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Surgery > Surgery 3 FINAL > Flashcards

Surgery 3 FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability?

a. Monofilament vs. multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

A

a. Monofilament vs. multifilament

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2
Q

Which statement is correct regarding intra- and post-operative hypothermia?

a. Decreased anaesthetic demand
b. Doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
c. Is mostly due to the use of opioids
d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system

A

a. Decreased anaesthetic demand

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3
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anaesthesia?

a. General anaesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents; combinations for maintenance are contraindicated
b. In the maintenance phase of anaesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolaemia and normotension
c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anaesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anaesthetics
d. The main duties of the anaesthetist are monitoring of the patient, maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anaesthesia and preservation of vagotonia

A

c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anaesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anaesthetics

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4
Q

What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs?

A

Higher than 105 degrees

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5
Q

Which of the following items is member of the mixing part of the anaesthesia machine?

a. Y-piece
b. Soda lime canister
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes

A

c. Flowmeter

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6
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b. Alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

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7
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in dogs?

A

42

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8
Q

Which USP number indicates the thinnest suture material?

A

4-0

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9
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)?

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

A

d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

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10
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?

a. Polypropylene
b. Polydioxanone
c. Both
d. None

A

a. Polypropylene

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11
Q

The proper name of the “oxspring” view for the examination of the navicular bone is?

A

Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

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12
Q

What is a parameter that decreases in DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

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13
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?

a. Polypropylene
b. Polyamide
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

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14
Q

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material?

a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophobic feature

A

b. Good tensile strength

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15
Q

What does “2-metric” mean of a suture material pack?

A

The suture material is 0.2 mm in diameter

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16
Q

Current concepts of pain management / analgesia is

a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)
b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)
c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of action)
d. Of higher importance in adults than in paediatric patients

A

b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

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17
Q

What is Spongostan?

A

Gelatin sponge

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18
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Stresnil injection in swine anaesthesia?

a. Duration is dose dependent
b. Neuroleptic drug
c. Administered only intravenously
d. Benzodiazepine derivative

A

b. Neuroleptic drug

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19
Q

Which statement is NOT correct regarding the tracheal collapse?

a. The entire trachea is affected
b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage
d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected

A

a. The entire trachea is affected

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20
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the paediatric patient?

A

The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

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21
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment preoperatively
b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins preoperatively
c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the therapy of choice

A

c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

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22
Q

Which drug is not recommended to use at colic patients’ examination?

A

Acepromazine

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23
Q

Which one is an opioid antagonist?

A

Naloxon

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24
Q

Phases of wound healing are?

A

Acute inflammation
Resorption
Proliferation
Remodeling

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25
Q

The proper name of the “skyline” or the examination of the navicular bone is?

A

Palmaro-proximal oblique view

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26
Q

Which of the following is the main “shock organ” of the horse and cat?

A

Lung

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27
Q

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in dog?

a. Is it capable of repair in living tooth
b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production
c. Is comprises more than 98% inorganic elements
d. It is continuously narrowing during ageing

A

a. Is it capable of repair in living tooth

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28
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced / incarcerated leading to acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

a. Urinary bladder
b. Small intestines
c. Large intestines
d. Uterus

A

a. Urinary bladder

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
An active drain…

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain
b. Can be open suction-drain
c. Can be closed suction-drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

A

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain

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30
Q

What does “epulis” mean?

A

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding salivary mucocele?

A

It’s one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

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32
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

A

Laprascopic “pinch” biopsy

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
The injuries of the tongue…

a. Are not to be operated on
b. Mostly heal with complications
c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
d. Always be regarded as contaminated

A

d. Always be regarded as contaminated

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34
Q

Which of the following conditions does not cause hypronephrosis?

a. Ureteral torsion
b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
c. Ureteral tumour
d. Ureterolithiasis

A

a. Ureteral torsion??

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35
Q

Which is the most commonly used isolation technique for rumenotomy?

a. Simple continuous seromuscular suture
b. Götze isolation wrap
c. Foil isolation
d. We don’t use isolations

A

a. Simple continuous seromuscular suture

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36
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning gastric foreign body?

a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

A

b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated / septic procedure

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37
Q

What is the most common complication after a horse laryngoscopy?

a. Facial nerve paralysis
b. Temporary blindness
c. Laryngeal oedema
d. Myopathy

A

c. Laryngeal oedema

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38
Q

Which is characteristic of large colon volvulus in horses?

a. Always evidentially diagnosed with rectal palpation
b. More than 180 degree volvulus induces fast intestinal wall necrosis
c. Less than 180 degree volvulus induces fast intestinal wall necrosis
d. Can cause mild colic symptoms for several days

A

a. Always evidentially diagnosed with rectal palpation

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39
Q

Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair?

a. Laparotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy

A

a. Laparotomy

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40
Q

Which is correct regarding the lactate level of the abdominal fluid in colic horses?

a. It has no significance concerning the prognosis
b. Tissue perfusion of the brain can be related to the lactate level
c. It describes the extent of the hypoxia caused by endotoxaemias
d. It can reach max. the half of the concentration in the blood

A

c. It describes the extent of the hypoxia caused by endotoxaemias

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41
Q

Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?

a. None
b. Both
c. Polypropylene
d. Polyamide

A

a. None

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42
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception?

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
c. Lack of faeces
d. Vomiting

A

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

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43
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme
b. Non-steroids (NSAIDS) inhibit the production of leukotrienes
c. NSAIDS inhibit phospholipase
d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

A

d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

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44
Q

Which statement is correct concerning indication for abdominal surgery in horses?

A

Serosanguineous abdominal fluid, elevated TP, and progressively worse general status indicate celiotomy

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45
Q

Which statement is correct concerning endotracheal tube?

A

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for connection to the anaesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation

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46
Q

Which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis?

a. Partial nephrectomy
b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy
c. Kidney-drainage
d. Euthanasia

A

a. Partial nephrectomy

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47
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachiocephalic dogs?

A

Ventral rhinotomy

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48
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply?

a. Left gastric
b. Left gastroepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Splenic

A

a. Left gastric

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49
Q

The enterotomy wound of the large colon in horses should be sutured

a. In one later
b. In two layers
c. In three layers
d. In four layers

A

b. In two layers (?)

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50
Q

What is always palpable rectally in the colic horse?

a. Small colon obdurating bezoar
b. Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
c. Right dorsal colon impaction
d. Dilated stomach

A

b. Right dorsal displacement of the large colon

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51
Q

Which is not typical of hoof abscess?

a. Severe lameness
b. No palpable digital artery pulsation
c. Easily localised pain elicited with hoof tester
d. After debridement of the abscess, the lameness disappears soon

A

d. After debridement of the abscess, the lameness disappears soon

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52
Q

What can be the cause of secondary sinusitis in horses?

A

Ascending infection from the oral cavity due to tooth fracture

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53
Q

Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature dogs?

a. Panosteitis
b. Perthe’s disease
c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy
d. Achilles tendineopathy

A

c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy

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54
Q

Where can a Birkelund fracture be found in a horse?

a. In the dorsal recess of the fetlock joint
b. In the palmar / plantar recess of the fetlock joint
c. In the dorsal recess of the tarsal joint
d. In the dorsal recess of the coffin joint

A

b. In the palmar / plantar recess of the fetlock joint

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55
Q

Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is less than 60 mmHg)?

a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing

A

b. Cyanosis

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56
Q

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatic glands?

a. Zona cutanea
b. Lineament anorectalis
c. Zona intermedia
d. Zona columnaris

A

a. Zona cutanea

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57
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding nephrolithiasis?

a. It can occur bilaterally
b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
c. Is can be caused by congenital disorder
d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

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58
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT concerning prostate US?

a. It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ
b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy
c. Is can differentiate cyst from abscess
d. It provides possibility for core biopsy

A

c. Is can differentiate cyst from abscess

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59
Q

Which of the following nerves if most prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure?

A

Auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve

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60
Q

Which is characteristic of right abomasal displacement in horses?

A

It needs urgent operation

Abomasum tho?

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61
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

A

c. Ultrasonography

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62
Q

Intramedullary pinning is NOT good for

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture
b. Femoral fracture treatment in cats
c. Fixing calcaneal fractures
d. Treatment of avulsion fractures

A

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture

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63
Q

Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis?

A

Mesenteric torsion

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64
Q

Which is NOT correct regarding pelvic fractures?

a. It is an absolute indication for surgery
b. It can be resulted by major trauma
c. Commonly combined with urinary tract injury
d. It could be associated with pneumothorax

A

a. It is an absolute indication for surgery (?)

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65
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form of Feline lower urinary tract disease?

a. Stabilisation + perirenal urethrostomy
b. Stabilisation + cystocentesis
c. Stabilisation + urethral bladder expression
d. Stabilisation + urethral catheterisation

A

d. Stabilisation + urethral catheterisation

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66
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV)?

a. GDV starts right after the last feeding
b. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
c. There is also a chronic form of GDV
d. GDV is usually acute onset

A

a. GDV starts right after the last feeding

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67
Q

The ileocecal fold in horses is attached to the

a. Dorsal tenia of the caecum
b. Medial tenia of the caecum
c. Ventral tenia of the caecum
d. Apex of the caecum

A

a. Dorsal tenia of the caecum

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68
Q

Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure (Greenberg, AM J Vets Res, 2004)?

a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Polyglecaprone

A

d. Polyglecaprone

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69
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The blowout crack is a serious vertical hoof crack
b. The blowout crack is causing serious lameness in most of the cases
c. The blowout crack is a horizontal hoof crack
d. None

A

c. The blowout crack is a horizontal hoof crack

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70
Q

Which is NOT characteristic of the OCD in equine stifle?

a. It can occur on the lateral trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro-patellar joint
b. It can occur on the medial trochlear ridge of the femur in the femora-patellar joint
c. It is associated with joint effusion
d. It is usually manifested in young animals

A

b. It can occur on the medial trochlear ridge of the femur in the femora-patellar joint

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71
Q

In carpal valgus deformity the hoof location to the carpus is

a. Abaxial
b. Axial
c. Cranial
d. Caudal

A

a. Abaxial

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72
Q

Which is the advised castration technique in standing horse?

a. Open, unsutured
b. Open, sutured
c. Closed, unsutured
d. Closed, sutured

A

a. Open, unsutured

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73
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease
b. Navicular disease is really common in Frisian horses
c. None
d. Both

A

a. Stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease

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74
Q

Which of the following is the most informative one for diagnostic ectopic ureter?

a. Cystoscopy
b. Double contrast cystography
c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography
d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-)

A

c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography

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75
Q

What does “Sceletonisation” mean?

a. Cessation of the mesenteric blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected
b. V-shaped excision of the mesentery
c. Excision of the affected intestinal section
d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

a. Cessation of the mesenteric blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected

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76
Q

Which of the following is the most important before colic surgery?

a. Lidocaine in constant rate infusion
b. Faster for at least 10 hours before surgery
c. Withdrawal of water
d. Shock therapy

A

d. Shock therapy (?)

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77
Q

How many lung lobes does the dog have?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

c. 7

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78
Q

The uneven distribution of weight to another healthy limb in compensatory lameness can be possible

a. From a front limb to the contralateral frontlimb
b. From hindlimb to the ipsilateral frontlimb
c. From a frontlimb to the contralateral hindlimb
d. All of them can be possible

A

d. All of them can be possible?

c. From a frontlimb to the contralateral hindlimb?

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79
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The sites of the low palmar nerve block are at the level of the proximal sesamoids
b. Low palmar block anaesthetises the navicular region and the DIPJ as well
c. Low palmar block anaesthetises the distal (in the hoof capsule) DDFT lesions
d. All of them are correct

A

c. Low palmar block anaesthetises the distal (in the hoof capsule) DDFT lesions

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80
Q

What is the most preferable surgical technique in case of a simple sagittal P1 fracture in a horse that is longer than 2 cm from the proximal joint surface

a. Osteosynthesis with LCP plate
b. Lag screw fixation with 4,5 or 5,5 mm cortical screw
c. Lac screw fixation with 2,4 or 3,5 mm cortical screw
d. Conservative treatment with cats

A

b. Lag screw fixation with 4,5 or 5,5 mm cortical screw

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81
Q

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of prostatic cysts?

a. Marsupalisation
b. Omentalisation
c. Drainage
d. Puncture

A

c. Drainage

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82
Q

Which is NOT typical of the left dorsal displacement of the large colon in horses?

A

Always needs surgical treatment

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83
Q

The material of Cerclage can be

a. Kirschner wire
b. Absorbable suture
c. Non-absorbable suture
d. Fishing line

A

b. Absorbable suture

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84
Q

The most common cause of ceco-cecal invagination in horse is

a. Cecal obstipation
b. Typhlocolitis
c. Anaplocephala infection
d. Congenital infection

A

c. Anaplocephala infection

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85
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy?

a. Castratio can prevent urinary incontinence
b. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
c. Early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma
d. The cystotomy can be avoided

A

c. Early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma (?)

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86
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT concerning acute abdominal catastrophe?

a. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication
b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication
c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological and / or functional disorders of abdominal organ(s)

A

b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

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87
Q

What does Einschuss phlegmone mean?

a. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the front limbs
b. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs
c. Aseptic inflammation in the subcutis of the front limbs
d. Aseptic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs

A

b. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs (?)

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88
Q

Which of the following mostly contributes to the successful revision of post-operative ligature-fistulation?

a. Drainage
b. Curettage
c. Removal of the suture material
d. Disinfection lavage of the wound base

A

d. Disinfection lavage of the wound base (?)

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89
Q

Which of the following breeds is usually nor affected by ectopic ureter?

a. German shepherd
b. Labrador
c. Husky
d. West highland terrier

A

a. German shepherd

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90
Q

Which of the diagnostic findings indicates the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture?

a. Is the cystourethral catheterisation cannot harvest urine in a traumatised patient
b. If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterisation in a traumatised patient
c. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

A

d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

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91
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT concerning diaphragmatic hernias?

a. They take 5-10% of diaphragmatic hernias
b. Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: Axial and para-oesophageal
c. The peritoneopericardial hernia is is inherited
d. The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum

A

a. They take 5-10% of diaphragmatic hernias (?)

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92
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The cranial phase of the stride is longer in supporting limb lameness
b. The origin of pain is usually located in the proximal area in supporting limb lameness
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. The cranial phase of the stride is longer in supporting limb lameness

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93
Q

Swinging leg lameness

A

Cranial phase of stride is shorter, worse in outside circle, problem is higher

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94
Q

What is the most important to do at a wound close close to a joint in horses?

a. To determine is the joint is affected
b. Operate the horse as soon as possible
c. Adequate antibiotic treatment
d. Tetanus prophylaxis

A

a. To determine is the joint is affected

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95
Q

Which statement is correct concerning inguinal hernia?

a. In direct hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the scrotum
b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

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96
Q

Ideal therapy in case of joint injury is

a. Joint lavage within 6 hours
b. Joint lavage within 8 hours
c. Joint lavage within 10 hours
d. Joint lavage within 12 hours

A

a. Joint lavage within 6 hours

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97
Q

Which statement is correct concerning thrush?

a. Long, contracted heels and deep sulk are predisposing to thrush
b. The aetiology of the thrush is unknown
c. In the treatment of thrush it is obligatory to keep the frog wet
d. The thrush is a fatal disease

A

a. Long, contracted heels and deep sulk are predisposing to thrush

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98
Q

Which is the adequate fixation of the radial fracture before transporting the horse?

a. Full limb cast up to the level of the elbow joint
b. Lateral fixation of the limb up to the proximal border of the shoulder
c. Palmar limb cast up to the level of the elbow joint
d. This type of limb fracture doesn’t need specific fixation

A

c. Palmar limb cast up to the level of the elbow joint

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99
Q

What is typical of a uterine torsion in mare?

a. Onset 1 month before parturition, mild-mid colic signs
b. Onset 2 months before parturition, severe colic signs
c. Onset after parturition, mild-mid colic signs
d. Onset 1 month before parturition, severe colic signs

A

b. Onset 2 months before parturition, severe colic signs

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100
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Elevating heels in 12-18 degrees can help to prevent the rotation of the P3
b. In peracute and acute phase of laminitis to cool the hoof capsules is beneficial
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

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101
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

a. Dorsal latissimus m
b. Dorsal serratus m
c. Ventral serratus m
d. M.cutaneus trunci

A

d. M.cutaneus trunci

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102
Q

Which nerve is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla osteotomy (VBO) procedure?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

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103
Q

What is the advised treatment for an injured podotrochlear bursa after “street nail” puncture in a horse?

a. Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheet
b. Bursoscopy through the coffin joint
c. Approach from the solar surface of the hoof
d. Conservative treatment

A

a. Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheet

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104
Q

In colic horse surgery, the large colon enterotomy should be performed to rinse out the content

a. On the dorsal colon
b. On the ventral colon
c. On the pelvic flexure
d. At the level of cecocolic fold

A

c. On the pelvic flexure

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105
Q

In which case the conservative fracture treatment is not contraindicated?

a. Intraarticular fracture
b. Salter-harris fracture
c. Oblique fracture
d. Fracture with massive dislocation

A

c. Oblique fracture

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106
Q

Which structure is attached to lateral tenia of cecum?

a. Ceco-colic fold
b. Ileo-cecal fold
c. Duodenal-cecal ligament
d. Gastro-duodenal ligament

A

a. Ceco-colic fold

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107
Q

Which is NOT typical of the Uthrecht method to treat left abomasal displacement?

a. Right flank laparotomy is performed
b. Abomasoplexy is performed at the right ventral abdominal wall
c. The abomasum is decompressed
d. The abdominal wall should be closed in three layers

A

c. The abomasum is decompressed

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108
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is NOT recommended for cystotomy wound closure?

A

Double layer (penetrating + Lambert) suture

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109
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is

a. A tube drain
b. Made of latex
c. A multi-lumen drain
d. Mostly used as an active drain

A

a. A tube drain

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110
Q

The most commonly used large colon resection technique in horses is

a. Partial resection with side to side anastomosis
b. Partial resection with end to end anastomosis
c. Subtotal large colon resection
d. Total large colon resection

A

a. Partial resection with side to side anastomosis

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111
Q

Which is characteristic of the cecal torsion in cattle?

a. Slow course of the disease
b. It can be treated with good prognosis
c. Right flank laparotomy is performed
d. It never needs enterotomy

A

c. Right flank laparotomy is performed (?)

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112
Q

Esophagotomy wound in horses is closed in

a. 1 layer
b. 2 layers
c. 3 layers
d. 4 layers

A

b. 2 layers

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113
Q

Which muscles are excised at surgery of cribbing in horses?

A

Sternohyoideus,
sternothyroideus,
omohyoideus

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114
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of disuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery?

a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrotomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

c. Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis)

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115
Q

The correct surgical treatment of a club foot is

a. Desmotomy of the proximal check ligament
b. Desmotomy of the distal check ligament
c. Tenotomy of the deep digital flexor tendon
d. Tenotomy of the deep digital flexor tendon

A

d. Tenotomy of the deep digital flexor tendon (they were written twice on
exam)

116
Q

Which is the advised surgical treatment for unilateral incisor fracture of a horse?

a. Lag screw fixation
b. Osteosynthesis with plate fixation
c. Fixation with cerclage wire
d. Fixateur externe

A

c. Fixation with cerclage wire (?)

117
Q

The treatment of a congenital club foot in a newborn foal is

a. 3g oxytetracycline intravenously
b. 30g oxytetracycline intravenously
c. 3g erythromycin intravenously
d. 30g erythromycin intravenously

A

a. 3g oxytetracycline intravenously

118
Q

Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense?

a. Struvite
b. Calcium-oxalate
c. Ammonium-urate
d. Cystine

A

b. Calcium-oxalate

119
Q

Which of the following brachycephalic disorders is NOT surgically curable?

A

Tracheal hypoplasia

120
Q

Which of the following statement is correct?
A passive drain

a. Is always a single exit drain
b. Can only be used as double exit drain
c. Is mostly used for flushing
d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A

a. Is always a single exit drain (?)

121
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image
b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image
c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs
d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

A

d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs (?)

122
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pain?

a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia is only required pre-, and postoperatively
b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation
c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived
d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

A

d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and the intensity of pain experience by the patient

123
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The direct effect of the bullet is the traumatic shock
b. Injuries caused by gun shots regenerate if the bullet only hits the muscle
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None???

124
Q

Which statement is correct regarding electricity caused injuries?

a. It is always lethal above 50 mA
b. It is always lethal above 100 mA
c. Both
d. None

A

b. It is always lethal above 100 mA

125
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds
b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
d. The anerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds

A

b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

126
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction?

a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of midazolam
b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy
c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function
d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky

A

b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephalopathy

127
Q

The goal of the “skyline” view from the hock is?

A

To examine the calcaneus and the sustentaculum tali

128
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Wobbler-syndrome affects small breeds
b. The site of disc protrusion can be exactly determined in the survey radiograph

c. The basic types of compressive processes found with myelography:
extradural, intradural, extramedullary

d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anaesthesia

A

d. Positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anaesthesia

129
Q

Which component is not a normal part of digital x-ray system?

A

Intensifying screen

130
Q

Which therapy has of primary importance in case of cranial injury?

a. Analgesia
b. Anti-convulsion therapy
c. Intracranial pressure decrease
d. Artificial hypothermia

A

c. Intracranial pressure decrease

131
Q

Which of the following does not represent an increased risk of infection of surgical infection?

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure
b. Prolonged hospitalization
c. Obesity
d. Prolonged procedure time

A

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

132
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation?

a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial
b. Interrupted vs continuous
c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving
d. Simple-matress-cruciate

A

c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving(?)

133
Q

Which is not a type of periosteal reaction?

a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar

A

d. Medullar

134
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicate the thickest suture material?

a. 0
b. 2-0
c. 2
d. 3-0

A

c. 2

135
Q

Which location is NOT typical of OCD in dogs?

a. Tarsus
b. Carpus
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle

A

b. Carpus (elbow that is typically affected)

136
Q

Which of the following instruments is NOT the member of the abdominal instrumentation set

a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps

A

c. Finochietto self retaining retractor (used in thoracic operation)

137
Q

Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is highly toxic to cats?

A

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

138
Q

Which of the following disorder is the most urgent to be acutely solved?

a. External venous bleeding
b. Upper airway obstruction
c. Spinal fracture
d. Open extremity fracture

A

b. Upper airway obstruction

139
Q

What is the most common cause of death during equine anaesthesia?

a. Aspirational pneumonia
b. Sudden heart stop
c. Bone fracture in the recovery period
d. Diffuse myopathy

A

c. Bone fracture in the recovery period

140
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesiologic considerations of hypothyreoidism?

a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower
c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

A

d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

141
Q

Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient’s aspect?

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

A

a. Infiltrational

142
Q

Which colour is typical for compensatory stage of shock?

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

A

d. Bright red

143
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an antibiotic?

a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

A

d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament replacement material

144
Q

Which statement is correct concerning tendon injuries?

a. One or two % overextension of the tendons causes partial rupture
b. Three or four % overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
d. None

A

c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture

145
Q

Which is NOT characteristic of large colon obstipation in horse?

a. Sometimes it can cause severe colic signs
b. The obstipation can always be treated conservatively
c. It can be easily diagnosed with rectal palpation
d. It is more common in winter-time

A

b. The obstipation can always be treated conservatively

146
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Narrow, upright, boxy hoof can predispose to navicular disease
b. Flat feet with collapsed heels can predispose to navicular disease
c. The navicular disease has hereditary factors
d. All of them are correct

A

d. All of them are correct

147
Q

What is to be considered concerning a high bandage on the front limb in a horse?

a. The bandage should be fixed to the hoof
b. Protect the accessory carpal bone against sore
c. Protect the proximal sesamoid bones against sore
d. The bandage should reach above the elbow joint

A

d. The bandage should reach above the elbow joint(?)

148
Q

Which of the following factors does NOT effect the success of feline perineal urethrostmy?

a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
d. Type of the suture material

A

c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle

149
Q

Severe colic in mares 3-4 days after parturition mostly suggests

a. Large colon volvulus
b. Hernia formaminis omentalis
c. Small colon obstipation
d. Cecum obstipation

A

a. Large colon volvulus

150
Q

The intramedullary pinning technique is not good to fix midshaft fracture of the

a. Radius
b. Tibia
c. Humerus
d. Metacarpus

A

a. Radius

151
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of urinary bladder tumours?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

A

d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

152
Q

In nail trip “street nail” the treatment is?

A

LM X-ray to localize the nail, the therapy depends on nail position and injured fractures

153
Q

What is the location of the most common site of subchondral bone cyst in equine stifle?

a. Medial femoral condyle
b. Lateral femoral condyle
c. Medial trochlear ridge of the femur
d. Lateral trochlear ridge of the femur

A

a. Medial femoral condyle

154
Q

Small colon obstipation in horses is frequently encountered in

a. Old horses
b. Ponies
c. Young horses
d. Pregnant horses

A

a. Old horses

155
Q

What is the surgical technique to treat IV-grade laryngeal hemiplegia in horses?

A

Laryngoplasty and ventriculectomy

156
Q

Which is the advised local anesthetic method in standing horse castration?

a. Bilateral 20-20 ml 2% lidocaine into testicular parenchyma
b. Bilateral 10-10 ml 2% lidocaine into testicular parenchyma
c. Bilateral 20-20 ml 2% lidocaine into spermatic cord
d. Bilateral 10-10 ml 2% lidocaine into spermatic cord

A

b. Bilateral 10-10 ml 2% lidocaine into testicular parenchyma(?)
a. Bilateral 20-20 ml 2% lidocaine into testicular parenchyma ??

157
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is NOT member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

A

b. Status of the thoracic wall

158
Q

Intramedullary pinning is good for

a. Transverse and short oblique fractures of the middle third of long bones
b. Multiply fractures
c. SH fractures
d. Treatment of mandibular fractures

A

a. Transverse and short oblique fractures of the middle third of long bones

159
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV?

A

Stabilization and gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-orogastric tubation and gastric lavage-surgery

160
Q

Which is NOT correct regarding reflux in horses?

a. Thin liquid
b. pH is less than 7
c. More than 2 litres
d. Green-brownish coloured

A

d. Green-brownish coloured

161
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is INCORRECT concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

A

d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

162
Q

What is the sequester?

a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotised, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone

A

c. Necrotised, demarcated area in the bone

163
Q

Which is necessary for bone healing?

a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good bloody supply
d. Fluid therapy

A

c. Good bloody supply

164
Q

What does incomplete abdominal cryptorchid horse mean?

A

The testis is in the abdominal cavity, the epididymis is in the inguinal canal

(If they ask about complete abdominal cryptorchid horse - both are in abdominal cavity)

165
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, loading, stance, breakover
b. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, stance, breakover, flexion, extention
c. Phases of the breakover are: heel lift, solar lift, toe pivot
d. None

A

a. Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, loading, stance, breakover

166
Q

Which statement is correct?
The locking plate has no

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression
b. Ability for stable fixation
c. Ability for temporary joint immobilization
d. Potential for treating hip luxation

A

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression

167
Q

Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body caused caudal thoracic (prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction?

a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy

A

b. Endoscopic removal

168
Q

Which is NOT a common cause of colic in a newborn foal?

a. Meconium retention
b. Strangulation of the jejunum due to pedicle lipoma
c. Rupture of the urinary bladder
d. Gastric ulceration

A

b. Strangulation of the jejunum due to pedicle lipoma

169
Q

Which is the advised surgical method to treat upward fixation of the patella in horses?

A

Medial femoro-patellar ligament desmotomy

170
Q

The advised surgical treatment in case of the P1 communited fracture is

a. Lag screw fixation
b. Transfixation cast
c. Plate osteosynthesis
d. Light cast only

A

a. Lag screw fixation

171
Q

Which statement is correct?
In case of renal traumatic bleeding

a. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
b. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic
c. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes

A

d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life threatening circulatory changes(?)

172
Q

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate ligament repair

a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

A

d. The suture material is placed outside the joint

173
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding linear foreign body caused small intestinal obstruction?

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

A

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

174
Q

The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is

a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

A

c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

175
Q

Which one is typical of Cauda Equina compression?

A

Hansen type II disc protrusion

176
Q

Most common lesion of a rectal wall rupture in horses is

a. Dorsal wall
b. Lateral wall
c. Ventral wall
d. Concentric

A

a. Dorsal wall

177
Q

Which of the following causes is NOT primary in the etiology of external otitis in dogs?

a. Bacteria
b. Paracite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia

A

a. Bacteria

178
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of scrotal hernia?

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder

A

a. Small intestine

179
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in feline otitis media?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

180
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone involvement of oral tumors?

a. Radiography
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography

A

a. Radiography

181
Q

If the lactate is 6,5 mmol/l in the abdominocentesis fluid, then

a. Impaction is presumable
b. The horse had intensive exercise
c. Strangulation ileus is likely
d. It can be manages conservatively

A

c. Strangulation ileus is likely

182
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of fundus necrosis during GDV
surgery?

a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrectomy
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

b. Partial gastrectomy

183
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in canine otitis externa and media?

A

a. TECA + LBO

184
Q

Which of the followings is typical of the strangulating ileus of the small intestine in horses?

a. There is a secondary dehydration of the content in the large colon
b. Secondary cecal impaction develops
c. The stomach is distended consequently
d. A and C together

A

d. A and C together

185
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surgery paper (2006) which of the following liver biopsy technique caused remarkable (more than 2 ml) bleeding?

a. Ligature-biopsy
b. Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy
c. Needle biopsy
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

186
Q

Clinical manifestation of the thrombosis in external iliaca artery in the horse causes?

A

Intermittent hindlimb lameness worsening with work

187
Q

The best way to treat dorsal chip in a fetlock joint in horses is?

A

Arthroscopy

188
Q

Which is the correct regarding intervertebral disc disease?

A

It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

189
Q

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding incisional hernia?

a. It is an atrogenic complication
b. It might be suppurative
c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases
d. It may be caused by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases(?)

190
Q

Which statement is correct regarding equine intestinal surgery?

a. It is preferred to suture the end to end jejunocecostomy in two layers continuous pattern
b. The stoma is placed between the dorsal and medial tenia of the caecum in jejunocecostomy
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

191
Q

Which of the following conditions indicated liver lobectomy?

a. Liver abscess
b. X-ray of opposite leg
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

a. Liver abscess

192
Q

The synovial fluid is determined as septic if

A

The WBC count is more than 40 g / L, with mostly neutrophils

193
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine
c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
d. All of them are correct

A

d. All of them are correct

194
Q

What is typical for ulnar fracture in horse?

a. Often becomes opened
b. It can be cured with plate osteosynthesis, with good prognosis
c. Always present with slight lameness
d. The fracture never enters the elbow joint

A

b. It can be cured with plate osteosynthesis, with good prognosis(?)

195
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, behind the infraspinatus muscle insertion
b. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle insertion
c. Intraarticular analgesia of the shoulder needs min 40 ml anesthesia solution
d. A and C are correct

A

b. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle insertion

196
Q

Which protocol is used for stifle joint anesthesia in the horse?

a. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, and femoropatellar joint, 20 ml in each
b. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
c. Medial and lateral femoropatellar, and femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
d. Medial and lateral femoropatellar joints, 20 ml in each

A

a. Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, and femoropatellar joint, 20 ml in each

197
Q

Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs?

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
b. It is always lateral in large breeds
c. It is always traumatic
d. It is mostly caudal

A

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line

198
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the cecum in horses?

A

Dorsal tenia is avascular and continues in the ileocecal ligament

199
Q

Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy?

a. Rectus sheet
b. Falciform ligament
c. Peritoneum
d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

A

a. Rectus sheet

200
Q

Which of the following metric numbers indicates the thickest suture material?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

d. 3

201
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. In case of horse standing surgery 0,5 mg/kg thiopental can be given
b. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.05 mg/kg butorphanol cannot be given
c. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.2 mg/kg ketamine can be given intravenously
d. In case of a horse standing surgery 2 mg/kg detomidine can be given intravenously

A

b. In case of a horse standing surgery 0.05 mg/kg butorphanol cannot be given

202
Q

Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps?

a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous drug dosage
b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h) are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)
c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers
d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia machines

A

b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h) are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)

203
Q

Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anaesthesia?

a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left inflated on extubation
c. Takes place when the administration of the anaesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered
d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

A

c. Takes place when the administration of the anaesthetic (s) are discontinued or antagonists are administered

204
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shock?

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b. Prednisolone Na-succinate
c. Dexamethasone
d. Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate

205
Q

Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals?

a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition
d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good general condition

206
Q

Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are

a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

A

d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

207
Q

Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax?

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Percutaneous chest drainage
c. Oxygenisation
d. Thoracotomy/ sternotomy/ lobectomy

A

a. Thoracocentesis

208
Q

Which of the following procedures can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture?

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Intravenous urography
c. Excretory urethrography
d. Retrograde urethrography

A

d. Retrograde urethrography

209
Q

The increasing sequence of capacity of a vein catheter is

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
d. Green, pink, blue, yellow

A

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green

210
Q

Stadium analgesia

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisation

A

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

211
Q

Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures?

a. Myelography
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Retrograde cystography
d. Arthrography

A

b. Gastric emptying study

212
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction?

a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
d. Fentanyl and NSAID’s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia

A

b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function

213
Q

What statement is correct regarding the GGE (guaiphenesine)?

a. It has good analgesic effect
b. It is available for induction alone
c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
d. It is a muscle relaxant

A

d. It is a muscle relaxant

214
Q

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats?

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

215
Q

What do we use the grid for in radiography?

a. To filter scattered beam
b. To improve image sharpness
c. To reduce radiation exposure of the staff
d. To restrain the animal

A

a. To filter scattered beam

216
Q

Which statement is correct?
During nephrotomy

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
d. The ureter is also occluded

A

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein

217
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral obturation in a male dog?

a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy
c. Scrotal urethrostomy
d. Perineal urethrostomy

A

a. Urethrohydropropulsio

218
Q

Which one has significance examining a colic horse under field conditions?

a. Measurement of the ionized Ca level of the blood
b. Determination of bacterial count from the peritoneal fluid
c. Measurement of the peritoneal lactate level
d. Mesurment of PCV and TPP

A

c. Measurement of the peritoneal lactate level

219
Q

Which amount of drug is used for tibial nerve block in the horse?

a. 3ml mepivacaine?
b. 5ml mepivacaine?
c. 10 ml mepivacaine
d. 20 ml mepivacaine

A

b. 5ml mepivacaine?

