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Surgery > X-ray > Flashcards

X-ray Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of the intensifying screen?

A

Converts x-rays into visible light

Phosphorous crystals produce the light

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2
Q

What types of intensifying screens are known?

A

CaWO4, and rare-earth screens (blue or green)

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3
Q

What types of x-ray films do you know?

A

Black films, transparent films, and photographic film with a light sensitive emulsion containing silver halide

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4
Q

What are the steps of film processing?

A 
Exposure
Developing
Stopping of the development (rinse or bath)
Fixation
Washing
Drying
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5
Q

How does the automatic processor work?

A
  1. Transport system
  2. Temperature control system
  3. Recirculating system
  4. Replenishment system
  5. Dryer system
  6. Electrical system
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6
Q

What are the main parts of a conventional x-ray machine?

A 
Control panel
Generator
X-ray tube
Collimator
Cassette
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7
Q

What is the role of the generator?

A

Generate x-rays
You will find the X-ray tube, which consists of a cathode ray tube of tungsten that produces electrons, and an anode that collects the electrons

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8
Q

What types of generators are known today?

A
  1. Single phase with low capacity
  2. 3-phase, which needs 3 phase electric current
  3. High frequency, largest, most stable capacity
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9
Q

What is the control panel used for?

A

Adjusting the mA (amount of electric current) and kV (electrical diffecrence between the cathode and anode)

Can be analogue or digital

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10
Q

What are the components of the X-ray tube?

A

Cathode and anode
Cathode: Wire of tungsten producing electrons that travel towards the positive anode
Anode: Positive charge. Needs a cooling system (water or oil recirculating)

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11
Q

What is the difference between a photon and an electron?

A

Both are elementary particles
Photon = Visible light, packages of energy, quantum of the electromagnetic interaction
Electron = Subatomic particle with negative charge

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12
Q

What does kV and mA mean?

A 
kV = Kilovolt = electrical potential unit
mA = Milliampere = Unit for amount of electrical current (flow of electrical charge through a medium)
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13
Q

Why do we need to use the shortest exposure time possible in radiology?

A
  1. To minimise the biological tissue damage out can cause
  2. When taking pictures of moving parts or unanaesthetised animals to minimise chances of blurry pictures due to movements
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14
Q

How is the x-ray beam generated?

A

By producing electrons at the cathode, which hit the positive anode

Produces 99% light + heat, and 1% x-rays

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15
Q

How is the x-ray beam transformed to x-ray image?

A
  1. By sending rays through the object and getting a shadow of this on the film
  2. Due to the different absorbency rates of tissues, different part of the picture will be more or less dense
  3. The x-ray beam, which is let out of the window of the tube, will hit the cassette or image receptor
  4. The intensifying screen found in the cassette converts x-rays beams into visible light
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16
Q

What are the principles of digital radiography?

A

Principle: Beams onto the cassette, and then:

Indirect: Cassette is placed into a reader, which is to the monitor. There is no conventional film used, but a phosphor plate that stores the energy of the photons. The computer reads the information of the phosphor plate, and we can see the image of the computer
Direct: The monitor is directly connected to a flat panel sensor / cassette in the X-ray table. We can see the image directly within seconds

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17
Q

What is the principle of conventional film processing?

A

Need to process the film to visualise

In conventional radiography the photochemical change is used

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18
Q

How does fluoroscopy work?

A

Uses the same X-ray tube, but a different image receptor

Instead of a normal film you use a fluorescent screen or intensifying image

Not used in veterinary medicine, since the animals move too much

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19
Q

What does visible light and the X-ray beam cause on X-ray film?

A

Exposure to visible light or incorrect safe light in a dark room produces fog on the developed film.

The film gets black

Used properly, X-rays will produce a pattern of varying depths of blackness on the film

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20
Q

What does an X-ray cassette consist of?

A
  1. Cassette
  2. Grid
  3. Intensifying screen
  4. X-ray film
  5. Intensifying screen
  6. Sponge
  7. Cassette back
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21
Q

What is the role of the intensifying screen?

A

Since the film is more sensitive to light than to X-rays, the intensifying screen is used to convert X-ray into visible light.

The screen consists of phosphor crystals that produce light. The intensifying screen also allows for a reduction of the exposure values

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22
Q

What is a grid, and what do we use it for?

A

Used to increase the quality of the picture when an object is over 10 cm

Reduces radiation exposure

Composed of alternating lead and aluminium strips. The aluminium absorbs very little radiation, but the lead absorb almost all of the X-rays that strike them.

