XRAY 110 & lab Flashcards

1
Q

In what body habitus is the gallbladder most inferior?

A

asthenic

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2
Q

The lordotic position is used for visualizing what?

A

lung apices

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3
Q

What are the breathing instructions for an abdomen?

A

expiration

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4
Q

If you are doing a lateral of the 5th digit, you’d rest the hand on which side?

A

medial side

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5
Q

What view of the elbow shows the radial head free from superimposition?

A

lateral oblique

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6
Q

The 1st radiographic grid was made in what year?

A

1913

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7
Q

What is the most commonly performed oblique of the foot?

A

medial oblique

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8
Q

If you increase screen speed, what does it do to contrast?

A

increases contrast

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9
Q

Which bone is directly superior to the calcaneus?

A

talus

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10
Q

What provides the location for the formation of the latent image?

A

sensitivity speck

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11
Q

T/F. There is a definite divider between the abdominal cavity & the pelvic cavity.

A

False

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12
Q

Which lung is shorter?

A

right lung

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13
Q

Which quadrant does the liver lie in?

A

right upper quadrant

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14
Q

What is the CR for a PA Oblique hand?

A

3rd MCP (metacarpal phalangeal)

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15
Q

For a lateral elbow projection, the humeral epicondyles should be ________ to the IR?

A

perpendicular

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16
Q

Which portion of the patella is the apex?

A

the bottom part

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17
Q

What is the CR for an AP projection of the foot?

A

base of the 3rd metatarsal

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18
Q

What type of grid is used for a moving grid?

A

focused grid

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19
Q

If you increase screen speed, what happens to density?

A

density is increased (because more photons hit IR)

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20
Q

Which layer of the film is the thickest?

A

the base

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21
Q

What body habitus describes 50% of the population?

A

sthenic

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22
Q

What is the recommended SID for a PA chest projection?

A

72” (183cm)

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23
Q

What does the “U” stand for in KUB?

A

ureters

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24
Q

What is the CR for digits 2-5 (for one of them, not all)?

A

PIP (proximal interphalangeal joint)

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25
Q

What is the central ray for an AP projection of the forearm?

A

midpoint of the forearm

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26
Q

How many tarsals are there in 1 foot?

A

7

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27
Q

The lateral malleolus is on what bone?

A

fibula

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28
Q

What was the first type of grid made?

A

cross or crosshatched

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29
Q

The thickest layer of the radiographic intensifying screen?

A

base

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30
Q

What type of film is commonly used today?

A

screen film

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31
Q

What portion of the skeleton supports the head & trunk?

A

axial skeleton

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32
Q

What size cassette should be used for a KUB abdomen image?

A

14”x17” (35x43cm)

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33
Q

The capitate is also known as what?

A

Os magnum

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34
Q

The CR for an AP projection of the shoulder?

A

1” inferior to the coracoid process

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35
Q

What date where x-rays discovered?

A

November 8, 1895

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36
Q

What oblique projection of the foot will best demonstrate the cuboid?

A

medial oblique

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37
Q

What is the position of the femoral condyles when the leg is properly positioned for an AP projection of the knee?

A

parallel to the IR

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38
Q

Begin with a technique of 120 kVp, 1.6 mAs, with a 12:1 grid. What technique would you need if you switched to an 8:1 grid?

A

120 kVp, 1.28 mAs

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39
Q

Protons are located where?

A

in the nucleus

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40
Q

When examining a hand, would you want a fast or slow screen?

A

slow

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41
Q

What is a recumbant position with a body plane tilted so the feet are lower than the head?

A

Fowler

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42
Q

What all must be included on a supine KUB?

A

pubic symphysis, kidneys, ureters, bladder

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43
Q

The distal end of the metacarpals is called what?

A

the head

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44
Q

How many degrees of flexion are required for a lateral projection of the elbow?

A

90°

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45
Q

The 1st radiographic patient had an image done on which body part?

A

wrist (Colles’ fracture) or hand (Roentgen’s wife)

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46
Q

When performing an AP oblique projection of the foot, the plantar surface of the foot should form a ____° angle with the IR?

A

30°

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47
Q

What is the CR angle for the axial plantodorsal projection of the os calcis?

A

40°

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48
Q

Which grid has the highest lead content?

