Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgery > Anaesthesia > Flashcards

Anaesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

True or false:

If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the inflated cuff

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or false:

Stadium analgesia = Maximal pupil dilation, no corneal tension

A

False

Maximum pupil dilation + no corneal tension = Stadium asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or false:

For Acepromazine we can use higher doses, because lower doses notably elongates the duration of action

A

False

Dose increase = Duration increase (4 —> 48h)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false:

The general dose of Propofol is 0,5 mg / bwkg IV

A

False

Dose = 5 mg/bwkg IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the general dosage of propofol?

A

5 mg/bwkg IV

SLOWLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Inhalation : Exhalation ratio when the patient is on ventilation?

A

1:2 - 1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or false:

Lidocaine administered IV to an anaesthetised hope increases the risk of post-operative ileus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false:

The parameters of ventilation is:
Inhalation : Exhalation time ratio 1:2 - 1:8

A

False

It’s 1:2 - 1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or false:

Pain sensation is not influenced by fear or stress

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or false:

Pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults

A

False

Equally important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or false:

Phenothiazine is good for pain management

A

False

Does not have any analgesic or hypnotic properties

Good for calming, antihistamine effect, antiemetic, anticholinergic
Neuroleptanalgesia in combination with opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false:

Dantrolene of a good antagonist of propofol

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false:

The blood/brain barrier is less permeable, so puppies until 4 weeks of age require higher doses

A

False

They require lower doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or false:

Older patients have an increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency, and compliance

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or false:

Opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false:

During epidural analgesia 10% Lidocaine is most frequently used

A

False

2% Lidocaine is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the % of Lidocaine used during epidural analgesia?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false:

Phenothiazines are given most frequently to colic horses to reduce visceral pain

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or false:

Most postoperative complications can be manifested using balanced anaesthesia (PIVA)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false:

Only the indirect measurement of the arterial blood pressure is available in anaesthetised horses

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false:

Ketamine cannot be given to a standing horse to relieve pain

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false:

Neonatal have a lower MAC for inhalational anaesthetics than older foals / adults

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false:

Benzodiazepines can be used for premedication in bovines

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drug(s) are Greyhounds sensitive to?

A

Thiopental

No fatty tissue for redistribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which drug(s) are Dobermans sensitive to?

A

ACP

Dilatational cardiomyopathy (DCMP)
Blood clotting disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which drug(s) are Staffies / Greyhounds / Halflingers sensitive to?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which drug(s) are Boxers sensitive to?

A

Phenothiazine

Causes hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is important to remember when anaesthetising Brachyocephalic breeds?

A
  1. Pre-oxygenation
  2. Short induction
  3. Fast intubation
  4. (Extra) Late extubation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are large breeds / individuals sensitive to during anaesthesia?

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are warm-blood type and individuals sensitive to during anaesthesia?

A

Higher metabolic rate: decreased effect of sedatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the positive effects of premedication?

A
  1. Decreased pain, stress, fear, accident risk
  2. Decreased anaesthetic drug dosage, side effects, material expenditure, and costs
  3. Elimination of excitation stage, balanced anaesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do we use vein cannulation for (IV access) during induction / surgery?

A
  1. Drug administration
  2. Fluid therapy
  3. Emergencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which veins are used for cannulation (IV) in small animals?

A

V. cephalica
V. saphena
(V. jugularis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some characteristics we want from the drugs we use for induction (Injectable / inhalational)?

A

Moderate / no side effects
Rapid onset
Short duration
Counteractable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the aim of induction?

A

For the patient to reach an unconscious, intubatable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are some characteristics of elderly patients?

A

Lengthened circulation time (delayed anaesthetic effect)
Decreased water content of cells
Increased fat content
Lower compensation capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the stages of narcosis?

A
  1. Analgesia (Induction phase)
  2. Exitationis (Excitatory phase)
  3. Tolerantiae (Surgical narcosis)
    3a. Superficial
    3b. Surgical tolerance
    3c. Deep
  4. Asphyxiae (Overdose, asphyxiation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the antagonist of opioids?