The grid is positioned between the patient film (usually fixed to the X-ray table)
The purpose is to absorb scattered radiation, preventing fogging of the film

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23
Q

How does the X-ray film automatic processor work?

A

It is a device designed to move X-ray films from one solution to the next in the film-developing process, without the need for human intervention (except to insert a film or a cassette)

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24
Q

Look at the radiograph images for practice!!!

A

Ok, I did it!

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25
Q

What happens in the internal screen at exposure?

A

It converts the X-rays to visible light, and allows for a reduction of the exposure values

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26
Q

How many people are needed for the radiography of a horse?

A

At least 3

One holding the cassette, one holding the horse, and one machine

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27
Q

Where do bone tumours usually occur?

A

Stifle near, elbow far

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28
Q

Which one is not a lung pattern?

A

Fibrous

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29
Q

In which instances do we sedate horses for X-rays?

A

Always!

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30
Q

How do you prepare a horse for radiographic interpretation?

A

Sedation
Removal of shoe(s)
Removal of mud and loose horny tissue
Trimming of the frog

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31
Q

Which radiologic signs are characteristic of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

Early phase: “Secondary physeal line”, sclerosis at the metaphysis

Advanced phase: “Cuff formation” at the metaphysis and long bones

Late phase: Antebrachial malformation

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32
Q

What contrast media is used for double contracts of the bladder?

A

Air and iodine

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33
Q

What is NOT a part of digital radiography?

A

Intensifying screen

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34
Q

True or false:

In a healthy dog, you can see cartilage

A

False; you can only see subchondral bone

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35
Q

When can HD be seen on the X-ray?

A

After 6 months of age

6 mo = 16%
12 mo = 69%
18 mo = 83%
24 mo = 96%

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36
Q

If you creased radiopacity of the femoral head and neck on an X-ray of a Spitz dog, what do you expect?

A

Perthe’s disease

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37
Q

When can you see the foetal skeleton on the X-ray? (Dogs)

A

After the 45th day

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38
Q

When do you earliest X-ray a dog with Ileus with contrast medium?

A

12 hours

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39
Q

Who is the most often affected by tracheal collapse?

A

English bulldog

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40
Q

What is the principle of ALARA?

A

To keep the radiation As Low As Reasonably Aciphieveable

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41
Q

When can osteophytes be detected?

A

After 3 weeks

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42
Q

Which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD?

A

The cartilage

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43
Q

Hansen I can also be described as?

A

An extrusion

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44
Q

Hansen II can also be described as?

A

A protrusion

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45
Q

Which spinal segment is involved in wobbler syndrome?

A

C2 - C7

Great Dane = C4 - C6
Doberman = C5 - C7

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46
Q

What are the grades of laminitis according to Obel?

A
  1. Mild
  2. Moderate
  3. Severe
  4. Very severe
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47
Q

Statement of bone tumour, age, and type?

A

5-6 years
Middle / large breeds
Fibrosarcoma, Malignant melanoma, Squamous cell carcinoma

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48
Q

Who are predisposed to Perches disease?

A

Young, small toy breeds

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49
Q

What is panosteitis?

A

A specific, benign, and self-limiting aseptic inflammation of the bones

Short lived (self-limiting) and painful condition characterised by limping and lameness.

A condition that affects the long bones on the legs of young dogs, usually between the ages of 5-18 months

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50
Q

Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what to x-ray next?

A

Thoracic cavity (lungs) mor metastasis

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51
Q

What bone disease leads to fracture(s)?

A

Renal oseodystrophy

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52
Q

What is seen in the x-ray in case of interstitial linear foreign bodies?

A

Intestines appear pleated (contrast)

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53
Q

Describe Hansen I

A 
Chondrodystrophic (small) breeds 
Nucleus pulposus: Calcification 
Annulus fibrosis: Rupture + extrusion 
Rapid deterioration of condition 
Typical age: 3-6 years
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54
Q

Describe Hansen II

A 
Other (large) breeds)
Nucleus pulposus: Fibrotisation 
Annulus fibrosus: Intact
“Protrusion”
Chronic process 
Typical age = 6+ years
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55
Q

What is the fusion time for the anconeal process?

A

4-5 months

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56
Q

Laminitis measurement

A

A/B = 25-28% (normal)

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57
Q

What is the correct order of the bone parts?