220
Q

Which statement is correct regarding screw osteosynthesis?

a. Good for humeral condyle fractures
b. Good for tibial oblique fractures
c. Good for antebracial fractures
d. Never good as a sole method

A

b. Good for tibial oblique fractures

221
Q

In case of standing castration it is advised as

a. Only open technique, with scrotal incision

b. Open technique, with scrotal incision, laparoscopic removal of an abdominal
cryptorchid testicle

c. Open technique, with inguinal incision
d. Closed technique, sutured

A

a. Only open technique, with scrotal incision (?)

222
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the rupture of the stomach in horses?

a. Symptoms of primary and secondary stomach rupture do not differ significantly
b. Rectal examination and abdominal paracentesis are helpful methods to diagnose a stomach rupture
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both (?)

223
Q

Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation?

a. Cranial cruciate ligament
b. Patellar straight ligament
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

b. Patellar straight ligament(?)

224
Q

What is to be done in case of a long-bone fracture in horses?

a. Treat the shock, immobilize the limb, refer the patient to a clinic
b. Refer to a clinic as soon as possible
c. Adequate antibiotic treatment
d. There is no treatment possibility

A

a. Treat the shock, immobilize the limb, refer the patient to a clinic

225
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

A

d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

226
Q

What is the advised treatment for an injured podotrochlar bursa after “street nail” puncture in a horse?

a. Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheet
b. Bursoscopy through the coffin joint
c. Approach from the solar surface of the hoof
d. Conservative treatment

A

a. Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheet

227
Q

Locking compression plate is good for

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole
b. Septic fractures
c. Temporary joint immobilisation
d. Supporting tendon repair

A

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole

228
Q

Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomonic in case of cranial cruciate ligament rupture?

a. Radiology
b. Cranial drawer test
c. Gait analysis
d. Historical date

A

b. Cranial drawer test

229
Q

Which examination method is not enough alone for diagnosing Cauda Equina Compression?

a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography

A

d. CT myelography

230
Q

Which statement is NOT correct?

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary

A

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

231
Q

Sand forceps are used in equine castration

a. To crush the external cremaster muscle and to thombotise the vessels of the spermatic funicle
b. To crush the external cremaster muscle and tourniquet the vessels
c. To crush the external cremaster muscle and to cut the vessels of the spermatic funicle
d. To crush the external cremaster muscle and to emasculate the vessels of the spermatic funicle

A

d. To crush the external cremaster muscle and to emasculate the vessels of the spermatic funicle(?)

232
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common?

a. French bulldog
b. German shepherd
c. Yorkshire terrier
d. Hungarian vizsla

A

a. French bulldog

233
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)?

a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor
d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart

A

c. The ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

234
Q

Which of the followings is the least effective in German shepherd’s perineal fistulation

a. Fistulectomy
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative management

A

d. Conservative management (?)

235
Q

Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumours?

a. Soft palate
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. Tongue

A

c. Gingiva

236
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pulse oxymetry?

a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

A

d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values

237
Q

Reversible drugs and their antagonists

A

Diazepam : flumazenil
Fentanyl : naloxone
Medetomidine : atipamezole

238
Q

Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment?

a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses
b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken
c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST
d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance, blood glucose and urinalysis

A

c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea, Urea, ALT and AST

239
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?

a. Autoclave
b. Gamma-beam radiation
c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

A

a. Autoclave (steam)

240
Q

Which of the following can happen if alpha-2 agonist is injected intraarterially?

a. Collapse
b. Oxytocin-like effect
c. Awakening
d. Ileus

A

a. Collapse(?)

241
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients?

a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are increased
b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

A

c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

242
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds
b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
c. Both
d. None

A

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

243
Q

Which does not belong to the arthrosis signs on the radiograph?

a. Perichondral osteophyte formation
b. Irregular subchondral bone
c. Widened joint space
d. Cortical osteolysis

A

c. Widened joint space(?)

244
Q

The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder?

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
c. Nonunion
d. Osteochondrosis dissecans

A

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy

245
Q

Which characteristics are typical of the hoof capsule in chronic laminitis?

A

High heels, concave front wall, convex solar surface, widened white line

246
Q

Which is the adequate treatment of paramphimosis in horses?

a. Amputation of the penis
b. Retaining the penis into the prepuce and suture a mesh to the preputial orifice to prevent reprolapse
c. Administration of drugs to reduce oedema
d. Conservative treatment

A

c. Administration of drugs to reduce oedema

247
Q

Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to Wobbler syndrome?

a. Dobermann
b. German shepherd
c. Dachshound
d. Labrador retriever

A

a. Dobermann

248
Q

Which one is NOT a postural reaction?

a. Hopping
b. Placing
c. Wheelbarrowing
d. Panniculus reflex

A

d. Panniculus reflex

249
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Acute laminitis is always a secondary disease
b. Acute laminitis is a common issue of endotoxaemia in horses
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

250
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT concerning perianal adenoma?

a. It is uncommon in females
b. It mostly occurs in males
c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
d. It originates from the anal sac in females

A

d. It originates from the anal sac in females

251
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. In the categories by “Obel” there are 4 grades to classify acute laminitis
b. Acute laminitis is more common in the hindlimbs
c. Corrective trimming and shoeing have great importance in the treatment in peracute laminitis
d. Trotting with a patient with acute laminitis is really useful on hard ground

A

a. In the categories by “Obel” there are 4 grades to classify acute laminitis

252
Q

What is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy?

a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with penetrating sutures
b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach
c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa is done, unlike midline gastropexy
d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach(?)