A

Naloxone (/Naltrexone)

Mainly used in human medicine!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the antagonist of Aplha-2 drugs?

A

Atipamezole (/ Yohimbine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the antagonist of benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the definition of recovery (stage of surgery)?

A
  1. Ending anaesthetic administration (elimination)

2. Extubation (after the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes - later in brachyocephalic breeds!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a Capnograph?

A

A graphic display of values on a time chart.
CO2 determination of the exhaled air

Used to supervise the respiratory frequency, etCO2 and inhalant anaesthetic concentration, circuit pressure, and tidal minute volume
(et = End Tidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do we use a Capnograph for?

A

Used to supervise the respiratory frequency, etCO2 and inhalant anaesthetic concentration, circuit pressure, and tidal minute volume
(et = End Tidal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or false:

End tidal CO2 level correlates with arterial CO2 pressure (paCO2); paCO2 > etCO2

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the paCO2 : etCO2 difference in small animals?

A

5 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the paCO2 : etCO2 difference in horses?

A

5-20 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or false:

paCO2 : etCO2 difference can be measured both from the mainflow and from the sideflow

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or false:

Most inhalational anaesthetics are liquid (volatile)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is required to convert a liquid inhalational anaesthetic drug to a gas?

A

Vaporiser!

Temperature dependent (stronger at higher temperatures)

Requires energy (takes heat from environment)

50
Q

What are vaporisers dependent on?

A
  1. Temperature (stronger at higher temperatures)

2. Energy (takes heat from environments)

51
Q

True or false:

Different inhalational anaesthetic drugs require different gas pressures (purpose-built vaporisers)

A

True

52
Q

True or false:

anaesthetic administration of modern vaporisers is not influenced by flow rate, surrounding environmental temperature, air pressure, temperature fluctuations during vaporising, or pressure fluctuations during respiration of ventilation

A

True

53
Q

What are the two main types of vaporisers?

A
  1. Injectable

2. Variable-bypass

54
Q

What is the definition of pain?

A

Complex, multidimensional negative experience (subjective)

55
Q

True or false:

There is no linear correlation between the degree of pathological changes and the intensity of pain

A

True

56
Q

True or false:

Pain sensation is strengthened by fear and stress

A

True

57
Q

True or false:

Parallel nociceptive effects add up (superposition)

A

True

58
Q

What are the characteristics of pain?

A
  1. Physiological (to prevent injury)
  2. Pathological (due to actual injury)
  3. Origin can be organic (somatic, visceral, neuropathic, or psychogenic
  4. Duration of the sensation can be acute or chronic
  5. Localisation (unusually sensitive = Tooth pulp, cornea, serous membranes, thorax, perineum, periosteum)
  6. Modality (quality; mechanical, temperature, chemical)
59
Q

What is Hyperalgesia?

A

Small pain provocation results in large pain sensation

60
Q

What is Allodynia?

A

No pain provocation, but pain sensation occurs

61
Q

What is the ideal SpO2 value?

A

100%

62
Q

What is the normal O2 saturation of Hb?

A

100-97%

63
Q

At what % of Hb O2 saturation do we say that a patient has reached hypoxia?

A

> 90%

64
Q

What is the normal etCO2?

A

35-45 mmHg

65
Q

Which drugs do we use for sedation / premedication in neonatal foals?

A

Benzodiazepines (Diazepam, midazolam)

66
Q

Which drugs do we use for sedation / premedication in foals?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

Xylazine, Detomidine, Medetomidine, Romifidine

67
Q

Which drugs do we use for light induction in foals?

A

Inhalational or IV

Ketamine + Diazepam

68
Q

Which drugs do we use for deep induction in foals?

A

Ketamine + Diazepam, alpha-2 agonist, or Propofol

69
Q

Which drugs do we use for maintenance in foals?

