X100 Flashcards
The strategic support area describes the area extending from a theater to a _____ base or another combatant’s AOR.
Conus
Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO? (Agility, Endurance, Depth, Influence)
Influence
CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.
Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, Deep
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts? (Tof F)
True
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, Deep
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?
- Economy Infrastructure Time
- Mission Economy Social
- Physical Terrain, Enemy, Time
Economy Infrastructure Time
Which of the following is NOT a tactical mission task? (Breach, Attack, Reduce, Isolate)
Attack
Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
Destroy
What are major integrating processes within the operations process?
Information Collection, IPB, and knowledge management
Targeting process: Decide, ______, Deliver, and Assess (D3A)
Detect
EEFI is a CCIR that describes a critical aspect of a friendly operation that should be protected from enemy detection. (T or F)
False
Which is not an attribute of the Rapid Decision-making and Synchronization Process (RDSP)?
- produces a single COA
- based on existing order
- battle drill for current and future ops cell
- none of the above
none of the above
Which color of money is used for Day to Day activities?
Operations and Maintenance- Army
Compel and Control are examples of ______
Stability Mechanisms
Commanders drive the Operations Process through UVDDLA. What is the V?
Visualize
Both Army Design Methodology and Military Decision-Making Process are conceptual planning processes
False
Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
Capabilities-Based Assessments
JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, and classifies solutions into two categories: Materiel and Non-materiel
True
Which is NOT a DAS path?
- Defense Business Systems
Major Capability Acquisition
Software Acquisition
Deliberate Operational Needs
Deliberate Operational Needs
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
FIFA
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Component unit should receive?
Army Component Guidance
ID missing force integration doc: Army Modernization Priority List (AMPL), _____, Army Component Manning Guidance (ACMG)
Dynamic Army Resource Priority List (DARPL)
Fill the blanks: Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
Department of the Army Structure include(s): Pick BEST answer
FORSCOM, TRADOC, AMC, AFC
ACOM
ACOM, ASCC, and DRU
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
ICD stands for:
Initial Capability Document
Who approves army requirements as part of the JCIDS process?
Army Resource Oversight Council
Non-materiel future needs (>2 years) are captured on what JCIDS document?
DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation
Which is part of DOTMLPF-P?
Principle
Departments
Time
Policy
JCIDS, PPBE, and DAS are the 3 primary decision support systems to integrate capabilities (t or F)
True
Army Futures Command leads the concept and capability development process for the Army Modernization Enterprise.
True
Only the Army use and comply with regulations that govern DAS (t or f)
False
How many milestones are part of the DAS Major Capability Acquisition Overview?
3
Which DAS Major Capability Acquisition phase includes validation of CDD?
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone are full funds committed?
B
Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities:
Cross Functional Teams
The Army’s urgent operational needs process/approach is captured in:
Operational Needs Statement
This document provides a 1-N list of unit priority, approved by Army Senior Leaders
DARPL
Who is the Army lead organization that synchronizes force integration efforts?
HQDA G-3/5/7
______ is the Army’s lead materiel integrator (LMI)
US Army Materiel Command
Who manages acquisition programs?
- PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
Joint Staff J-8
Training and Doctrine Command
Joint Staff J-4 Training
PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
What represents a “Must-Do”, or minimum requirements of a capability being developed?
Key Performance Parameters
___ and ___ are two critical documents of the Force Design Update
O&O and URS
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is an authorizations document (t or f)
False
What assesses and determines required capabilities based on strategy, concepts, and similar guidance?
Needs Analysis
What compares required capabilities to current capabilities to determine unmet requirements?
Gap Analysis
The Planning to Programming Transition occurs at what step of the Force Management Model?
ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA
Which is not a tenet of MDO?
- Agility
Endurance
Anticipation
Depth
Anticipation
____ is the purposeful reliance by one Service’s forces on another Service’s capabilities to maximize effects of both.
Joint interdependence
Joint Logistics - grouping of capabilities/activities that enable JFC to synchronize, integrate, and direct joint ops
(t or f)
False
CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.
Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)
JP 4-0 sustainment is a joint function and is the provision of logistics, personnel services, HSS, and finance mngt
(t or f)
False
Which of the following answers list three of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment?
- Integration, Endurance, Anticipation
Responsiveness, Trust, Survivability
Endurance, Simplicity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Which is not true about the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)?
- Has three operational responsibilities
Lead sustainment org for ASCC
TSC is planner, ESC is executer
Coordinates Title 10, ASOS, DoD EA, and lead service responsibilities
Has three operational responsibilities
Which is not true about an Expeditionary Sustainment Command (ESC)?
- Multiple ESCs may operate in a theater at once
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Sustainment BDEs are usually subordinate to ESC
ESC plans for near-term operations
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?
Rear, Close, and Deep
Joint Logistics Enterprise (JLEnt) – Connects global strategic providers to the GCC/JFC at the operational level. (t or f)
True
Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
Capabilities-Based Assessments
Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations
- Broader interaction among elements
Promote COP
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Faciliates cooperation in common interest
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
_____is the analytical framework that underpins joint planning.
Operational Design
Combatant Command (COCOM) does not include directive authority for logistics for subordinate units. (t or f)
false
Unified Actions attempts to sync, coordinate and integrate military ops to achieve ________
Unity of Effort
What type of area is represented by letter C?
JSOA
Which is not a Universal Joint Task List level
- Strategic Theater
Tactical
Organizational
Operational
orginizational
The JIPOE falls under which Joint Function?
Intelligence
Joint Function: ____ includes the exercise of authority and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces.
C2
____ is a series of related operations aimed at achieving objectives within a given time and space.
Campaign
Identify the missing element from the Competition Continuum: Cooperation, _______, Armed Conflict
- Contingency Operations
Adversarial Interaction
Adversarial Competition
None of the above
Adversarial Competition
The Chief of Mission (COM) has authority over all USG personnel in country, except those under the command of a CCDR. (t or f)
True
Which is not a multinational command structure?