A 
Epiphysis (+ Apophysis)
Metaphysis
Diaphysis (Medulla + compact bone)
Metaphysis
Epiphysis (+ Apophysis)
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58
Q

Which is more radiopaque?

  1. Blood
  2. Pus
  3. Transudate
  4. You cannot differentiate
A
  1. You cannot differentiate
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59
Q

True or false?

In a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen on the left in DV view

A

False

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60
Q

True or false

In the healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen ventrally in left lateral recumbency

A

True

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61
Q

True or false

In the healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen ventrally in the right lateral recumbency

A

True

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62
Q

True or false

In the healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen on the right in VD view

A

True

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63
Q

Where is the grid placed?

A

Between the animal and the intensifying screen

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64
Q

If you have an x-ray of a bone tumour, what do you x-ray next?

A

The thoracic cavity (lungs) for metastasis

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65
Q

Nordberg’s angle in an normal (HD-free) hip?

A

> 105˚

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66
Q

What does a cat’s oesophagus look like with contrast?

A

Herringbone

67
Q

Which beam emits the most UV radiation?

A

UV beams

68
Q

What is a common disease in Westie?

A

Cranio-mandibular osteopathy (temporomandibular joint fusion)

69
Q

An autosomal recessive disease in West Highland Terriers?

A

Cranio-mandibular osteopathy (temporomandibular joint fusion)

70
Q

What do you check with myelography?

A

Contrast study of the subarachnoid space

Disc protrusion / compression

71
Q

What are the two techniques of myelography?

A
  1. Cisternal myelography

2. Lumbar myelography

72
Q

What is a disease Dobermans are predisposed to?

A

Wobbler syndrome

Cervical spondylopathy

73
Q

What is another name for Wobbler syndrome?

A

Cervical spondylopathy

74
Q

What are the characteristics of Wobbler syndrome?

A

Deformity, instability of the cervical vertebrae (C4-7)
Malarticulation, narrowed spinal canal
Spinal compression, ataxia, paresis

Can be:

  1. Dynamic: Worsening by neck extension (Lig. Flavum hypertrophy)
  2. Static: Same in every position (Deformed vertebrae)
75
Q

Which breed is predisposed to Wobbler syndrome?

A

Dobermans

76
Q

Where do we perform an epidural injection?

A

Sacco-coccygeal junction
or
C1-C2

77
Q

When is tracheal collapse seen?

  1. During inspiration
  2. During expiration
  3. Both
A 
*Inspiration = Cervical trachea *
Expiration = Thoracic trachea

Depends on which part of the trachea is collapsed

78
Q

Which part of the trachea is affected if we see collapse during inspiration?

A

Cervical trachea

79
Q

Which part of the trachea is affected if we see collapse during expiration?

A

Thoracic trachea

80
Q

Which contrast media would you choose for the urinary tract?

A

Hyperosmotic, ionic iodine

81
Q

List the radiation protection devices

A
  1. Lead apron
  2. Thyroid collar
  3. Lead glasses
  4. Lead gloves
82
Q

Which of the following organs can be (maybe) identified in a survey radiograph?

A

Vena cava caudalis

83
Q

Minimum time needed to see an osteophyte formation on an equine radiograph?

A

3 weeks

84
Q

What is the tissue-radio density order?

A
  1. Metal / stone = Absolute white
  2. Bone = Bone opacity
  3. Fluid / soft tissue = Fluid / soft tissue opacity
  4. Fat = Fat opacity
  5. Gas = Gas opacity (very dark / black)
85
Q

List the developmental diseases of the spine in small animals

A
  1. Spina bifida
  2. Block vertebrae
  3. Hemi-vertebrae
  4. Transient vertebrae
86
Q

Which abnormal lung pattern is characteristic for a negative (air) bronchogram?

A

Alveolar pattern

87
Q

Which contrast is used for the examination of a perforated oesophagus?

A

Organic iodinated contrast media

88
Q

The exclaiming time needed to see an osteophyte formation on the equine radiograph?

A

3-5 weeks (minimum 3 weeks)

89
Q

What is the predilection site of OCD in the equine hock?

A

The medial malleolus

90
Q

What is the proper name of the skyline-view for the examination of the equine carpus?

