback to influence the effect of stimuli (either reducing or enhancing it)
190
What numbers are acids on pH scale?
0-7
191
The endoplasmic reticulum sends the object that is made to which organelle
golgi apparatus
192
What are fibrous sheets of connective tissue which may be attached to coverings of adjacent muscles?
aponeuroses
193
What muscles cause movement in the opposite direction of the prime mover?
antagonists
194
What attaches muscle to bone?
tendon
195
What type of muscle contraction is it if the muscle length stays the same during contraction?
isometric
196
What type of muscle contraction is it if the muscle contracts & its ends are pulled closer together?
isotonic
197
What type of muscle is found in the wall of hollow organs?
smooth muscle
198
What type of muscle is found in the heart & has intercalated disks?
cardiac muscle
199
Which muscle covers the shoulder joint?
deltoid
200
Which muscle is the calf muscle?
gastrocnemius
201
Which muscle forms the anterior arm?
biceps brachii
202
What is the immovable end of a skeletal muscle?
origin
203
What 2 electrolytes are important for nerve cell conduction and transmission of impulses?
potassium & sodium
204
How many cranial nerves are there?
12
205
How many spinal nerves are there?
31
206
How many cervical nerves are there?
8
207
How many thoracic nerves are there?
12
208
How many lumbar nerves are there?
5
209
How many sacral nerves are there?
5
210
How many coccygeal nerves are there?
1
211
What is an ionic bond?
a bond formed by the transfer of electrons & the subsequent attraction of opposite charged
212
Describe a hydrogen bond.
formed when a Hydrogen atom that is already covalently bonded to 1 electronegative atom is attracted to another electronegative atom so that a "bridge" forms between them
213
What is passive transport?
when molecules flow with the concentration gradient
214
What is diffusion?
movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low one
215
What is facilitated diffusion?
When a protein helps a molecule pass through the lipid bilayer
216
A pH increase/decrease of 1 is how many times more basic/acidic?
10 times
217
A pH increase/decrease of 2 is how many times more basic/acidic?
100 times
218
A pH increase/decrease of 3 is how many times more basic/acidic?
1000 times
219
Name the steps of protein synthesis.
Transcription (DNA forms mRNA molecule)Translation (mRNA meets tRNA & amino acids @ ribosome to make polypeptide chain)
220
Describe the steps of translation in detail.
mRNA meets up with tRNA (which brings amino acids along) in the cytoplasm at the ribosomeamino acids line up with mRNAevery 3 bases of mRNA makes a codoncompleted item is a polypeptide chain
221
Where does translation occur?
in the cytoplasm
222
3 bases of mRNA makes what?
a codon
223
What is energy?
The ability to do work.
224
What is the energy currency of cells?
the ATP cycle
225
What does ATP stand for?
adenosine triphosphate
226
What are the steps of the ATP cycle?
ADP + P (energy required to form bond) = ATPATP - P (bond breaking releases energy) = ADP
227
What type of reaction is anabolism?
a building reaction
228
What type of reaction is catabolism?
a breakdown reaction
229
Is hydrolysis anabolic or catabolic?
catabolic
230
Is dehydration anabolic or catabolic?
anabolic
231
Describe hydrolysis.
adding H2O to break bonds
232
Describe dehydration.
removing H2O to create bonds
233
What is oxydation?
loss of electrons
234
What is reduction?
gain of electrons
235
What do enzymes do?
act as catalysts & increase reaction rates
236
All enzymes are ______ (classification)?
proteins
237
What make proteins?
amino acids
238
What are the properties of enzymes?
have a specific jobhave specific shapehave optimal pH's & temps they work atreduce activation energy required for a reactionusually end in "ase"
239
Describe competitive inhibition.
When a similar molecule gets in enzyme's active site before substrate can
240
Describe non-competitive inhibition.
When another molecule binds to enzyme somewhere other than active site causing it to change shape so that substrate no longer fits
241
What is an allosteric site?
any binding site other than the active site (of enzymes)
242
Where does cellular respiration occur?
on cristae of mitochondria
243
What is the formula for cellular respiration?
C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + ATP
244
What does anaerobic mean?
without oxygen
245
What are the stages of cellular respiration?
Glycolysis (glucose breaks down to pyruvic acid)Transition Reaction(formation of acetyl coenzyme A)Krebs CycleNAD+ & FAD+ pick-up/transport electrons to ETCElectron Transport Chain (ETC)
246
What happens to any leftover electrons after cellular respiration?
they bind with O2 to make water
247
What is the final electron acceptor?
O2
248
Which stages of cellular respiration are anaerobic?
Glycolysis and Transition Reaction
249
Which stages of cellular respiration are aerobic?
Krebs cycleNAD+ & FAD+ electron pick-up/transportElectron Transport Chain
250
If no oxygen is available after glycolysis, what happens?
fermentation
251
What are the 2 products of fermentation?
alcohol & lactic acid
252
How many ATPs are made in glycolysis?
2
253
What is the product of glycolysis?
pyruvic acid
254
What is formed during the Transition Reaction?
acetyl coenzyme A
255
How many ATPs are made during the Krebs Cycle?
2
256
How many ATPs are made in the Electron Transport Chain?
32
257
1 glucose yields how many ATPs?
36
258
Name the types of tissue.
EpithelialConnectiveMuscleNervous
259
What are the characteristics of epithelial tissue?
lines bodyabsorbs & secreteshas glandsprovides protectiondoes NOT have blood supplyprotects
260
What type of cells are found in epithelial tissue?
cuboidcolumnarsquamous
261
Explain the difference between stratified and simple epithelial tissue?
stratified - has multiple layers & a basement membranesimple- has one layer
262
What are the types of glands?
endocrine & exocrine
263
Describe an exocrine gland.
one that excretes into a duct
264
Describe an endocrine gland.
one that excretes directly into tissue
265
What are the characteristics of connective tissue?
bindssupportshas a matrix (aka ground substance)
266
List some examples of epithelial tissues.
epidermismucous & serous membranes
267
What are some examples of connective tissue?
bloodcartilagebonesadipose
268
What are the types of connective tissue cells?
fibroblastsmastmacrophagesother (chondroblast, osteoblast, heatopoietic stem cells)
269
What do fibroblasts do?
secrete protein fibers
270
What do mast cells do?
secrete heparin & histamine
271
What do macrophages do?
eat cells (they are phagocytotic)
272
How are connective tissues made?
from fibroblasts
273
Name the types of connective tissue fibers.
CollagenousElasticReticular
274
What are collagenous fibers also referred to as?
white fibers
275
What are examples of collagenous fibers?
bone & cartilage
276
What is an example of elastic fibers?
vocal chords
277
Where would you find reticular fibers?
around the eye sockets
278
What does muscle do?
provide movement
279
What are the types of muscles?
smoothskeletalcardiac
280
Which muscle type is voluntary?
skeletal
281
Which type of muscle has intercalated disks?
cardiac
282
What does the nervous system do?
send & receive impulses
283
What are the types of nervous cells?
neurons & neuroglial cells
284
What do neuroglial cells do?
support, nourish & protect neurons
285
What are the major types of membranes?
serousmucouscutaneoussynovial
286
Where are serous membranes found?
lining parts of the body that do NOT open to the outside
287
Where are mucous membranes found?
lining parts of the body that DO open to the outside
288
Where are cutaneous membranes found?
epidermis & dermis
289
What kind of tissue are serous & mucous membranes made from?
epithelium
290
What kind of tissue are cutaneous membranes made from?
epithelium & connective tissues
291
What do goblet cells do?
secrete mucus
292
What kind of tissue are synovial membranes made from?
connective
293
What do synovial membranes do?
bind & support
294
What are the functions of the integumentary system?
Protection (from pathogens, dehydration)Maintain body temperatureCutaneous sensation (sensor receptors in skin)Metabolic functions (Vit. D production)Blood reservoirExcretion
295
Why is vitamin D important?
It allows for calcium absorption.
296
What specific type of cells is the epidermis made of?
stratified squamous epithelium
297
What are the layers of the skin?
epidermisdermis
298
What is the stratum basale?
The embryonic, innermost layer of the epidermis where new cell growth takes place.
299
Where is the stratum basale located?
just above the basement layer
300
What is the stratum corneum?
The keritanized (dead), outermost layer of the epidermis.
301
Where would you find the basement layer?
on the bottom of epithelial cell layers
302
What is the papillae?
the ridges where the dermis projects up into the dermis
303
What creates fingerprints?
papillae
304
What is collagen and what does it do?
a protein that gives skin elasticity
305
What is keratin?
a waterproofing protein
306
What is melanin?
skin pigment
307
Where does the hair develop/grow from?
hair follicle
308
What is the smooth muscle found in the dermis, attached to the hair follicle, that causes the hair to become erect when cold?
arrector pili muscle
309
What are sebaceous glands?
oil glands
310
What is another term for a sweat gland?
sudoriferous gland
311
What are the 2 types of sweat (sudoriferous) glands?
eccrine & apocrine
312
Why are eccrine glands activated to cause sweat?
due to increased body temperature
313
Why are apocrine glands activated to cause sweat?
due to stress, nerves, pain, emotions
314
What are 2 types of modified sweat glands?
ceruminous & mammary glands
315
What is cerumin?
wax
316
Where are ceruminous glands located?
external ear canal
317
What do mammary glands do?
create milk via lactation
318
T/F. Stratified squamous epithelium can be found in the epidermis.
T
319
T/F. Smooth muscle can be found in the dermis.
T (arrector pili muscle)
320
What type of cells make bone?
osteoblasts
321
What type of cells make cartilage?
chondroblasts
322
What type of cells make blood?
hematopoietic stem cells
323
What type of cell makes collagen & extracellular matrix of connective tissue?
fibroblasts
324
What is the correct order of the levels of structural hierarchy from lowest to highest?
chemical level, cellular level, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
325
What does the lymphatic system do?
- picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels & returns it to blood-disposes of debris in the lymphatic stream-houses white blood cells involved in immunity
326
What does the respiratory system do?
keeps blood supplied with O2 & removes CO2
327
What does the urinary system do?
- eliminates nitrogenous waste-regulates water, electrolytes & acid/base balance of the body
328
What is the system responsible for reproduction?
reproductive system
329
What system is responsible for breaking down food into units that are able to be absorbed?
digestive system
330
Which body system protects deeper tissue from injury, makes vitamin D & houses cutaneous receptors/sweat glands/oil glands?
integumentary system
331
Which system stores minerals & forms blood cells?
skeletal system
332
Which system responds to internal & external changes by activating appropriate muscles & glands?
nervous system
333
Which system transports blood (which carries O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, etc)?
cardiovascular system
334
What form the framework of the body?
bones
335
What is living tissue supplied by blood vessels, lymphatic vessels & nerves?
bone
336
The skeleton provides structure for the body & _______ for body organs?
protection
337
What is the end of a long bone called?
epiphysis
338
What type of bone is the epiphysis made of?
spongy bone
339
What is the shaft of a bone called?
diaphysis
340
What type of bone is the diaphysis made of?
compact bone
341
Many of the various landmarks on bones are points for _____, _______, & ______ attachments.
tendon, ligament & muscle
342
Some of the landmarks on bones are spaces through which ______ & ______ pass.
nerves & blood vessels
343
What are constructed with fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, or synovial fluid between articulating bones?
joints
344
What is a site where 2 or more bones meet?
joint/articulation
345
What is the most freely movable joint?
ball & socket
346
What disease is characterized by excessive bone deposition & resorption, with resulting bone abnormally high in spongy bone?
Paget's disease
347
What is the name for a number of disorders in adults in which the bone is inadequately mineralized?
osteomalacia
348
What is an inadequate mineralization of bones in children caused by insufficient calcium or vitamin D deficiency.
Rickets
349
What is a group of diseases in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit?
osteoporosis
350
Who is most at risk of osteoporosis?
elderly, postmenopausal, caucasian, women
351
Name 6 functions of bone.
supportprotectmovementmineral & growth factor storagehematopoiesis (making blood)fat storage
352
How are fractures classified?
Position (displaced/non-displaced)Completeness of break (complete/incomplete)Orientation of break to long axis (linear/transverse)Penetration of skin (open/closed aka compound/simple)
353
What are the 4 major steps in fracture repair?
Hematoma forms (bruise)Fibrocartilaginous callus formsBony callus formsBone remodeling occurs
354
What do osteoclasts do?
break down bone
355
Where is yellow marrow found?
diaphysis of long bones (in adults)
356
Where is red marrow found?
- in the epiphysis of long bones & diploe of flat bones in adults- in all of the above plus medullary cavity in infants
357
What is yellow marrow made of?
fat
358
Which marrow is more active in hematopoiesis?
red marrow
359
Which bones of the body are formed by intramembranous bone growth?
skull & clavicles
360
Which bones of the body are formed by endochondral growth?
all bones except the skull & clavicles
361
What layer of tissue lies just below the skin (cutaneous layer)?
hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
362
Which layer of the integument (skin) contains a blood supply, nerves & sensory receptors?
dermis
363
What is an embryo's skeleton made of?
cartilage & fibrous membranes
364
What kind of ossification occurs when bone develops from fibrous membranes?
intramembranous ossification
365
In intramembranous ossification, what is converted to true bone matrix?
osteoid
366
What are osteoblasts called once they have been trapped in bone matrix and mature?
osteocysts
367
What is the name of the unossified remnants of fibrous membranes in a newborn's skull?
fontanel
368
The human brain expands to what percent of the adult volume during the 1st year of life?
50-70%
369
What type of joint is an adult suture?
synarthrotic (to protect brain)
370
What type of joint is a newborn suture?
amphiarthrotic (to protect brain while still allowing growth)
371
What are the functional classifications of joints?
synarthoses (immovable)amphiarthroses (slightly moveable)diarthroses (freely moveable)
372
What are the structural classifications of joints?
fibrouscartilaginoussynovial
373
What are the 3 types of fibrous joints?
syndemosis (inferior tib/fib)suture (skull)gomphosis (teeth roots
374
What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints?
symphysis (pubic symphysis)synchondrosis (growth plate)
375
What are the 6 types of synovial joints?
gliding (intercarpals)hinge (elbow)pivot (C1-C2)ellipsoid (MCP)saddle (1st CMC)ball & socket (hip)
376
What is the coordinating agency for all systems?
nervous system
377
What are the 2 structural divisions of the nervous system?
CNS (central nervous system)PNS (peripheral nervous system
378
What parts are included in the CNS (central nervous system)?
brain & spinal cord
379
What parts are included in the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?
cranial nervesspinal nervesperipheral nerves(All parts of the nervous system except the brain and spinal cord)
380
What are the components of the nervous system?
neurons & neuroglial cells
381
What are the functioning cells of the nervous system?
neurons
382
What are the non-conducting cells of the nervous system that protect & support neurons?
neuroglial cells
383
What are the 2 types of appendages or arms of a neuron?
dendrites & axons
384
What are the receptors of a neuron called (neuron fibers that conduct impulses to the cell body)?
dendrites
385
What part of a neuron conducts impulses away from the cell body?
axons
386
What is the "reflex arc?"
the complete pathway from stimulus to response
387
What does the receptor (dendrite) do?
detects stimulus
388
What are the afferent neurons called (carry impulse to CNS)?
sensory neurons
389
Where are impulses coordinated & a response to a stimulus organized?
CNS (central nervous system)
390
What are the efferent neurons called (carry impulse away from CNS)?
motor neurons
391
What is the muscle or gland outside CNS (central nervous system) that carries out the "response?"
effector