Hybrid
Which principle enables commanders to understand effective mechanisms to achieve unity of effort?
Unity of Command
Which is NOT an attribute of an Alliance?
Ad Hoc
There are 12 Joint Operations principles
True
Fill in the blank: Caveats are any ____, ____ or ___ by a nation on its military forces.
limitation, restriction or constraint
_________ is conducted with units from two or more coalition members.
Coalition Operation
Multinational operations have how many tenets?
6
Which is part of DIME?
- Mission
Diplomatic
Infrastructure
Environment
Diplomatic
Coalition Coordination Centers are established in which multinational command structure?
Parallel
Principle USG organization that works countries on democratic reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and
USAID
Influencing populations occurs in what type of warfare?
Irregular
Which is NOT a military Operation
- Security Cooperation
Show of Force
Antiterrorism
Peace Operations
Security Cooperation
Who is not part of interagency coordination efforts?
- DOS
DOJ
Department of Homeland
United Nations
United Nations
Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations?
- Broader interaction among elements
Promote COP
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Faciliates cooperation in common interest
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Competition Continuum: Which is missing from Strategic Use of Force - Assure, Deter, ____, Force
Compel
______ authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities.
OPCON
1 - True or false
All services use and comply with regulations that govern DAS
t
After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone is money committed?
B
There are 9 Joint Operations principles
False
Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities
Cross Functional Teams
_____ _____ is the distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities.
Operational Reach
Who chairs the Army Requirements Council?
VCSA
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if it produces the greatest good for the greatest number; concern for moral outcomes
Consequence-based
Jus ad Bellum is law during war
False
____ ____ is when competing virtues come into conflict and we must choice one “right virtue” over another “right virtue”
Ethical Dilemma
Military Revolutions include
- WWI
Nuclear
French Revolution
All of the above
d
According to Clausewitz, war is an extension of _____
Policy
Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?
NMS
13 - True or false
“Ends” are objectives that must be achieved to enable an end state.
True
Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This principle is:
Discrimination
Which “school of thought” believes peace is obtained through a balance of power?
Realism
The President signs the Defense Planning Guidance
False
Which strategic document does the Secretary of Defense NOT sign?
Guidence for Employment of the Force
Contingency Planning Guidance
National Defense Strategy
Defense Planning Guidance
Contingency Planning Guidance
Which “school of thought” believes anarchy of system can bemitigated through laws and institutions as a worldview?
Liberalism
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if a virtuous person would do it; concern for moral identity, ethics of character
Virtue-based
objective, offensive, mass, maneuver, economy of force, unity of command, security, surprise, and simplicity
Principles of Joint Operations
The synchronization, coordination, and alignment of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort.
Unified Action –
C2, information, intelligence, fires, movement and maneuver, protection, and sustainment
Joint Functions
What are the two forms of warfare
irtregular
traditional
4 principles of orginization
- simplicity
- span of control
- unit integrity
- interoperability
an area of land, sea, airspace, and cyberspace defined by a CCDR or subordinate unified commander, in which a JFC (normally a commander, joint
task force [CJTF]) conducts military operations to accomplish a specific mission.
JOA
an OA defined by the CCDR for the
conduct or support of specific military operations.
theater of operations
A collective term to describe military actions conducted by forces
of two or more nations.
Multinational (MN) Operations:
The relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for
broad, long-term objectives that further the common interests of the members.
Alliance
Two or more forces or agencies of two or more allies operating together.
Combined:
An arrangement between two or more nations for common action. Coalitions are
typically ad hoc; formed by different nations, often with different objectives; usually for a single
problem or issue, while addressing a narrow sector of common interest.
Coalition
Respect: All partners must be included in the planning process and their opinions sought in
mission assignment.
* Rapport: Personal and direct relationships foster teamwork and improve overall unity of
effort.
* Knowledge of Partners: Obtain an understanding of each members doctrine, capabilities,
goals, culture, religion, history and values.
* Patience: Relationships take time to develop.
* Mission focus: Temper the need for respect, rapport, knowledge, and patience with the
requirement to ensure that the necessary tasks are accomplished.
* Trust and Confidence: The Multinational Force Commander (MNFC) must engage with other
multinational force leaders to build personal relationships and develop trust and confidence.
Tenants of multinational ops
how many command structures are there and what are they
3; Integrated, Parrallel, and Lead Nation
Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?
a.
Enemy, information, social
b.
External, physical environment, troops
c.
Economic, infrastructure, time
d.
Ideology, military, political
Economic, infrastructure, time
_____________ is a location or condition, in any domain, relative to an adversary or enemy that provides an opportunity to progress towards or achieve an objective.
a.
Relative advantage
b.
METT_TC(I)
c.
PMESII-PT
d.
Operational approach
a
What are the tenets of multidomain operations?
a.
Mission, enemy, terrain, troops, time, civil considerations, information
b.
Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo
c.
Agility, convergence, endurance, depth
d.
Clear, hold, build
c
Which of the following is an Army warfighting function?
a.
Protection
b.
Mission command
c.
Information
d.
Leadership
a
An ___________ is an operational area defined by a commander for the land or maritime force commander to accomplish their missions and protect their forces.
a.
Area of action
b.
Operational approach
c.
Area of operations
d.
Integration area
Area of operations
_____________ is the U.S. Army’s current operational concept.
MDO
Which of the following is a tactical mission task?
Attack
Defend
Correct
Control
Allow
control
Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
a.
Suppress
b.
Defeat
c.
Neutralize
d
Destroy
d
After visualizing the broad operational approach to achieve the end state, the commander met with the staff and provided COAs to develop in addition to direction for each warfighting function. What BEST describes what the commander did?
a.
Described the tactical problem
b.
Provided CCIR
c.
Outlined unit key tasks
d.
Provided planning guidance
d
What are the main elements contained within the commander’s intent?
a.
Task organization, mission statement, and concept of the operations
b.
Critical tasks, battlefield framework, and high value targets
c.
Broad purpose, key tasks for the unit as a whole, end state conditions
d.