A

Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

91
Q

True or false:

The scattered radiation is negligible concerning radiation exposure of the staff

A

False

92
Q

True or false:

The scattered radiation originates mostly from the patient’s body

A

True

93
Q

True or false:

Myelography is the contrast examination of the epidural space

A

False

94
Q

True or false:

For myelography, we use an injection of contrast media to evaluate the spinal cord

A

True

95
Q

True or false:

Myelography can also detect spinal lesions

A

True

96
Q

True or false:

Myelography is performed under general anaesthesia

A

True

97
Q

True or false:

Intestinal obstruction can be mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiography

A

True

98
Q

True or false:

In carnivores, the homogenous abdomen may suggest pneumo-peritoneum

A

False

99
Q

True or false:

In carnivores, the homogenous abdomen may suggest abdominal effusion

A

True

100
Q

True or false:

In carnivores, the homogenous abdomen is normal in young animals

A

True

101
Q

True or false:

In carnivores, the homogenous abdomen is normal in cahectic animals

A

True

102
Q

True or false:

Only the indirect measurement of the arterial blood pressure is available in the anaesthetised horse

A

False

103
Q

What is the position / view of the navicular bone?

A

Oxspring (60˚), Skyline (45˚), or LM

104
Q

The sunburst-like patteren is typical for which disorder?

A

Malignant bone tumours

105
Q

Look at the picture of the enlarged kidney in the past questions document

A

Ok, I did it!

106
Q

What is the security around x-rays?

A
  1. Radiation vet > Radiation patient
  2. People are not allowed to restrain the animal
  3. ALARA = As Low As Reasonable Achievable
  4. Immobilisation = Sedation
  5. Lead apron, Thyroid gland protection (collar), Lead gloves
  6. Rotate restrainer, distance and personal monitoring device
  7. Collimation, intensifying screen, low mA’s, proper planning and finishing
107
Q

Rank the following radiation exposures in order of radiation exposure dosage:

  • Arm x-ray
  • Radiation therapy
  • Background radiation
  • Head CT
  • Thoracic x-ray
A
  1. Background radiation
  2. Arm x-ray
  3. Thoracic x-ray
  4. Head CT
  5. Radiation therapy
108
Q

Which terminology is correct for the view of the stifle in the horse?

A

Craniotomy-caudal / Caudo-cranial

For both elbow and stifle

109
Q

What is the predilection site for OCD in horses?

A

Can occurs in virtually all joints, but they occur most frequently in the hock, stifle, and fetlock

110
Q

Which of the following is not a predilection site for OCD in horses?

  1. Stifle
  2. Tarsus
  3. Hock
  4. Fetlock
A

Tarsus

111
Q

What is the degree of projection of MC and P3?

A

DLPMO 45˚ / DMPMO 135˚

Dorso-lateral / medial proximal-medial-oblique

112
Q

What is the proper name of the “Skyline” view for the examination of the equine carpus?

  1. Dorsoproximal-dorsodistal oblique view
  2. Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view
  3. Caudoproximal-craniodistal oblique view
  4. Palmarodistal view
A
  1. Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view
113
Q

What is the skyline view angle?

A

45˚

Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view
Distal radius 65˚
Proximal row of carpal bones 45˚
Distal row of carpal bones 30˚

114
Q

Which statement is true concerning the scattered beam?

  1. Does not take part in image formation
  2. Produce fog on film
  3. Increase radiation risk
  4. Changed direction
  5. Decreased intensity
  6. 1,2,3
  7. 4,5
  8. All of them
A
  1. All of them
115
Q

Who gets Perthes disease?

A

Small / toy breeds

Pekingese, Yorkshire, Poodle, Maltese, and Spaniels

Under one year of age

116
Q

What is Perthes disease?

A

Gradual aseptic necrosis of the head and neck of the femur

117
Q

Can you give Barium as a contrast media in case of a non-perforated intestinal obstruction?

A

Yes

118
Q

Name 4 erosive, non-infections inflammatory arthropathies

A
  1. Periosteal proliferating arthopathy
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Erosive polyarthritis of the Greyhound
  4. Feline chronic progressive polyarthritis
119
Q

Which contrast do you use for the x-ray of the ectopic ureter?

A

Mixed, pneumo-cytography

IV cystography + negative contrast

120
Q

What is the predilection site of OCD in the equine hock?

A

The Talocalcaneal joint

121
Q

How to improve the picture?

A

Too low mA’s = White

Too far away affects the intensity = White

122
Q

Which of the following disorders can be mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiograph?

  1. Intestinal adhesions
  2. Intestinal obstructions
  3. Intussusception
  4. None of them
A

Intestinal obstructions

123
Q

What are the hazardous effects of ionising radiation?