253
Q

Which statement is correct? Regarding ectopic ureter

a. It may cause dysuria
b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
d. The urinary incontinence is always constant

A

c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

254
Q

Which statement is correct concerning a colic horse?

a. The degree of pain shows severity of the disease
b. Dehydration is only in the indolent phase present
c. In very painful cases electrolyte loss is significant
d. Primary cecum tympany can lead to death

A

a. The degree of pain shows severity of the disease

255
Q

Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation?

a. Adrenal gland
b. Skin
c. Brain
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Brain

256
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound
b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None

257
Q

Which solution of the most alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis?

a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3 solution
c. Lactated Ringer’s
d. Acetated Ringer’s

A

b. NaHCO3 solution

258
Q

Which statement is not correct about what can develop after phenothiazine injection in a stallion?

a. Penile prolapse
b. Paraphimosis
c. Penile paralysis
d. Testicle torsion

A

d. Testicle torsion

259
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in cats?

a. 30
b. 32
c. 40
d. 42

A

a. 30

260
Q

Which statement is correct concerning capnometry?

a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

A

d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

261
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None

262
Q

Which one of the followings does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs?

a. Shock
b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

A

c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system

263
Q

Which peripheral nerve is most commonly damaged in postanesthetic neuropathy in the horse?

a. Radial nerve
b. Tibial nerve
c. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Mental nerve

A

a. Radial nerve(?)

264
Q

Which is the location of the most common OCD sites in the equine hock?

a. Medial malleolus of the distal tibia
b. Lateral malleolus of the distal tibia
c. Lateral trochlear ridge of the talus
d. Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

A

d. Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

265
Q

Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature?

a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c. Distal surface faces to the apex
d. Distal surface faces to the crown

A

a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch

266
Q

Which of the following radiographic densities look the same?

a. Bone and metal opacity
b. Fat and soft tissue opacity
c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity
d. Fluid and fat opacity

A

c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity

267
Q

The ideal degree to perform skyline view from the third carpal bone (C3) in the horse

a. 85 degree
b. 55 degree
c. 35 degree
d. A and B together

A

c. 35 degree

268
Q

Which part of the metacarpo/metatarsophalangeal joint is visible clearly on the dorsal 45 degree lateral-palmaromedial oblique (45 degree) view in the horse?

a. Medial proximal sesamoid bone
b. Lateral proximal sesamoid bone
c. Statumen
d. A and C together

A

b. Lateral proximal sesamoid bone

269
Q

Which statement is correct?

A

The formation of bullae are typical of II.degree burning injury

270
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving?

A

Interrupted horizontal mattress

271
Q

Which statement is correct concerning inguinal hernia in horse?

a. In direct inguinal hernia: the small intestiness escape to the subcutaneous space of the scrotum
b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. None

A

b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

272
Q

Which structures is affected in a streetnail procedure?

a. Bursa podotrochelaris, digital flexor tendon sheet
b. Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint
c. Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint, navicular bone
d. Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint, navicular bone, proximal interphalangeal joint

A

c. Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint, navicular bone(?)

273
Q

In case of complete abdominal cryptorchid horse we don’t use the Sand forceps

a. Because the external cremaster muscle is thin there
b. Because the external cremaster muscle adheres outside the vaginal tunic
c. Because the external cremaster muscle adheres inside the vaginal tunic
d. Because the external cremaster muscle is not visible at the operation site

A

c. Because the external cremaster muscle adheres inside the vaginal tunic(?)

274
Q

Which statement is correct?

a. Palmar digital nerve block needs min. 2,5 ml anaesthetic solution per side
b. The dorsal wall of the hoof capsule will be anaesthetised wit palmar digital block
c. The sites of the palmar digital nerve block are medially from the hoof cartilages
d. All of them are true

A

b. The dorsal wall of the hoof capsule will be anaesthetised wit palmar digital block

275
Q

Which statement is correct regarding plate fixation?

a. Its good for SH fracture treatment
b. It’s a dynamic fixation method
c. Can do temporary joint fixation with it
d. It is a rigid fixation method

A

d. It is a rigid fixation method

276
Q

Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog?

a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia

A

b. Osteomyelitis

277
Q

Where do we place the aluminium wedge filter during the radiological exam of the back of the horse?

a. Between the horse and the cassette
b. Between the collimator of the equipment and the horse
c. Between the grid and the horse
d. Between the grid and the cassette

A

b. Between the collimator of the equipment and the horse

278
Q

Which is NOT correct regarding balance anaesthesia?

a. Recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
b. Mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
d. Drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

A

d. Drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

279
Q

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog?

a. Joint cartilage
b. Subchondral bone
c. Periosteum
d. Adrenal gland

A

b. Subchondral bone

280
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism?

a. The choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying endocrine changes
b. The actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary condition (i.e. hyperadrenocorticism )
c. Pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
d. Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

d. Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

281
Q

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics?

a. They are flammable and explosive agents
b. Most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. In low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the long run (occupational risk)
d. As isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask induction

A

b. Most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temp

282
Q

Where is/are the scrotal incision(s) made for castration?

a. Along the line of raphe scroti
b. Parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. Parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. Parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline, 2 incisions

A

c. Parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions

283
Q

Advantages of the light cast are

a. Quick application possible - fluid impregnation, not heavy
b. Quick application possible - no fluid impregnation, light
c. Quick application possible - fluid impregnation, cheap
d. Slow application, no fluid impregnation

A

b. Quick application possible - no fluid impregnation, light

284
Q

Which fixation method does NOT have a remodelling phase?

a. Plate osteosynthesis
b. External fixator frame
c. Internal fixator frame
d. Intramedullary pinning

A

b. External fixator frame

285
Q

External fixation is good for

a. Septic fractures
b. Temporary joint immobilisation
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

286
Q

Which statement is correct

a. Stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease
b. Navicular disease is really uncommon in Frisian horse
c. None
d. Both

A

d. Both

Surgery (4 decks)

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