X100 Flashcards
The strategic support area describes the area extending from a theater to a _____ base or another combatant’s AOR.
Conus
Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO? (Agility, Endurance, Depth, Influence)
Influence
CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.
Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, Deep
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts? (Tof F)
True
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, Deep
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?
- Economy Infrastructure Time
- Mission Economy Social
- Physical Terrain, Enemy, Time
Economy Infrastructure Time
Which of the following is NOT a tactical mission task? (Breach, Attack, Reduce, Isolate)
Attack
Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
Destroy
What are major integrating processes within the operations process?
Information Collection, IPB, and knowledge management
Targeting process: Decide, ______, Deliver, and Assess (D3A)
Detect
EEFI is a CCIR that describes a critical aspect of a friendly operation that should be protected from enemy detection. (T or F)
False
Which is not an attribute of the Rapid Decision-making and Synchronization Process (RDSP)?
- produces a single COA
- based on existing order
- battle drill for current and future ops cell
- none of the above
none of the above
Which color of money is used for Day to Day activities?
Operations and Maintenance- Army
Compel and Control are examples of ______
Stability Mechanisms
Commanders drive the Operations Process through UVDDLA. What is the V?
Visualize
Both Army Design Methodology and Military Decision-Making Process are conceptual planning processes
False
Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
Capabilities-Based Assessments
JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, and classifies solutions into two categories: Materiel and Non-materiel
True
Which is NOT a DAS path?
- Defense Business Systems
Major Capability Acquisition
Software Acquisition
Deliberate Operational Needs
Deliberate Operational Needs
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
FIFA
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Component unit should receive?
Army Component Guidance
ID missing force integration doc: Army Modernization Priority List (AMPL), _____, Army Component Manning Guidance (ACMG)
Dynamic Army Resource Priority List (DARPL)
Fill the blanks: Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
Department of the Army Structure include(s): Pick BEST answer
FORSCOM, TRADOC, AMC, AFC
ACOM
ACOM, ASCC, and DRU
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
ICD stands for:
Initial Capability Document
Who approves army requirements as part of the JCIDS process?
Army Resource Oversight Council
Non-materiel future needs (>2 years) are captured on what JCIDS document?
DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation
Which is part of DOTMLPF-P?
Principle
Departments
Time
Policy
JCIDS, PPBE, and DAS are the 3 primary decision support systems to integrate capabilities (t or F)
True
Army Futures Command leads the concept and capability development process for the Army Modernization Enterprise.
True
Only the Army use and comply with regulations that govern DAS (t or f)
False
How many milestones are part of the DAS Major Capability Acquisition Overview?
3
Which DAS Major Capability Acquisition phase includes validation of CDD?
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone are full funds committed?
B
Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities:
Cross Functional Teams
The Army’s urgent operational needs process/approach is captured in:
Operational Needs Statement
This document provides a 1-N list of unit priority, approved by Army Senior Leaders
DARPL
Who is the Army lead organization that synchronizes force integration efforts?
HQDA G-3/5/7
______ is the Army’s lead materiel integrator (LMI)
US Army Materiel Command
Who manages acquisition programs?
- PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
Joint Staff J-8
Training and Doctrine Command
Joint Staff J-4 Training
PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
What represents a “Must-Do”, or minimum requirements of a capability being developed?
Key Performance Parameters
___ and ___ are two critical documents of the Force Design Update
O&O and URS
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is an authorizations document (t or f)
False
What assesses and determines required capabilities based on strategy, concepts, and similar guidance?
Needs Analysis
What compares required capabilities to current capabilities to determine unmet requirements?
Gap Analysis
The Planning to Programming Transition occurs at what step of the Force Management Model?
ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA
Which is not a tenet of MDO?
- Agility
Endurance
Anticipation
Depth
Anticipation
____ is the purposeful reliance by one Service’s forces on another Service’s capabilities to maximize effects of both.
Joint interdependence
Joint Logistics - grouping of capabilities/activities that enable JFC to synchronize, integrate, and direct joint ops
(t or f)
False
CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.
Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)
JP 4-0 sustainment is a joint function and is the provision of logistics, personnel services, HSS, and finance mngt
(t or f)
False
Which of the following answers list three of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment?
- Integration, Endurance, Anticipation
Responsiveness, Trust, Survivability
Endurance, Simplicity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Which is not true about the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)?
- Has three operational responsibilities
Lead sustainment org for ASCC
TSC is planner, ESC is executer
Coordinates Title 10, ASOS, DoD EA, and lead service responsibilities
Has three operational responsibilities
Which is not true about an Expeditionary Sustainment Command (ESC)?
- Multiple ESCs may operate in a theater at once
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Sustainment BDEs are usually subordinate to ESC
ESC plans for near-term operations
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, and Deep
Joint Logistics Enterprise (JLEnt) – Connects global strategic providers to the GCC/JFC at the operational level. (t or f)
True
Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
Capabilities-Based Assessments
Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations
- Broader interaction among elements
Promote COP
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Faciliates cooperation in common interest
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
_____is the analytical framework that underpins joint planning.
Operational Design
Combatant Command (COCOM) does not include directive authority for logistics for subordinate units. (t or f)
false
Unified Actions attempts to sync, coordinate and integrate military ops to achieve ________
Unity of Effort
What type of area is represented by letter C?
JSOA
Which is not a Universal Joint Task List level
- Strategic Theater
Tactical
Organizational
Operational
orginizational
The JIPOE falls under which Joint Function?
Intelligence
Joint Function: ____ includes the exercise of authority and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces.
C2
____ is a series of related operations aimed at achieving objectives within a given time and space.
Campaign
Identify the missing element from the Competition Continuum: Cooperation, _______, Armed Conflict
- Contingency Operations
Adversarial Interaction
Adversarial Competition
None of the above
Adversarial Competition
The Chief of Mission (COM) has authority over all USG personnel in country, except those under the command of a CCDR. (t or f)
True
Which is not a multinational command structure?
Hybrid
Which principle enables commanders to understand effective mechanisms to achieve unity of effort?
Unity of Command
Which is NOT an attribute of an Alliance?
Ad Hoc
There are 12 Joint Operations principles
True
Fill in the blank: Caveats are any ____, ____ or ___ by a nation on its military forces.
limitation, restriction or constraint
_________ is conducted with units from two or more coalition members.
Coalition Operation
Multinational operations have how many tenets?
6
Which is part of DIME?
- Mission
Diplomatic
Infrastructure
Environment
Diplomatic
Coalition Coordination Centers are established in which multinational command structure?
Parallel
Principle USG organization that works countries on democratic reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and
USAID
Influencing populations occurs in what type of warfare?
Irregular
Which is NOT a military Operation
- Security Cooperation
Show of Force
Antiterrorism
Peace Operations
Security Cooperation
Who is not part of interagency coordination efforts?
- DOS
DOJ
Department of Homeland
United Nations
United Nations
Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations?
- Broader interaction among elements
Promote COP
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Faciliates cooperation in common interest
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Competition Continuum: Which is missing from Strategic Use of Force - Assure, Deter, ____, Force
Compel
______ authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities.
OPCON
1 - True or false
All services use and comply with regulations that govern DAS
t
After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone is money committed?
B
There are 9 Joint Operations principles
False
Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities
Cross Functional Teams
_____ _____ is the distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities.
Operational Reach
Who chairs the Army Requirements Council?
VCSA
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if it produces the greatest good for the greatest number; concern for moral outcomes
Consequence-based
Jus ad Bellum is law during war
False
____ ____ is when competing virtues come into conflict and we must choice one “right virtue” over another “right virtue”
Ethical Dilemma
Military Revolutions include
- WWI
Nuclear
French Revolution
All of the above
d
According to Clausewitz, war is an extension of _____
Policy
Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?
NMS
13 - True or false
“Ends” are objectives that must be achieved to enable an end state.
True
Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This principle is:
Discrimination
Which “school of thought” believes peace is obtained through a balance of power?
Realism
The President signs the Defense Planning Guidance
False
Which strategic document does the Secretary of Defense NOT sign?
Guidence for Employment of the Force
Contingency Planning Guidance
National Defense Strategy
Defense Planning Guidance
Contingency Planning Guidance
Which “school of thought” believes anarchy of system can bemitigated through laws and institutions as a worldview?
Liberalism
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if a virtuous person would do it; concern for moral identity, ethics of character
Virtue-based
objective, offensive, mass, maneuver, economy of force, unity of command, security, surprise, and simplicity
Principles of Joint Operations
The synchronization, coordination, and alignment of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort.
Unified Action –
C2, information, intelligence, fires, movement and maneuver, protection, and sustainment
Joint Functions
What are the two forms of warfare
irtregular
traditional
4 principles of orginization
- simplicity
- span of control
- unit integrity
- interoperability
an area of land, sea, airspace, and cyberspace defined by a CCDR or subordinate unified commander, in which a JFC (normally a commander, joint
task force [CJTF]) conducts military operations to accomplish a specific mission.
JOA
an OA defined by the CCDR for the
conduct or support of specific military operations.
theater of operations
A collective term to describe military actions conducted by forces
of two or more nations.
Multinational (MN) Operations:
The relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for
broad, long-term objectives that further the common interests of the members.
Alliance
Two or more forces or agencies of two or more allies operating together.
Combined:
An arrangement between two or more nations for common action. Coalitions are
typically ad hoc; formed by different nations, often with different objectives; usually for a single
problem or issue, while addressing a narrow sector of common interest.
Coalition
Respect: All partners must be included in the planning process and their opinions sought in
mission assignment.
* Rapport: Personal and direct relationships foster teamwork and improve overall unity of
effort.
* Knowledge of Partners: Obtain an understanding of each members doctrine, capabilities,
goals, culture, religion, history and values.
* Patience: Relationships take time to develop.
* Mission focus: Temper the need for respect, rapport, knowledge, and patience with the
requirement to ensure that the necessary tasks are accomplished.
* Trust and Confidence: The Multinational Force Commander (MNFC) must engage with other
multinational force leaders to build personal relationships and develop trust and confidence.
Tenants of multinational ops
how many command structures are there and what are they
3; Integrated, Parrallel, and Lead Nation
Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?
a.
Enemy, information, social
b.
External, physical environment, troops
c.
Economic, infrastructure, time
d.
Ideology, military, political
Economic, infrastructure, time
_____________ is a location or condition, in any domain, relative to an adversary or enemy that provides an opportunity to progress towards or achieve an objective.
a.
Relative advantage
b.
METT_TC(I)
c.
PMESII-PT
d.
Operational approach
a
What are the tenets of multidomain operations?
a.
Mission, enemy, terrain, troops, time, civil considerations, information
b.
Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo
c.
Agility, convergence, endurance, depth
d.
Clear, hold, build
c
Which of the following is an Army warfighting function?
a.
Protection
b.
Mission command
c.
Information
d.
Leadership
a
An ___________ is an operational area defined by a commander for the land or maritime force commander to accomplish their missions and protect their forces.
a.
Area of action
b.
Operational approach
c.
Area of operations
d.
Integration area
Area of operations
_____________ is the U.S. Army’s current operational concept.
MDO
Which of the following is a tactical mission task?
Attack
Defend
Correct
Control
Allow
control
Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
a.
Suppress
b.
Defeat
c.
Neutralize
d
Destroy
d
After visualizing the broad operational approach to achieve the end state, the commander met with the staff and provided COAs to develop in addition to direction for each warfighting function. What BEST describes what the commander did?
a.
Described the tactical problem
b.
Provided CCIR
c.
Outlined unit key tasks
d.
Provided planning guidance
d
What are the main elements contained within the commander’s intent?
a.
Task organization, mission statement, and concept of the operations
b.
Critical tasks, battlefield framework, and high value targets
c.
Broad purpose, key tasks for the unit as a whole, end state conditions
d.
Broad approach, decision points, commander’s critical information requirements
c
What are the major integrating processes within the operations process?
a.
Current operations, future operations, and plans
b.
Airspace control, information operations, mission analysis, targeting, terrain management
c.
Information collection, mission analysis, risk management, security operations, and targeting
d.
Information operations, intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB), knowledge management, risk management, and targeting
d
What planning methodology would you recommend during the execution of the mission if an unanticipated threat is likely to cause a change in the concept of the operations?
a.
Military decision-making process
b.
Rapid decision making and synchronization process
c.
Army problem solving
d.
Army design methodology
b
What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?
a.
Reconnaissance operations are only conducted by maneuver units, security operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron
b.
Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented
c.
Security operations are only conducted by maneuver units, while reconnaissance operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron
d.
Reconnaissance operations only orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while security is only enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented
b
When comparing fundamentals of reconnaissance and security operations, which fundamental is considered in both?
a.
Provide early and accurate warning
b.
Retain freedom of maneuver
c.
Continuous reconnaissance
d.
Orient on reconnaissance objectives
c
What are the types of reconnaissance operations?
a.
Area, reconnaissance in force, route, special, and zone
b.
Area, route, screen, special, and zone
c.
Reconnaissance in force, route, screen, special, and zone
d.
Area, guard, route, special, and zone
a
What are the four primary types of security operations?
a.
Defeat, destroy, isolate, control
b.
Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo
c.
Area, zone, route, special
d.
Screen, guard, cover, area security
d.
Screen, guard, cover, area security
What doctrinal concept is a BCT commander describing if, during receipt of mission, he describes his understanding of the BCT’s mission as gaining control of key terrain to protect the flank of the division’s main effort, setting the conditions for withdrawal of enemy forces?
a.
Types of offensive operations
b.
Purposes of the offense
c.
Transitions
d.
Characteristics of the offense
b
What doctrinal concept does the commander want to make sure his staff addresses in each COA if he directs his staff to ensure all COAs include surprise, concentration, tempo, and audacity?
a.
Characteristics of the defense
b.
Forms of maneuver
c.
Characteristics of the offense
d.
Purpose of offensive operations
c
Which of the following is a correct statement about forms of maneuver?
a.
A turning movement seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force
b.
Frontal assaults and envelopments destroy enemy in their current positions
c.
Envelopments seize rear objectives, forcing the enemy to depart current positions
d.
All forms of maneuver seek to destroy the enemy by forcing them to depart their positions
b