Broad approach, decision points, commander’s critical information requirements
c
What are the major integrating processes within the operations process?
a.
Current operations, future operations, and plans
b.
Airspace control, information operations, mission analysis, targeting, terrain management
c.
Information collection, mission analysis, risk management, security operations, and targeting
d.
Information operations, intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB), knowledge management, risk management, and targeting
d
What planning methodology would you recommend during the execution of the mission if an unanticipated threat is likely to cause a change in the concept of the operations?
a.
Military decision-making process
b.
Rapid decision making and synchronization process
c.
Army problem solving
d.
Army design methodology
b
What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations?
a.
Reconnaissance operations are only conducted by maneuver units, security operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron
b.
Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented
c.
Security operations are only conducted by maneuver units, while reconnaissance operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron
d.
Reconnaissance operations only orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while security is only enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented
b
When comparing fundamentals of reconnaissance and security operations, which fundamental is considered in both?
a.
Provide early and accurate warning
b.
Retain freedom of maneuver
c.
Continuous reconnaissance
d.
Orient on reconnaissance objectives
c
What are the types of reconnaissance operations?
a.
Area, reconnaissance in force, route, special, and zone
b.
Area, route, screen, special, and zone
c.
Reconnaissance in force, route, screen, special, and zone
d.
Area, guard, route, special, and zone
a
What are the four primary types of security operations?
a.
Defeat, destroy, isolate, control
b.
Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo
c.
Area, zone, route, special
d.
Screen, guard, cover, area security
d.
Screen, guard, cover, area security
What doctrinal concept is a BCT commander describing if, during receipt of mission, he describes his understanding of the BCT’s mission as gaining control of key terrain to protect the flank of the division’s main effort, setting the conditions for withdrawal of enemy forces?
a.
Types of offensive operations
b.
Purposes of the offense
c.
Transitions
d.
Characteristics of the offense
b
What doctrinal concept does the commander want to make sure his staff addresses in each COA if he directs his staff to ensure all COAs include surprise, concentration, tempo, and audacity?
a.
Characteristics of the defense
b.
Forms of maneuver
c.
Characteristics of the offense
d.
Purpose of offensive operations
c
Which of the following is a correct statement about forms of maneuver?
a.
A turning movement seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force
b.
Frontal assaults and envelopments destroy enemy in their current positions
c.
Envelopments seize rear objectives, forcing the enemy to depart current positions
d.
All forms of maneuver seek to destroy the enemy by forcing them to depart their positions
b
During the offense which protection tasks would a commander most likely place special emphasis?
a.
Repositioning and sustainment operations
b.
Survivability and detention operations
c.
Camouflage and stability operations
d.
Resupply and replenishment operations
d
In opposing force tactics, what is a support zone?
a.
An area that links second and third echelon forces to battle zone forces and used to deceive the enemy of force disposition
b.
An area where enabling forces operate until committed and the risk of enemy action is moderate
c.
An area where the OPFOR expects to preposition committed reserve forces in support of the defensive actions
d.
An area that is free of significant enemy action and to permit the effective logistics and administrative support of forces
d
Which of the following is a reason that a BCT would reach a culmination point?
a.
Equipment repairs and personnel replacements do not keep pace with losses
b.
Stockage of fuel, ammunition, and other supplies drops due to expenditures
c.
Loss of tempo due to defended areas that can be bypassed
d.
The enemy force repositions close to, but outside of the BCT’s objective
a
Which of the following is a purpose of defensive operations?
a.
Seize population centers
b.
Disrupt an enemy attack
c.
Seize terrain, resources, and population centers
d.
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy
d
What characteristic of the defense does a unit exhibit by planning the use of natural terrain, minefields, and likely avenues of approach to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas?
a.
Combined arms
b.
Preparation
c.
Audacity
d.
Surprise
b
The commander directs the staff to develop a defensive operation where effects can be concentrated, depth of the defensive area is maximized, the ability to take full advantage of the terrain, build flexibility within defensive actions, and buy time for resumption for future offensive operations. What type of defense is the staff planning?
a.
Mobile defense
b.
Area defense
c.
Maneuver defense
d.
Defense in depth
b
Of the five kinds of battle positions, which statement below describes a supplementary position?
a.
A defensive position for occupation when the primary position is no longer suitable
b.
The best position to accomplish the mission that covers the enemy’s most likely avenue of approach into an area of operation
c.
A defensive position that provides the best sectors of fire along an enemy avenue of approach
d.
A defensive position that provides the best zones of fire along an enemy retreat route.
c
What are some high priority sustainment considerations during a defensive operation?
a.
Availability of Class I
b.
Availability of Class IV and Class V
c.
Weather forecast
d.
High value/high payoff targets
b
According to OPFOR tactics, what are the two forms of attack?
a.
Integrated and dispersed attack
b.
Dispersed and collective attack
c.
Integrated and disruption attack
d.
Integrated and collective attack
a
If you are conducting a defensive operation, and it is unsuccessful, what will your unit most likely transition to?
a.
Offensive operations
b.
Defense support to civil authorities operations
c.
Full spectrium operations
d.
Retrograde operations
d
Foreign instigated insurgencies, domestic rebellions, and humanitarian crises are sources of what?
a.
DoS disintegration factors
b.
Examples of host nation control
c.
DoD reportable intelligence requirements
d.
Instability
d
In stability operations, what is the “whole-of-government approach?
a.
The full range of measures taken by a nation to promote its growth and to protect itself from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to its security
b.
All Department of Defense (DoD) interactions with foreign defense establishments to build defense relationships that promote specific US security interests, develop allied and friendly military capabilities for self-defense and multinational operations, and provide US forces with peacetime and contingency access to a host nation
c.
The development, integration, and coordination of all instruments of national power and integrates the collaborative efforts of the departments and agencies of the USG to achieve unity of effort toward a shared goal
d.
Participation by civilian and military agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another government or other designated organization to free and protect its society from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to its security
c
The stabilization framework is designed to accomplish which of the following?
a.
Dictate the limits of nongovernmental agency/organization involvement
b.
Describe the conditions of the operational environment
c.
Provide a sequenced response model for intervening actors
d.
Prioritize economic and infrastructure development tasks
c
Which of the following Army stability tasks nests within Department of State’s justice and reconciliation sector?
a.
Conduct security cooperation
b.
Establish/support civil control
c.
Establish civil security
d.
Support to governance
b
Stability operations are planned as part of any large-scale combat operation (LSCO), but at what stage of an operation are stability tasks initiated?
a.
As soon as conditions permit, no matter the combat environment
b.
Only at the completion of major offensive operations
c.
Only at the end of major fighting, during consolidation of gains
d.
At the start of operations, no matter the combat environment
a
What are designated events called that may be targeted by terrorist or other criminal activities by virtue of their political, economic, social, or religious significance (i.e., Olympics, presidential inaugurations, and state funerals) that require DSCA mission support?
a.
National incident response event
b.
Federal Bureau of Investigations special security event
c.
National special security event
d.
Homeland defense event
c
Which processes allow a command to support local communities in an emergency situation/incident?
a.
Local request for immediate support, state request for immediate support
b.
Emergency support functions, national incident management system
c.
Pre-scripted missions, mission assignments
d.
MOA/MOU, immediate response authority
d
Which law governs the President’s authority to deploy federal military forces, including federalized National Guard forces, within the United States to put down lawlessness and rebellion?
a.
Economy Act
b.
Posse Comitatus Act
c.
Stafford Act
d.
Insurrection Act
d
You are a member of a USNORTHCOM situational assessment team deployed to the Kansas City area to assess recent natural disaster conditions in advance of the potential commitment of federal military forces. What military representative does your team coordinate with for information sharing with other local, state and federal agencies?
a.
The adjutant general (TAG) for the state of Kansas
b.
Defense coordinating officer (DCO)
c.
Chief of staff for the state joint force headquarters (JFHQ-State)
d.
Deputy commanding officer (DCO)
b
What is a service or DoD agency installation within the homeland tasked to serve as a base for military forces engaged in DSCA or homeland defense called?
a.
State National Guard armory
b.
U.S. Army Reserve center
c.
Forward operating base (FOB)
d.
Base support installation (BSI)
d
The __________ is an orderly, analytical process that integrates the activities of the commander, staff, and subordinate headquarters in the development of a plan or order.
a.
Course of action decision brief
b.
Troop-leading procedures (TLP)
c.
Military decision-making process (MDMP)
d.
Quick decision-making process (QDP)
c
What are the doctrinally correct titles and sequence for the five paragraphs of an operations order?
a.
Situation, mission, execution, sustainment, command and signal
b.
Situation, mission, execution, sustainment, mission command
c.
Situation, mission, operations, sustainment, command and signal
d.
Situation, mission, execution, logistics, command and signal
a
__________________ is the systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and informational considerations in each of the other factors, in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations.
a.
Battlefield Calculus
b.
Intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB)
c.
Receipt of mission
d.
Planning team composition
b
Initial intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB) occurs during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)?
a.
course of action development
b.
Course of action approval
c.
Mission analysis
d.
Receipt of mission
c
What is the process that staffs use to develop courses of action during MDMP?
a.
Receipt of mission, missional analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, orders production, dissemination, and transition
b.
Gather the tools, list all friendly forces, list assumptions, list known critical events and decision points, select the war gaming method, select a technique to record and display the results, war game the operation and assess the results, conduct a war game briefing
c.
Assess relative combat power, generate options, array forces, develop a broad concept, assign headquarters, develop COA statements and sketches, conduct COA briefing, select or modify COAS for continued analysis
d.
Frame the operational environment, develop a desired end state, frame the problem, develop an operational approach, develop the plan, continuously assess the situation, reframe as necessary
c
War gaming is conducted during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)?
a.
Course of action development
b.
Course of action analysis
c.
Mission analysis
d.
Course of action approval
b
A ________________ help subordinate units and staffs prepare for new missions by describing the situation, providing initial planning guidance, and directing preparation activities.
a.
Operations order (OPORD)
b.
Sequel
c.
Branch plan
d.
Warning order (WARNORD)
d
When preparing an operations plan or order, which Army reference specifies format standards and information requirements?
a.
FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production
b.
FM 3-0 Operations
c.
FM 3-01 How to Fight
d.
FM 7-0 Training
a
As the commander develops the defensive plan, what is the first and most critical security consideration at the beginning of any defensive operation?
a.
Conduct reconnaissance to gain and maintain contact with the enemy
b.
Disrupting enemy formations to force early deployment
c.
Completing obstacle construction prior to enemy first contact in the main battle area (MBA)
d.
Destroying all enemy reconnaissance elements in the MBA and security areas
a
By law, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) is limited in size. What organization(s) does it use to accomplish its Title 10 missions?
Army Commands (ACOMs), Army Service Component Commands (ASCCs), Direct Reporting Units (DRUs), and Field Operating Agencies (FOAs)
Force Management ________________________.
develops and fields capabilities that combatant commanders require to meet the demands of the contemporary operating environment
Congress directs the Department of the Army (DA) to accomplish certain tasks through ___________.
Title 10
Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?
ADCON
Provide an example of Congress exercising its authority to organize the military.
Goldwater-Nichols Act established the structure that included geographic combatant commands
At the end of JCIDS, capability developers have an approved solution approach by using _________________ framework.
DOTMLPF
Describe the CBA
The CBA has three analyses and ends with a proposed solution to an identified requirement not currently met by the joint force. The Needs Analysis identifies the problem. The Gap Analysis assesses the unmet requirement. The Solutions Analysis proposes a range of DOTMLPF-P solution approaches.
A _______________ describes how the joint community wants to operate in future conflicts.
joint concept
JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
capability based assessments
JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, but ultimately classifies solutions into two categories:
Materia, non material
_______ are the minimal operational effectiveness and suitability attributes that are testable and measurable to developing an effective military capability.
KPPs
Across DOTMLPF-P, the services consider materiel solutions last because ______________.
They are generally the most expensive and take the longest to develop
The Defense Acquisition System (DAS) applies to ____________.
all services
The Army processes urgent acquisition requirements through Operational Needs Statements (ONSs). The Joint community uses ___________.
Joint Urgent Operational Needs (JUONs) and Joint Emergent Operational Neeeds (JEONs)
Acquisition programs are managed by ______________.
Program Executive Offices, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers
is the process through which the Army develop and approves new (or modified) organizational designs.
Force design Update
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) contains _________________.
a narrative and listings of the organization’s required equipment and personnel
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
FIFA
The Force Design Update consists of six parts. What are the two principal documents?
O and O, URS
Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a __________________ to update the TOE.
a Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)
After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.
Command Plan
MTOEs are the usual authorizations document for the operating force (including BCTs). _________ are the usual authorizations document for the generating force (including CGSS).
TDAs
Within Total Army Analysis (TAA), the Qualitative Analysis ______________.
Provides a human-in-the-loop view to apply operational experience and professional military judgment to the final Army force structure decisions
The Senior Leaders of the Army document TAA decisions on the total force structure in the ____________.
ARSTRUC
What is one reason that the Army cannot fully man units to MTOE even when it has enough personnel in rank and operational specialty?
Even when the Army has sufficient inventory to fill all units to authorizations, not all personnel are available for duty. Historically, 13% of the force is unavailable and held in an account known as TTHS (Trainees, Transients, Holdees, and Students)
What is an example of the Army considering Force Integration early in the development of a new capability?
FIFA
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Compo 1 unit should receive?
Army Manning Guidance
Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?
HQDA G3/5/7
How does the Army publish its priorities for unit resourcing?
AMPL and DARPL
The Army Budget Office (ABO) monitors expenditures during ________.
Execution is the actual spending of dollars authorized and appropriated by Congress
While initiated in Planning during Total Army Analysis, the Army’s Program Objective Memorandum (POM) is finalized during _____________.
Congress who will actually pass the budget into law
If a program is unable to spend appropriated funds, the Army can shift the funds to another program through ____________, but only if it is less than the allowable threshold.
Reprogramming
This is one funding option when Congress and the President cannot agree on a defense budget by October 1st of any given year:
Continuing Resolution Authority
HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army and CSA happens as part of ________.
programming
The ____ provides a foundational basis in preparation of annex D for assigned contingency plans and/or OPORD development tasks and establishes priorities of support across all phases of operations to support the jfcs conops
Concept of Logistical Support (COLS)
Human resources (HR) functional units are elements that provide direct or area HR support as an integrated part of the sustainment warfighting function. They are supported by the sustainment community and provide tactical HR support in which of the following specific area?
personnel accountability, casualty operations, postal operations
The strategic support area describes the area extending from the _______________ to the continental United States (CONUS) or another combatant’s area of responsibility (AOR).
Joint Security Area (JSA) within a theater
Which of the following answers list four of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment?
responsiveness, survivability, improvisation, and continuity
Doctrinally, what organization is normally designated to control the Division Support Area (DSA)?
Maneuver Enhancement Brigade (MEB)
Which type of contract is considered the most difficult to manage, provides a variety of combat support and combat service support to deployed forces and is written in the United States in support of operations in theater
external
The _______ is a segment of the iterative planning process which addresses identification, understanding, and framing the theater’s mission at the campaign level, not for a specific operation.
theater logistics overview
The Army classifies supplies into 10 classes. Class _____ includes tentage, tool kits, housekeeping supplies, and individual clothing.
II
____________ is the distance and duration across which a unit can successfully employ military capabilities.
OPerational Reach
What are the levels of warfare according to FM 3-0?
National Strategic, Theater Strategic, Operational, Tactical
Medical evacuation vehicles positioned forward in each company area come from which squad in the battalion medical platoon?
ambulance
What authority does a Combatant Commander use to assign a component commander with the responsibility for conducting various theater logistics functions, as well as base support at designated theater locations
DAFL
Which sustainment principle best describes the abilty to forecast operational requirements and initiate necessary actions that most appropriately satisfy a response without waiting for OPORDs or fragmentary orders?
Anticipation
You are the brigade executive officer. On your first day, you learn that a service contract for maintenance is awarded for $350K. Who is the best person for tracking the monthly payments against the contracted amount in an effort to identify future potential savings through de-obligations?
Brigade S8
When a Brigade Comat Team echelons sustainment, they are normally organized into _______, _______, and _______.
Field Trains, Combat Trains, and Company Trains
What are the parts of the Fiscal Triad?
Financial Management (Disbursing), Financial Management (Budgeting), and Contracting
Which service is the sole provider of patient movement from Role 3 to Role 4 and is the preferred means of patient movement over great distances within a given area of operations (AO)?
Air Force
Casualty evacuation can span a spectrum considered lower end and upper end. Which of the following is considered lower end and the drawback to this type of casualty evacuation?
Dedicated, non-medical vehicle (air or ground) without a medical provider or medical equipment. No ability to provide enroute care.
The ____________ connects strategic enablers to the tactical formations.
Theater sustainment command
Sustainers enable ___________ by conducting sustainment preparation of the operating environment (SPoOE), synchronizing the sustainment plan with the scheme of maneuver, and maintaining flexibility and disciplined initiative while supporting maneuver commanders.
Freedom of action
ATP 4-10 defines operational contract support (OCS) as, “the process of planning for and obtaining supplies, services, and minor construction from commercial sources in support of CCDR-directed operations. What are the complimentary functions of OCS?
contract support integration, contracting support, and contractor management
Within Global Combat Support System (GCSS) - Army, the terms unit ‘OMA’ and ‘Army Working Capital Fund’ are associated with:
tactical funding and strategic funding
Which of the following is described as the capability to deploy and sustain military forces worldwide in support of national strategy?
Strategic Mobility
The Army Health System is divided into two distinct missions. These missions are _____ and ______.