A

16:1

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49
Q

Begin with a technique of 80 kVp, 50 mAs, 200 screen speed. What would be the new technique if a 400 screen speed was used?

A

80 kVp, 25 mAs

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50
Q

What is the formula for work?

A

W=fd (Work=force x distance)

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51
Q

Are lead markers considered an artifact?

A

no

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52
Q

What is the CR for a supine abdomen?

A

at level of iliac crests, on MSP

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53
Q

The head of each phalanx is what portion?

A

distal portion

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54
Q

The coranoid fossa is located on which surface of the humerus?

A

anterior surface

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55
Q

T/F. Early radiographers realized the dangers of radiation?

A

False

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56
Q

What is the CR for an AP projection of the knee?

A

1/2” below the patellar apex

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57
Q

For an AP oblique projection of the knee, how many degrees should the knee be rotated?

A

45°

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58
Q

What is the purpose of using a grid?

A

to clean up scatter

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59
Q

What is the factor for a 200 screen speed?

A

1

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60
Q

What is the standard unit of mass?

A

kg (kilograms)

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61
Q

24 x 30 cm film is what size in inches?

A

10 x 12

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62
Q

Free air within the abdomen is best demonstrated on what view?

A

upright abdomen

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63
Q

What is the largest carpal bone?

A

capitate (os magnum)

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64
Q

Which AP projection of the shoulder will best demonstrate the lesser tubercle?

A

internal rotation

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65
Q

Who found a way to measure the intensity of radiation, and now their last name is used as a basic unit of measurement?

A

Pierre and Marie Curie

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66
Q

Which tarsal bone lies directly anterior to the talus?

A

navicular

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67
Q

Which 2 large processes are located at the proximal end of the femur?

A

trochanters

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the reflective layer?

A

to reflect light back onto the film

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69
Q

A grid used in the radiography department has a strip height of 1800, a grid strip thickness of 50, and an interspace of 300, what is the grid ratio?

A

6:1 (1800:300 = 6:1)

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70
Q

What are the 2 main components of the x-ray film emulsion?

A

silver halide crystals & gelatin

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71
Q

72” is how many cm?

A

183

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72
Q

In an upright abdomen, it is most important to include ____ ?

A

the diaphragm

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73
Q

What is the joint located most distal to the elbow?

A

DIP (distal interphalangeal joint)

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74
Q

The capitulum of the humerus articulates with what bone?

A

radius

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75
Q

Who discovered x-rays?

A

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

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76
Q

The proximal end of the tibia contains 2 prominent process. What are they?

A

condyles

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77
Q

For an AP projection of the femur, what must be done to place it in true anatomic position?

A

rotate the feet medially 10°-15°

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78
Q

List the layers of the screen, in order.

A

base, phosphor, reflective layer, protective layerorprotective layer, reflective layer, phosphor, base

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79
Q

What is the latent image?

A

the invisible image captured but not yet processed

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80
Q

Which plane divides the body in equal anterior and posterior halves?

A

MCP (midcoronal plane)

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81
Q

What is the CR for an upright abdomen?

A

2” above the iliac crests on the MSP

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82
Q

How many carpal bones in each wrist?

A

8

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83
Q

On the humerus there are 2 fossa. Which one is posterior?

A

olecranon fossa

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84
Q

What year were x-rays discovered?

A

1895

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85
Q

Which bone in the lower extremity does not bear any weight?

A

fibula

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86
Q

For an AP projection of a femur on a typical adult, what must you do to ensure both joints are demonstrated?

A

make 2 images (proximal & distal)

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87
Q

What is the purpose of the base in a screen?

A

support & provide structure

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88
Q

In a radiographic grid, is the interspace material radiopaque or radiolucent?

A

radiolucent

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89
Q

What 2 layers of film do the adhesive layer hold together?

A

emulsion & base

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90
Q

What is the mAs if your technique is 76 kVp, 600ma, 1/5 of a second?

A

120 mAs

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91
Q

Which body plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?

A

MSP (midsagittal plane)

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92
Q

On the lateral chest x-ray, which is more anterior, the trachea or the esophagus?

A

trachea

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93
Q

What is the 1st bone located on the proximal row of the lateral side of the wrist?

A

scaphoid

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94
Q

How much rotation is required for an AP oblique of the elbow?

A

45°

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95
Q

T/F. The male pelvis is wider and shallower?

A

False

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96
Q

T/F. The most prominent point of the greater trochanter is in the same horizontal plane as the pubic symphysis?

A

True

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97
Q

What does Window Level control?

A

brightness

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98
Q

What does the term “projection” mean?

A

the path of the x-rays

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99
Q

How is a focused grid made?

A

strips and interspace material are angled as the x-ray beam goes out

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100
Q

Is milliampers (mA) the quality or quantity of the electrons in the x-ray beam?

A

quantity

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101
Q

What is the date your film badge is due back to the college each month?

A

18th of the month

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102
Q

On a PA Chest, how many posterior ribs should be seen above the diaphragm?

A

10

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103
Q

The elbow joint is what type of joint?

A

hinge

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104
Q

When positioning for a lateral humerus, the epicondyles should be ____ to the IR?

A

perpendicular

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105
Q

On an AP projection of the femur, where would the lesser trochanter be seen?

A

on the medial side of the femur

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106
Q

Which bone of the pelvis contains the ASIS?

A

ilium

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107
Q

How is a cross (cross-hatched) grid made?

A

2 parallel grids placed perpendicular to each other

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108
Q

What is density referred to in digital imaging?

A

brightness

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109
Q

What is the term “ventral” mean?

A

anterior

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110
Q

The body habitus that makes up 5% of the population and is characterized by a massive build?

A

hypersthenic

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111
Q

Your lead markers should be used when?

A

always

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112
Q

What is the CR for a PA chest?

A

T7 on MSP

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113
Q

Carpal bones are what type of bones?

A

short bones

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114
Q

What all must be included on an AP humerus?

A

shoulder joint & elbow joint

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115
Q

On an AP projection of the femur, what should you see in profile?

A

greater trochanter

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116
Q

What bones form the pelvis?

A

sacrum, coccyx, hip bone/os caxae (ilium, ischium, pubic bone)

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117
Q

What are the rows and columns of pixels that form the image?

A

matrix

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118
Q

What does the term “superficial” mean?

A

not deep/near the surface

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119
Q

What is grid cut-off?

A

improper use of a grid resulting in x-rays being cut off

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120
Q

Starting with a technique of 60kVp and 5 mAs, apply the 15% rule to help reduce motion.

A

69 kVp, 2.5 mAs

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121
Q

The scapula is which type of bone?

A

flat

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122
Q

Which oblique elbow shows the radial head free from superimposition?

A

lateral oblique

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123
Q

If you cannot see enough posterior ribs in a PA chest image, what would you do to fix it on the repeated image?

A

have the patient take in a deeper breath and hold it

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124
Q

When doing a lateral projection of the great toe, which side should the patient be placed?

A

unaffected side

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125
Q

What is the definition of the term “visceral?”

A

lining of the organs

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126
Q

A large Window Width will result in what type of contrast?

A

long scale

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127
Q

Find the kinetic energy of a truck that weighs 5,670 kg moving at a velocity of 50 m/s.

A

KE=7,087,500 J

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128
Q

If you increase grid ratio, what happens to patient dose?

A

patient dose increases

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129
Q

The thicker the film’s emulsion, the ___ the speed?

A

faster

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130
Q

Using the 15% rule, increasing the kVp can be used to help control what?

A

patient dose & motion

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131
Q

What is the articulation located at the distal end of the clavicle?

A

AC (acromioclavicular) joint

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132
Q

What is the CR for a PA wrist?

A

midcarpal area

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133
Q

What is the hilum?

A

opening where the bronchi enter the lungs

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134
Q

Why would you want to angle on an AP projection of the toes?

A

to open up the joint spaces

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135
Q

Define inertia?

A

a body at rest will stay at rest, and a body in motion will stay in motion (at a constant speed & direction) unless acted upon by an outside force

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136
Q

Contrast is referred to as _____ in digital imaging?

A

greyscale

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137
Q

Explain how to place a patient in RPO position.

A

patient will be facing away from the IR, with the back of the right shoulder touching the IR

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138
Q

Which grid would require the highest technique out of the following - 6:1, 10:1, 12:1 ?

A

12:1

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139
Q

T/F. Film is manufactured with contrast already built into it?

A

true

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140
Q

Define density.

A

overall blackness on a film

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141
Q

List everything contained in the mediastinum.

A

Greater vesselsHeartEsophagusTracheaThymus

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142
Q

The shoulder joint is what type of joint?

A

ball and socket

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143
Q

How much should you angle the tube on an AP projection of the toes?

A

15° according to Merrill’s (need to ask Amber bc she said 10° was answer)

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144
Q

What is another name for the scaphoid?

A

navicular

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145
Q

Define kinetic energy.

A

energy in motion

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146
Q

What does Window Width control?

A

greyscale

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147
Q

What does the term “hyper-extension” mean?

A

extended too far

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148
Q

What is the radiation that exits the tube through the window called?

A

primary radiation

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149
Q

Cross over is ____.

A

undesirable

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150
Q

An increase in kVp will do what to contrast?

A

decrease contrast

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151
Q

An increase in SID will do what to magnification?

A

decrease

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152
Q

The hand must be supinated on an AP examination of the forearm to prevent what?

A

the radius and ulna from being crossed over each other

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153
Q

On which method for lateral projection of the hip is the CR angled 20° cephalic?

A

Hickey method

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154
Q

Where is the intertrochanteric crest?

A

posterior side of the femur, between the trochanters

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155
Q

On CR (computed radiography), it is recommended to do how many images per IR?

A

1

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156
Q

How long does the most commonly used film processor take?

A

90 seconds (1.5 minutes)

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157
Q

Detail is referred to as ____ in digital imaging?

A

spatial resolution

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158
Q

A box has a mass of 45 kg, what is it’s weight on Earth?

A

441 N

159
Q

The efficiency of a grid at removing scatter radiation is related principally to the ___?

A

grid frequency

160
Q

Which of the following is an important and frequently used radiographic positioning reference point? AIIS, ASIS, PIIS, PSIS

A

ASIS

161
Q

An increase in SID will do what to patient dose?

A

decrease

162
Q

Which forearm bone is on the lateral aspect?

A

radius

163
Q

T/F. The highest point of the greater trochanter is in the same transverse plane as the midpoint of the hip joint.

A

T

164
Q

How much rotation of the lower limb is required for an AP projection of the pelvis?

A

15°- 20°

165
Q

T/F. Film/screen imaging is more sensitive to fog than CR/DR imaging.

A

F

166
Q

What is the force of a 150 kg rock rolling down a hill with an acceleration of 20 m/s?

A

3,000 N

167
Q

What is in a washer tank?

A

clean water

168
Q

Technique is more critical in film/screen or CR/DR?

A

film/screen

169
Q

If you increase grid ratio, what happens to contrast?

A

contrast increases

170
Q

What is the strongest bone in the human body?

A

femur

171
Q

An increase in screen speed will do what to patient dose?

A

decrease patient dose

172
Q

Which forearm bone is smallest at the proximal end?

A

radius

173
Q

How much rotation of the lower limb is required for an AP projection of the hip?

A

10°-15°

174
Q

What is the breathing instruction given to the patient for an AP pelvis?

A

suspend respiration

175
Q

Which has a wider latitude, film/screen or CR/DR?

A

CR/DR

176
Q

What is the formula for force?

A

F=m x a (Force = mass x acceleration)

177
Q

What is the order of the tanks for the automatic processing?

A

developer, fixer, washer, dryer

178
Q

Image noise is ___?

A

bad

179
Q

If you increase grid ratio, what happens to density?

A

density decreases

180
Q

An increase in screen speed will do what to density?

A

increase density

181
Q

An increase in mAs will do what to patient dose?

A

increase patient dose

182
Q

An increase in field size will do what to density?

A

increase density (because of increased scatter)

183
Q

On an AP shoulder x-ray, which rotation better shows the greater tubercle?

A

external rotation

184
Q

Name the body habitus considered very frail.

A

asthenic

185
Q

A picture element, one cell (in a matrix) of a digital image.

A

pixel

186
Q

In CR/DR, window _____ is in the center of window _____?

A

window level is in the center of window width

187
Q

How much rotation of the ankle is required to see the ankle mortise joint?

A

15°-20°

188
Q

How many electrons can be in the “P” shell?

A

72

189
Q

Define power.

A

the rate of doing work

190
Q

An increase in mAs will do what to density?

A

increase density

191
Q

An increase in grid ratio will do what to patient dose?

A

increase patient dose

192
Q

An increase in OID will do what to detail?

A

decrease detail

193
Q

What separates the supraspinous fossa and the infraspinous fossa?

A

spine of scapula

194
Q

What is a suture?

A

a joint in the skull

195
Q

In digital, what can be compared to a screen?

A

scintillator

196
Q

What does PSP stand for?

A

photostimulable phosphor

197
Q

How much rotation is required for an oblique foot?

A

30°

198
Q

What is the formula for potential energy?

A

PE=mgh (PE= mass x gravity x height)

199
Q

Define potential energy.

A

energy to do work by virtue of position

200
Q

Short scale contrast is high or low contrast?

A

high

201
Q

An increase in grid ratio will do what to density?

A

decrease density

202
Q

An increase in kVp will do what to patient dose?

A

decrease patient dose

203
Q

How far above the humeral head should the upper margin of the IR be placed for an AP projection of the humerus?

A

1 1/2” inches

204
Q

What is the midcoronal plane?

A

a plane that divides the body into equal anterior & posterior halves

205
Q

On CR/DR, window level controls ____?

A

brightness

206
Q

On CR/DR, window width controls _____?

A

greyscale

207
Q

How much rotation is required for an oblique ankle?

A

45°

208
Q

What is the formula for power?

A

P=w/t (P= work/time)

209
Q

What is the charge of an electron?

A

-1

210
Q

What is the earliest reference to the term atom?

A

Greek atom

211
Q

What type of atom do we still refer to today?

A

Bohr atom

212
Q

What is the nucleus of an atom?

A

The positively charged core in the center of the atom.

213
Q

What charge do protons have?

A

+1

214
Q

What charge do electrons have?

A

-1

215
Q

What is the Z number?

A

Atomic number

216
Q

What is the A number?

A

Atomic mass

217
Q

How many electrons could fit into the M shell?

A

18

218
Q

What is an ionized atom?

A

An atom with an extra or missing electron

219
Q

What is an isotope?

A

Atoms that have the same # of protons but different # of neutrons.

220
Q

What is a radioisotope?

A

Radioactive atoms having the same # of protons.

221
Q

Which radioactive decay process is a more violent process & could cause more harm to the body?

A

alpha decay

222
Q

What is particulate radiation?

A

any subatomic particle capable of causing ionization.

223
Q

What is electromagnetic or non-particulate radiation?

A

x-rays & gamma rays (photons)

224
Q

What is matter?

A

anything that occupies space & has shape

225
Q

What is mass?

A

constant quantity of matter within a physical object

226
Q

Velocity can also be called what?

A

speed

227
Q

What are Newton’s 3 laws?

A

InertiaForceaction/reaction

228
Q

What is the acceleration of gravity on earth?

A

9.8 m/s²

229
Q

What is the acceleration of gravity on the moon?

A

1.6 m/s²

230
Q

What is potential energy?

A

energy to do work by virtue of position.

231
Q

What is kinetic energy?

A

energy in motion

232
Q

What is electromagnetic energy?

A

the type of energy in an x-ray

233
Q

List 3 ways heat can be transferred.

A

conductionconvectionradiation

234
Q

What is the conversion factor for Celsius to Fahrenheit?

A

F=9/5C + 32

235
Q

What is the conversion factor for Fahrenheit to Celsius?

A

C=5/9(F-32)

236
Q

Velocity formula

A

V = d/tVelocity=distance/time

237
Q

Acceleration formula

A

A = (Vf-Vo))/tAcceleration=(final velocity-initial velocity)/time

238
Q

Force formula

A

F = maForce=mass X acceleration

239
Q

Weight formula

A

Wt = mgWeight=mass X gravity

240
Q

Work formula

A

W = fdWork=force X distance

241
Q

Power formula

A

P=w/tPower=work/time

242
Q

Kinetic Energy formula

A

KE=1/2mv²Kinetic Energy=1/2 X mass X velocity²

243
Q

Potential Energy formula

A

PE=mghPotential Energy=mass X gravity X height

244
Q

1 kg = ? lbs

A

2.2

245
Q

1 inch = ? cm

A

2.54

246
Q

1 yd = ? meters

A

0.9144

247
Q

Define velocity.

A

measure of how fast something is moving

248
Q

Define acceleration.

A

rate of velocity change with time

249
Q

Define force.

A

force acted on an object with acceleration

250
Q

Define weight

A

a force on the body caused by the downward pull of gravity on it

251
Q

Define work.

A

the force applied, multiplied by distance over which it is applied

252
Q

Define power.

A

rate of doing work

253
Q

Define kinetic energy.

A

energy in motion

254
Q

Define potential energy.

A

energy to do work by virtue of position

255
Q

What is the unit of measure for velocity?

A

m/smeters per second

256
Q

What is the unit of measure for acceleration?

A

m/s²meters per second squared

257
Q

What is the unit of measure for force?

A

NNewtons

258
Q

What is the unit of measure for weight?

A

NNewtons

259
Q

What is the unit of measure for work?

A

JJoule

260
Q

What is the unit of measure for power?

A

J/s or WJoules per second or Watts

261
Q

What is the unit of measure for kinetic energy?

A

JJoule

262
Q

What is the unit of measure for potential energy?

A

JJoule

263
Q

Explain inertia.

A

a body will remain at rest or continue to move witha constant velocity in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force

264
Q

Explain action/reaction.

A

for every action there is an equal & opposite reaction

265
Q

1lb = ? Newtons?

A

4.5N

266
Q

What is the unit of measure for heat?

A

Ccalorie

267
Q

What is the smallest particle of an element?

A

atom

268
Q

What is the smallest portion of a compound?

A

molecule

269
Q

What is any material that has a definite constant composition?

A

element

270
Q

What is a measurable quantity of one type of molecule?

A

compound

271
Q

What does the atomic number (Z) of an atom denote?

A

total number of protons

272
Q

What does the atomic mass (A) of an atom denote?

A

total number of protons & neutrons

273
Q

Formula for electron limit per shell.

A

2n²2 X shell number²

274
Q

What is the 1st shell called?

A

K

275
Q

How many electrons can the outer shell of an atom hold?

A

8 maximum (no matter which shell it is)

276
Q

What is the Principle Quantum Number?

A

the shell number

277
Q

Define valence.

A

number of electrons in the outermost shell

278
Q

Valence represents the capacity of an atom to do what?

A

bond

279
Q

What is density?

A

The overall blackness on a radiographic film.

280
Q

Radiolucent

A

X-rays penetrate the body.

281
Q

Radiopaque

A

X-rays are absorbed by the body.

282
Q

What is the major controlling factor for density?

A

mAs.

283
Q

What are 2 ways to double density?

A

Increase kVp by 15% or Double mAs.

284
Q

What is the 15% rule?

A

Increase kVp by 15%, decrease mAs by 1/2 = same density decrease kVp by 15%, double mAs + same density

285
Q

If you increase mAs, what happens to density and why?

A

Increase mAs = increased density because more photons are reaching IR.

286
Q

When you increase screen speed, what happens to density and why?

A

Increased screen speed = increased density because more light is hitting the film.

287
Q

When you increase the grid ratio, what happens to density and why?

A

Increased grid ratio = less density because the grid os removing some of the photons.

288
Q

When you increase kVp, what happens to density and why?

A

increase kVp + increased density because more x-rays are reaching IR (more penetration)

289
Q

What is contrast?

A

Contrast is the difference in adjacent densities on a radioraphic film.

290
Q

What is the major controlling factor for contrast?

A

kVp.

291
Q

What are 2 types of contrast?

A

Long scale (low contrast)short scale (high contrast)

292
Q

Explain short scale contrast.

A

Short scale = high contrast, more B&W used with extremities used with low kVp (below 70)

293
Q

Explain long scale contrast.

A

Long scale = low contrast lots of grays use higher kVp’s (above 70) used with chest and abdomen.

294
Q

When you increase kVp, what happens to contrast and why?

A

Increased kVp = less contrast because of increased scatter.

295
Q

When you increase grid ratio, what happens to contrast and why?

A

Increased grid ratio = more contrast because scatter is reduced.

296
Q

What is brightness?

A

Measurement of luminance of a monitor calibrated in units of candela per square meteroverall lightness of an image.

297
Q

What controls brightness?

A

Window level.

298
Q

When you increase window level, what happens to brightness?

A

Brightness is decreased.

299
Q

We think of mAs as ____ in CR/DR?

A

Data.

300
Q

What is grayscale?

A

The difference in densities on digital image.

301
Q

What happens to brightness when mAs or kVp are increased?

A

Nothing.

302
Q

What controls grayscale?

A

Window width.

303
Q

The smaller the window width the ____ the grayscale?

A

Shorter scale or higher contrast.

304
Q

We think of kVp as ____ in CR/DR?

A

Penetration.

305
Q

What happens to grayscale when kVp is increased?

A

Nothing.

306
Q

What is detail?

A

Sharpness.

307
Q

What is the major controlling factor for detail?

A

Focal spot size.

308
Q

Will a larger focal spot size produce better or worse detail?

A

Worse.

309
Q

If motion is increased, what happens to detail/

A

Detail decreases.

310
Q

If OID is increased, what happens to detail and why?

A

OID increase = detail decrease because of magnification.

311
Q

If SID is increased, what happens to detail and why?

A

SID increase = more detail because of decreased magnification.

312
Q

If screen speed is increased, what happens to detail and why?

A

Increased screen speed = less detail because larger phosphors give less detail.

313
Q

What is distortion?

A

Misrepresentation of true size or shape.

314
Q

What are 2 types of distortion?

A

Size and shape.

315
Q

Size distortion is called what?

A

Magnification.

316
Q

What causes magnification?

A

Excessive OID or not enough SID.

317
Q

What causes elongation?

A

Angle of tube or IR.

318
Q

What causes foreshortening?

A

Angle of part (patient positioning)

319
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A

As Low As Resonably Achievable.

320
Q

If a student needs to retake an image, who has to be with them?

A

The radiation technologist.

321
Q

what are the 3 cardinal principles to protect yourself from radiation?

A

Time, distance, and shielding.

322
Q

If you increase shielding, what happens to patient dose?

A

It decreases.

323
Q

If you increase screen speed, what happens to patient dose?

A

It decreases.

324
Q

If you increase grid ratio, what happens to patient dose and why?

A

Increased patient dose due to increase of technique required to image properly (because grid absorbs scatter)

325
Q

When you increase kVp, what happens to patient dose and why?

A

Decrease patient dose because less mAs is required.

326
Q

If you increase mAs, what happens to patient dose and why?

A

Increased patient dose because more photons are entering them.

327
Q

If you increase body habitus,what happens to patient dose and why?

A

Increased patient dose because more photons are needed to properly expose image and penetrate part.

328
Q

Define density.

A

overall blackness on a radiographic film

329
Q

Describe an overexposed film.

A

one that contains too much density

330
Q

Describe an underexposed film.

A

one that doesn’t contain enough density

331
Q

Define radiolucent.

A

objects that allow x-rays to penetrate them (show up black on an image)

332
Q

Define radiopaque.

A

objects that absorb x-rays (show up white on an image).

333
Q

Major controlling factor of density

A

mAs (increase mAs, increase density)

334
Q

Define contrast.

A

difference in adjacent densities on a readiographic film (how many shades of gray)

335
Q

What is high contrast used for?

A

bone work

336
Q

What is low contrast used for?

A

abdomen/chest exams

337
Q

Is high contrast short or long scale?

A

short scale

338
Q

Is low contrast short or long scale?

A

long scale

339
Q

What is the major controlling factor for contrast?

A

kVp

340
Q

What does kVp stand for?

A

kilovolts peak

341
Q

What does mAs stand for?

A

milliamperes seconds

342
Q

What does mAs represent (film)?

A

the number of x-rays coming from the tube

343
Q

What does kVp represent?

A

penetration power of x-ray beam

344
Q

Define brightness.

A

measurement of the luminance of a monitor calibrated in units of candela (cd) per sq meter

345
Q

What is the major controlling factor for brightness?

A

Window Level (WL)

346
Q

We think of mAs as what in CR/DR (not film)?