A
  1. Deterministic effects
    - Free radicals
    - Damage depends on the dose
    - Erythema —> Haemopoietic disorders —> GI symptoms —> Neural dysfunctions, etc.
  2. Stochastic effect
    - DNS damage / mutation
    - Probability depends on the dose
    - Tumours
124
Q

What are the deterministic effects of ionising radiation?

A

Free radicals

Damage depends on the dose

Erythema —> Haemopoietic disorders —> GI symptoms —> Neural dysfunction, etc.

125
Q

What are the stochastic effects of ionising radiation?

A

DNS damage / mutation

Probability depends on the dose

Tumours

126
Q

True or false:

X-ray beams are generated in the generator

A

False

They are generated in the X-ray tube

127
Q

True or false:

The anode is the negatively charged electrode in the X-ray tube

A

False

The cathode is the negatively charged electrode

128
Q

True or false:

99% of the energy released in the X-ray tube is heat and light

A

True

129
Q

True or false:

The mAs describes the strength (penetration power) of the X-ray beam

A

False

kV describes the strength / penetrating power

130
Q

True or false:

The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same material

A

True

131
Q

True or false:

The grid helps to improve the image sharpness

A

False

It helps with contrast

132
Q

True or false:

Radiation can be doubled by using doubled mAs value

A

True

133
Q

True or false:

DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate

A

False

A laser scanner is needed

134
Q

True or false:

The steps of film processing are:

  1. Developing
  2. Washing
  3. Fixing
A

False

Fixing, then washing

135
Q

True or false:

Intensifying screens with larger crystal size require smaller doses of radiation

A

True

136
Q

True or false:

Hair in the cassette causes white line artefacts on the film

A

True

137
Q

True or false:

Decreasing the film distance results in a sharper image

A

True

138
Q

True or false:

In the digital radiography, the use of a grid is not recommended

A

False

The grid is used to absorb radiation and improve the contrast

139
Q

True or false:

Yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing

A

True

140
Q

True or false:

Too light images can be corrected by decreasing the exposure values

A

False

can be corrected by INCREASING exposure values

141
Q

True or false:

The parallel grid is sensitive to precise adjustment of film focal spot distance (FFD)

A

False

142
Q

True or false:

The grid is located in the tube side of the cassette

A

True

143
Q

True or false:

Green sensitive films are blue coloured

A

False

They are pink / green - not sure

144
Q

True or false:

Motion unsharpness can be reduced by increasing the mAs

A

False

145
Q

Centralisation and collimation are synonym terms in radiology

A

False

146
Q

True or false:

The exposed film turns black without developing

A

False

It must be developed to turn black

147
Q

What happens if we remove the intensifying screen?

A

Picture becomes unsharpness / black / clear

148
Q

What organ(s) does ionising radiation have the most damaging effect on?

A

Adrenal gland
Skin
Bone marrow

(NOT brain - Brain is the least sensitive!)

149
Q

Which contrast media is white?

A

BaSO4

150
Q

What can you give as contrast media in the case of a non-perforated intestine?

A

Both organic iodine and BaSO4

151
Q

True or false:

Cystography is used to examine the bladder only

A

True

152
Q

Which of the following is Excretory urography NOT used for?

  1. Kidneys
  2. Ureters
  3. Bladder
  4. Urethra
A
  1. Urethra
153
Q

What is the earliest you can see a fissure fracture in a horse?

A

2 weeks

154
Q

Can hair on the cassette create artefacts on the x-ray?

A

Yes

155
Q

What is a negative contrast media?

A

Air

156
Q

What is a positive contrast media?

A

BaSO4

Organic iodine

157
Q

What is the role of a dosimeter?

A

Measures radiation

158
Q

True or false:

Hypovolaemia can cause a decreased radiopacity

A

True

159
Q

True or false:

Nutritional hyperparathyroidism can cause decreased radiopacity

A

True

160
Q

Which method is used to examine the ureters?

A

Excretatory urography

Examines kidney, ureters, and bladder

161
Q

When are gas-filled mesenteric loops seen?

A

During ileus

162
Q

True or false:

During injection of epidural contrast, we use the space of L5-L6

A

False

We use the last sacral - C1, or C1-C2

163
Q

“Sunburst” is a periosteal reaction that may be seen in what disease?

A

Osteosarcoma or chondrosarcoma

Surgery (4 decks)

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