Force Health Protection and Health Service Support
You are a battalion S3 in a unit that is assigned its position or area of operation from your parent unit and have your priorities set by your parent unit. What is your support relationship with the units you are supooporting
GS
According to Joint Publication 4-0 Sustainment is one of the seven joint functions and includes __________________ until mission accomplishment and redeployment of the force.
logistics and personnel services
Which is part of DOTMLPF-P?
30sec
Training
Principle
Data
Organic
Training
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if it produces the greatest good for the greatest number; concern for moral outcomes
30sec
Virtue-based
Consequence-based
Principles-based
Consequence-based
ICD stands for:
30sec
Initial Change Document
Initial Change Demand
Initial Capability Document
None of the above
Initial Capability Documen
Jus ad Bellum is law during war t or f
false
Which is part of DIME?
Mission
Diplomatic
Infrastructure
Environment
diplomatic
Who approves army requirements as part of the JCIDS process?
30sec
Army Requirements Council
Army Resource Oversight Council
Acquisition Resource Oversight Council
Department of Defense
Army Resource Oversight Council
Non-materiel future needs (>2 years) are captured on what JCIDS document?
30sec
DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation
Solution Request Document
Document Change Request
Urgent Operational Need
DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation
Army Futures Command leads the concept and capability development process for the Army Modernization Enterprise.
30sec
True
False
t
____ ____ is when competing virtues come into conflict and we must choice one “right virtue” over another “right virtue”
30sec
Ethical Dilemma
Moral Decision
Competing Virtues
None of the above
ethicval dilemma
Military Revolutions include
30sec
WWI
Nuclear
French Revolution
All of the above
all of the above
According to Clausewitz, war is an extension of _____
30sec
Government
Economy
Policy
Conflicts
Policy
Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?
NMS
JMS
UCP
JMCP
nms
Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This principle is:
30sec
Discernment
Moral Decision Making
Discrimination
Judgement
Discrimination
Which “school of thought” believes peace is obtained through a balance of power?
30sec
Realism
Liberalism
realism
16 - True or false
The President signs the Defense Planning Guidance
30sec
True
False
f
Which strategic document does the Secretary of Defense NOT sign?
30sec
Guidence for Employment of the Force
Contingency Planning Guidance
National Defense Strategy
Defense Planning Guidance
Contingency Planning Guidance
18 - True or false
JCIDS, PPBE, and DAS are the 3 primary decision support systems to integrate capabilities
30sec
True
False
t
_____ _____ is the distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities.
30sec
Tactical Distance
Operational Depth
Operational Reach
Combat Area
Operational Reach
Which “school of thought” believes anarchy of system can bemitigated through laws and institutions as a worldview?
30sec
Realism
Liberalism
Liberalism
Ethical Triangle: Action is right if a virtuous person would do it; concern for moral identity, ethics of character
30sec
Virtue-based
Consequence-based
Principles-based
Virtue-based
Department of the Army Structure include(s): Pick BEST answer
30sec
ACOM
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
FORSCOM, TRADOC, AMC, AFC
ACOM, ASCC, and DRU
ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA
Which is part of DOTMLPF-P?
Principle
Materiel
Data
Organic
materiel
What are the Levels of War?
30sec
Tactical, Operational, Strategic
Tactical, Organizational, Strategic
Direct, Organizational, Strategic
None of the above
Tactical, Operational, Strategic
Major Operations occur at what level of war?
30sec
Strategic
Tactical
Operational
Every level
operational
How many milestones are part of the DAS Major Capability Acquisition Overview
30sec
2
4
3
5
3
Which DAS Major Capability Acquisition phase includes validation of CDD?
30sec
Material Solution Analysis
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
Engineering and Manufacturing Development
Production and Deployment
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
There are 9 Joint Operations principles
30sec
True
False
f
Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities
30sec
Cross Functional Teams
Capability Development Team
Cross Capability Team
Defense Capability Team
Cross Functional Teams
Which is not a Principle of Organization?
30sec
Simplicity
Unit Integrity
Unity of Command
Span of Control
Unity of Command
Who chairs the Army Requirements Council?
30sec
CSA
VCSA
SECDEF
vcsa
The Army’s urgent operational needs process/approach is captured in:
20sec
Capability Request
Initial Needs Request
White Paper
Operational Needs Statement
ons
Combatant Command (COCOM) does not include directive authority for logistics for subordinate units.
30sec
True
False
f
Unified Actions attempts to sync, coordinate and integrate military ops to achieve ________
30sec
Unity of Command
Unity of Effort
Economy of Force
Joint Force
Unity of Effort
What type of area is represented by letter C?
30sec
AOR
JSOA
JOA
Theater of Operations
jsoa
Which is not a multinational command structure?
30sec
Lead
Hybrid
Parallel
Integrated
hybrid
Which principle enables commanders to understand effective mechanisms to achieve unity of effort?
30sec
Unity of Command
Economy of Force
Maneuver
Legitimacy
uoc
There are 12 Joint Operations principles
30sec
True
False
t
Fill in the blank: Caveats are any ____, ____ or ___ by a nation on its military forces.
30sec
limitation, concern or constraint
limitation, restriction or constraint
interest, restriction or constraint
limitation, restriction or constraint
Multinational operations have how many tenets?
30sec
5
6
9
12
6
Which is NOT a military Operation
20sec
Security Cooperation
Show of Force
Antiterrorism
Peace Operations
Security Cooperation
Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations?
20sec
Broader interaction among elements
Promote COP
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Faciliates cooperation in common interest
A subset of Interagency Cooperation
Competition Continuum: Which is missing from Strategic Use of Force - Assure, Deter, ____, Force
20sec
Compel
Protect
Direct
None of these
compel
Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO?
30sec
Agility
Endurance
Anticipation
Depth
Anticipation
____ is the purposeful reliance by one Service’s forces on another Service’s capabilities to maximize effects of both.
30sec
Joint interdependence
Integration
Army Support to Other Services
Joint Interagency
Joint interdependence
JP 4-0 sustainment is a joint function and is the provision of logistics, personnel services, HSS, and finance mngt
30sec
True
False
f
Which of the following answers list three of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment?
30sec
Integration, Endurance, Anticipation
Responsiveness, Trust, Survivability
Endurance, Simplicity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Integration, Continuity, Improvisation
Which is not true about the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)?
30sec
Has three operational responsibilities
Lead sustainment org for ASCC
TSC is planner, ESC is executer
Coordinates Title 10, ASOS, DoD EA, and lead service responsibilities
Has three operational responsibilities
Which is not true about an Expeditionary Sustainment Command (ESC)?
30sec
Multiple ESCs may operate in a theater at once
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Sustainment BDEs are usually subordinate to ESC
ESC plans for near-term operations
Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps
Joint Logistics Enterprise (JLEnt) – Connects global strategic providers to the GCC/JFC at the operational level.
30sec
True
False
t
Which is NOT a DAS path?
30sec
Defense Business Sustems
Major Capability Acquisition
Software Acquisition
Deliberate Operational Needs
Deliberate Operational Needs
Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Component unit should receive?
20sec
Force Management System
Army Component Guidance
Unit Reference Sheet
TOE
Army Component Guidance
Fill the blanks: Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)
20sec
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
Wargaming, Qualitative, Integration
Qualitative, Quantitative, Integration
Quantitative, Qualitative, Distribution
Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration
_____is the analytical framework that underpins joint planning.
20sec
Operational Art
Operational Design
Operational Design
This document provides a 1-N list of unit priority, approved by Army Senior Leaders
30sec
ACMG
DARPL
AMPL
ARSTRUC
DARPL
______ is the Army’s lead materiel integrator (LMI)
30sec
US Army Materiel Command
ASA(ALT)
Army Sustainment Command
DA G-8
US Army Materiel Command
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is an authorizations document
30sec
True
False
f
The Planning to Programming Transition occurs at what step of the Force Management Model?
30sec
Initial Operating Capability at the end of DAS
DOTMLPF-P solution at the end of JCIDs
ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA
Requirements identification at the end of wargaming
ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA
Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO?
30sec
Agility
Endurance
Influence
Depth
Influence
Decisions made during execution are either execution decisions or adjustment decisions
20sec
True
False
t
Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?
30sec
Economy, Infrastructure, Time
Mission, Economy, Social
Physical Terrain, Enemy, Time
Military, Enemy, Intelligence
Economy, Infrastructure, Tim
Which of the following is NOT a tactical mission task?
30sec
Breach
Attack
Reduce
Isolate
atk
What are major integrating processes within the operations process?
30sec
Information Collection, IPB and Knowledge management
IBP, Access, and Estimates
Design, Risk management, and Targeting
Information Collection, IPB and Knowledge management
Which is not an attribute of the Rapid Decision-making and Synchronization Process (RDSP)?
30sec
Usually a single COA
Based on existing order
Battle drill for current and future ops cells
None of the above
None of the above
Which color of money is used for Day to Day activities?
30sec
Operations & Maintenance – Army
Military Personnel Army
Procurement
None of the above
oma
Which is NOT part of the ethical triangle
20sec
Principle
Virtue
Moral
Consequence
Moral
Key Players, End State, Interests, Facts, Assumptions, Paradigms, and Problems make up the THIS reasoning process
30sec
Problem Framing
Vison Statement
Operational Approach
Ethical Reasoining
Problem Framing
Which is NOT a level of Culture
20sec
Artifact
Shared Attitudes
Espoused Belief
Basic Underlying Assumptions
Shared Attitudes
______, bests describes Napoleonic Strategy
20sec
Attrition
Decisive Battle
Limited Warfare
Combined Arms Warfare
Decisive Battle
Material Solution Analysis is the first phase of the ____
20sec
PPBE
FDU
DAS
TAA
das
______ is the final phase of the DAS
20sec
Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction
Production and Deployment
Engineering and Manufacturing Development
Operations and Support
operations and support
The ______ is an output of Total Army Analysis (TAA)
20sec
Unit Reference Sheet
ARSTRUC
MTOE
Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)
arstrucvk
Funding, Facilities, Readiness, Manning, Structures, Training, Equipment, Deploying make up the
30sec
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA)
Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA)
DOTMLPFP
POM Force
fifa
Which is NOT a module under Sustainable Readiness
20sec
Mission
Ready
Reset
Prepare
Reseresett
PEGs monitor assigned programs and resources to ensure they conform to Title 10 requirements. The 5 PEGs are
20sec
Manning, Training, Equipment, Sustaining, Installations
CIO G6, G2, G1, G3, G4
Futures CMD, Material CMD, TRADOC, CECOM, FORSCOM
Manning, Training, Equipment, Sustaining, Installations
Describes a specific organization, program, or function and captures its resources over a multi-year Period
APE
Management Decision Execution Packages (MDEP)
Program Evaluation Groups (PEGs):
POM Force
Management Decision Execution Packages (MDEP)
PPBE (Programing Phase) is Led by the
20sec
G-4
S-8
G-3 5 7
G-8
g8
Protection, C2, Intelligence, Fires, Information, Sustainment, Movement and Maneuver are the
20sec
War Fighting Functions
Principles of Joint Ops
Joint Operating Precepts
Joint Functions
joint functions
Which is not one of the 12 principles of Joint Operations
20sec
Legitimacy
Restraint
Perseverance
Determination
Determination
Offense, Defense, Stability, DSCA are
20sec
Tenents of ULO
Defeat Mechanisms
Elements of Decisive Action
Stability Mechanisms
Elements of Decisive Action
Which is NOT an element of operational design
20sec
Termination
Decisive Points
Forces and Functions
Combat Power
cp
PMESII-PT and METT-TC help commanders _____ the OE
20sec
Describe
Direct
Visualize
Understand
understand
Commanders describe and express their visualization through
20sec
OPORDs
FRAGOs
CDRs Intent, Planning Guidance, CCIR, EEFI
Lines of Effort
CDRs Intent, Planning Guidance, CCIR, EEFI
Logistics, Financial, Management, Personnel Service, Health Service Support are
20sec
Elements of Sustainment
Element of Combat Power
War Fighting Functions Integrators
Logistical Functions
elements of sustainment
A BSA can only defeat a ____________ unless augmented with addition security forces.