A

Inhalationals
PIVA: Isofluorane + Ketamine + Lidocaine
TIVA (Total IV anaesthetics)

70
Q

Can cattle and horses get the same drugs?

A

Yes

71
Q

Name some premedication drugs (combos or single)

A
  1. Acepromazine + Butorphanol
  2. Medetomidine + Butorphanol
  3. Medetomidine + Ketamine + Butorphanol
  4. Midazolam + Butorphanol
  5. Diazepam + Butorphanol
  6. Fentanyl
72
Q

What is the most dangerous with anaesthesia in the horse?

A

That the horse is recumbent on it’s back for so long

The danger in lying down and waking / getting up

73
Q

What does ASA stand for?

A

American Society of Anaesthesiologists

74
Q

Describe the ASA 1

A

Healthy, symptom free

And / or 6 weeks - 5 years

75
Q

Describe the ASA 2

A

Mild systemic disease, no functional disorder apparent

And or: 6 weeks - 5-8 years

76
Q

Describe the ASA 3

A

Severe systemic disease with visible functional impairment, but not life-threatening

And / or 8-10 years

77
Q

Describe the ASA 4

A

Severe systemic disease, constant threat to patient’s life

And / or 0-3 days, 10+ years

78
Q

Describe the ASA 5

A

Moribund (dying) status.

Patient is likely do die within 24 hours with or without surgical intervention

79
Q

Describe the ASA E

A

Emergency

No time for classification (CEPOD 1)

80
Q

Name some induction drugs (combos or otherwise)

A

Propofol IV, Ketamine + Diazepam IV

Ultra-short acting barbiturates, steroids (and inhalationala) are also used for induction

Inhalational: Isofluorane, Sevofluorane (Desofluorane)

Total IV: Propofol + Fentanyl

81
Q

What are the pre-operative antibiotics procedures?

A

Indicated in orthopaedic surgery

30 minutes prior to surgery, single dose to reach sufficient tissue levels, second dose lasting for 3 hours

82
Q

When to use antibiotics (during surgery)?

A
  1. In surgeries longer than 90 minutes
  2. Implantations
  3. Infections
  4. Orthopaedics
  5. Oesophageal involvement
  6. “Dirty” surgeries (e.g. faecal or urine contamination), etc.
83
Q

What is important to keep in mind when anaesthetising young / paediatric patients?

A

Heart: Immature innervation, low min volume, weak vasomotor, low BP

Lung: Decreased alveolar surface area, increased respiration rate and min tidal volume

84
Q

What is important to keep in mind when anaesthetising old / geriatric patients?

A

Avoid Alpha-2 agonists and Ketamine

Decreased respiration

Venous reflux from abdominal organs

Heart: Decreased min volume and BP

Lengthened circulation time (delayed anaesthetic effect —> easy to overdose!)

85
Q

What is the consequence of pCO2 reacting >60mmHg?

A

Cyanosis, brain damage

86
Q

True or false:

One of the side effects of NSAIDs in increased intracellular pressure

A

False

87
Q

True or false:

Intubation is more difficult in cattle than in horses

A

True

88
Q

Which drugs should not be used in liver patients?

A
  1. Ketamine in dogs
  2. Diazepam
  3. Methoxyflurane
  4. Halothane (completely forbidden for all)
89
Q

Which opioid is recommended in liver patients?

A

Fentanyl

90
Q

Which drug do we use in case of spinal injuries?

A

Methylprednisolone

91
Q

Which part is not included in the anaesthesia machine?

Mixing system or pulse-oximeter?

A

Pulse-oximeter

92
Q

What is pulseoximetry influenced by?