A

Data

347
Q

Define grayscale.

A

the difference of the densities on the digital image (same as contrast)

348
Q

What is the major controlling factor of grayscale?

A

Window Width (WW)

349
Q

Is high contrast (short scale) on CR/DR a smaller WW or larger WW?

A

smaller

350
Q

Is low contrast (long scale) on CR/DR a smaller WW or larger WW?

A

larger

351
Q

Define recorded detail.

A

Sharpness/Definition/Image Resolution

352
Q

What is the major controlling factor of recorded detail?

A

FSS (Focal Spot Size)

353
Q

With a large focal spot do you get more or less detail?

A

less

354
Q

Define distortion.

A

misrepresentation of true size/shape

355
Q

Name 2 types of distortion.

A

Size and Shape distortion

356
Q

Define size distortion.

A

magnification

357
Q

Define shape distortion.

A

misrepresentation of true shape of an object

358
Q

Name 2 types of shape distortion.

A

Elongation and Foreshortening

359
Q

What causes elongation?

A

angle of tube or IR

360
Q

What causes foreshortening?

A

angle of part

361
Q

What is the major controlling factor of distortion?

A

Patient Positioning

362
Q

What image ID info must be on image?

A

Patient name/ID #DateInstitutionR or L marker

363
Q

SID stands for?

A

Source to IR Distance

364
Q

OID stands for?

A

Object to IR Distance

365
Q

Define Umbra.

A

Sharpness

366
Q

Define penumbra

A

Unsharpness

367
Q

mAs is the product of what?

A

x-ray tube current (mA) and time (seconds)

368
Q

If you double your mAs, what is also doubled?

A

density

369
Q

Double density can be achieved by?

A

doubling mAsincreasing kVp by 15%

370
Q

With CR/DR we think of kVp as what?

A

penetration

371
Q

What is the major controlling factor of involuntary motion?

A

exposure time (use as short as possible)

372
Q

What is the primary controlling factor of voluntary motion?

A

giving clear instructions

373
Q

Define spatial resolution.

A

ability to image small objects that have high subject contrast (same as detail)

374
Q

What is the primary controlling factor of spatial resolution?

A

pixel or sampling pitch

375
Q

Define image noise.

A

deterioration of image by unwanted interference in x-ray signal detection

376
Q

What are the 3 cardinal principles of radiation protection?

A

timedistanceshielding

377
Q

What is the retroperitoneum?

A

space behind peritoneum (where kidneys and pancreas lie)

378
Q

What is the largest gland in the body?

A

the liver

379
Q

What does liver produce?

A

bile

380
Q

What does gallbladder do?

A

store and concentrate bile

381
Q

What grayscale is desired for an abdomen?

A

moderate

382
Q

When is exposure taken for an abdomen?

A

at the end of expiration

383
Q

What does KUB stand for?

A

kidneys, ureter, bladder

384
Q

*What projection is used in lieu of an AP upright abdomen if the patient cannot stand?

A

left lateral decubitus

385
Q

Where is the IR centered for a supine AP abdomen?

A

IR is centered to iliac crests

386
Q

Where is the location of CR on supine AP abdomen?

A

enters pt on MSP @ level of iliac crests

387
Q

Where is the IR centered on an AP upright abdomen?

A

IR centered 2” above iliac crests normallyIR centered on iliac crest if bladder is to be included

388
Q

Where is location of CR on AP upright abdomen?

A

enters pt on MSP 2” above iliac crest normallyenters pt on MSP at iliac crest if bladder is to be included

389
Q

What must be included on an AP supine abdomen?

A

pubic symphysis

390
Q

What must be included on AP upright abdomen?

A

diaphragm (to demonstrate free air)

391
Q

*Where is the marker placed on a lateral decubitus image?

A

on the side the patient is not laying on (R side if lying on L side)

392
Q

Where is the CR on a lateral decubitus abdomen?

A

enters on MSP at level of iliac crestsenters on MSP 2” above iliac crests if diaphragm is to be included

393
Q

Where is CR on lateral abdomen?

A

enters on MCP at level of iliac crestsenters on MCP 2” above iliac crests if diaphragm is to be included

394
Q

Where is CR on dorsal decubitus abdomen?

A

enters MCP 2” above iliac crests