20sec
Company
Platoon
Squad
Battalion
squad
Role 3 Medical Care is
20sec
Combat Support Hospitals
CONUS-based Hospitals
Medical Company
Unit Level Medical Care
Combat Support Hospitals
Integration, Anticipation, Responsiveness, Simplicity, Economy, Survivability, Continuity, Improvisation =
30sec
Elements of Sustainment
Principles of Logistics
Principles of Sustainment
Tenets of ULO
Principles of Sustainment
Route, Zone, Area, RECON in Force and Special RECON are
20sec
RECON Methods
Forms of RECON
RECON Tasks
RECON Principles
Forms of RECON
Dismounted, Mounted, Aerial, and RECON by Fire are
20sec
RECON Methods
Forms of RECON
RECON Tasks
RECON Principles
RECON Methods
Envelopment, Turning Movement, Infiltration, Penetration, Frontal Attack =
20sec
Security Operations
Offensive Operation
Tactical Enabling Tasks
Forms of Maneuver
formsd of maneuver
Which is NOT a Tactical Enabling Task
20sec
Relief in Place
Passage of Lines (Forward)
Passage of Lines (Reward)
Feint
feint
Disruption, Flexibility, Maneuver, Mass and Concentration, Operations in Depth, Preparation, Security =
20sec
Characteristics of the Defense
Characteristics of the Offense
Principles of Security
Characteristics RECON
Characteristics of the Defense
Which is not a Type of Defensive Operation
20sec
Area
Retrograde
Defense of a Linear Obstacle
Mobile
defense of a linear obstacvle
Which is NOT a form of Defense
20sec
Defense of a Linear Obstacle
Perimeter Defense
Reverse Slope Defense
Retrograde
retrograde
A defensive location oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach
20sec
Battle Position
Engagement Area
Target
Defensive Location
bp
Establish Civil Security, Restore Essential Services, and Support to Governance are three of the six ____
20sec
Army Stability Operations Tasks
DSCA tasks
Stability Mechanisms
Defeat Mechanisms
Army Stability Operations Tasks
______ -Most associates with Frederick the Great
20sec
Decsive Battle
Jominian Tactics
Nationalism
Limited War
limited war
Shape Operational Environments, Prevent Conflict, Prevail in LSCO, and Consolidate Gains =
30sec
Operational Art
US Army Strategic Roles
US Army Operational Roles
US Army Tactical Roles
strategic
Operational Art + Operational Design =
20sec
OPORDs
CCDR Campaign Plan
Strategy
Operational Approach
Operational Approach
According to ADP 3-0, the purpose of a sustaining operation is to enable the decisive operation or shaping operations by ______ and ______ combat power.
generating and maintaining
Mutual trust, mission orders, shared understanding, competence, commander’s intent, disciplined initiative, and risk acceptance
prinmciples of mission command
_________ are conducted by the Department of Defense, at the direction of the Department of State, to assist US citizens to leave a foreign nation when the security situation becomes dangerous.
neo
Which source of power is best suited for gaining the commitment of followers?
personal power
According to Dr. John Kotter’s 8-Stage Change Model, this stage perpetuates the organization’s successes and newly learned behaviors into the future.
Anchoring New Approaches in the Culture
The ability to establish, and operate ports of debarkation (air, sea, and rail), to establish a distribution system and sustainment bases, and to facilitate port throughput and sustainment support for the reception, staging, onward movement and integration of forces within a theater of operations is:
Theater Opening
Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrating, supplying, and maintaining forces?
Military Departments: Title 10, United States Code and Department of Defense Directive (DODD) 5100.1 describe the organization, roles, and responsibilities for the elements of the DOD to include the statutory requirements for ach military department. In accordance with Title 10, each Service retains responsibility for the sustainment support of forces it allocates to a joint force.
Which document does the President approve that defines the responsibilities and areas of responsibility for combatant commanders?
Unified Command Plan
What is the process that brings newly developed capabilities to the force?
Force Integration
HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army and CSA happens as part of ________.
programming
Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?
G-3/5/7
Who was the principal architect of Soviet “Deep Operations” concepts during the Interwar years?
Mikhail Tukhachevsky
Germany’s attempts to break the stalemate after 1916 can best be described as
Storm Trooper Tactics; unrestricted submarine warfare
Why did new German operational methods fail to break through the Allied lines during the spring offensive of 1918?
Inadequate supplies; Stubborn Allied defensive tactics; An over-reliance on German Stormtroopers; The German military overestimation of their offensive capabilities; The inability of Ludendorff to follow the stated operational aims
What were Alfred Thayer Mahan’s six “principal conditions” that affected sea power?
Geographical Position, extent of territory, number of population, national character
Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel development based on immediacy of need?
Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate
A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) contains _________________.
narrative and listings of the organization’s required equipment and personnel
Achieving shared understanding, informed decision making and unity of effort among various agencies of the US Government at the combatant command level is done through a:
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) or similar enterprise
The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is the primary system the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff uses to execute statutory responsibilities to conduct assessments, provide military advice to the President and SecDef, and assist the President and SecDef in providing strategic direction to the Armed Forces of the United States. Which of the following is a JSPS product?
The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan
Using national strategies as a guide, combatant commanders develop plans that execute day-to-day campaigning that address theater objectives as well as objectives directed by global campaign plans and functional campaign plans. Which selection describes this category of plans?
Combatant Command Campaign Plan
Which organization within the United Nations is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?
Leadership, Information, Mission Command, M2, Intel, Fires, Protection, Sustainment
elements of combat power
how w`ow do commanders dewcribe the visualization of broad general actions that will resolve a problem
operational app
what are authority responsibility decisionmaking and leadership key elements of
command