A
  1. Bilirubinaemia
  2. Env. Temperature
  3. Peripheral circulation
  4. Hypovolaemia
  5. Poor tissue perfusion
  6. Hypotension
  7. Shock
  8. Vasoconstriction
  9. Movement
  10. Direct pressure on the sensor
  11. Hair
  12. Pigment
  13. Thick tissue
  14. Carbohaemoglobin (measures as oxyhemoglobin)
  15. Methaemoglobin
93
Q

True or false:

Fenotiazine and Butorphanone derivates are good for preoperative analgesia

A

False

94
Q

True or false:

NSAIDs, opioids, and alpha-2 agonists are good for preoperative analgesia

A

True

95
Q

True or false:

It is important to prevent hypothermia and hypoglycaemia in the anaesthetised neonatal foal

A

True

96
Q

True or false:

Benzodiazepines are prohibited for use in food producing animals

A

True

97
Q

True or false:

Propofol can be used for induction in young foals

A

True

98
Q

Why do we not use propofol in adult horses?

A

Too expensive!

99
Q

True or false:

We should not use alpha-2 agonists in foals less than 12 weeks of age

A

True

100
Q

What is the volume of the ballon used in neonatal foals?

A

5L

101
Q

What is the volume of the ballon used in 1-2 year old horses?

A

15L

102
Q

What are some characteristics of Stadium analgesiae (induction phase)?

A
  1. Strongly influenced by condition and temperament
  2. Transition towards an unconscious state
  3. Increasing immobilisation, ataxia, lying down
  4. At the end of the stage, pain sensation ceases
  5. Excitation, resistance, increased heart rate
  6. Irregular breathing pattern, increased respiration rate
  7. Dilated pupils, salivation, urination, defecation
  8. Prolapsed third eyelid, yawning, vocalisation
  9. Reflexes retained, reaction may be delayed
  10. Coughing reflex present, intubation NOT possible
  11. Only lasts a few seconds during IV induction
103
Q

True or false:

Isofluorane / sevofluorane / desofluorane are only used for intraoperative anaesthesia maintenance

A

True

104
Q

What should we NOT give to patients with decreased kidney perfusion?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

105
Q

What anaesthetic drugs can we give to patients with a decreased kidney perfusion?

A

Propofol and inhalational anaesthetics

106
Q

True or false:

General anaesthetics causes rigidity in the muscles

A

False

107
Q

Which patients should NOT be given Ketamine?

A

Patients with:

  1. Heart problems
  2. Glaucoma
  3. Head trauma
  4. Hyperthyroidism
108
Q

What are swine susceptible to when it comes to anaesthesia?

A
  1. Ventricular arrhythmias
  2. Fragile pulmonary tissue
  3. Stress

Very risky with anaesthesia!

109
Q

What drug do we NOT give to diabetic patients?

A

Xylazine

110
Q

What do we NOT give to cats with kidney failure?

A

Ketamine

111
Q

What do we NOT give to dogs with liver failure?

A

Ketamine

112
Q

True or false:

90% paO2 is physiological

A

False (hypoxia)

Should be 97-100% ideally

113
Q

Which os the following statements is false regarding opioids?

  1. Major analgesics
  2. Even though they bind the receptors with different affinity, they have the same effect
  3. Last-option drugs
  4. Antagonised by Naloxone
A
  1. Last-option drugs
114
Q

True or false:

We use premedication to increase the excitability in the patient

A

False

115
Q

True or false:

80-100 breaths per minute are normal parameters for ventilation in the horse

A

False

10-15 breaths per minute

116
Q

How big should the balloon be in adult horses?

A

~30L

5x the respiratory volume

117
Q

What should the volume of the balloon be in small animals?

A

5x the respiratory volume

0.5L in small patients
5L in large patients

118
Q

In the case of artificial ventilation, what is the pressure limit?

A

20-30 cmH2O

119
Q

What is the respiration rate in cats and dogs during anaesthesia?

A

10-15 breaths per minute

120
Q

What is the tidal rate in cats and dogs during anaesthesia?

A

10-15

121
Q

How much O2 do mammals need per minute?

A

5-10 ml / kg

122
Q

For which patients is a semi-open system recommended?

A

For patients under 8 kg
Very small animals
Newborn cats and dogs

Surgery (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions