X-linked Inheritance Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the sex chromosomes

A

1095 genes are annotated on the X chromosome (this is the current estimation; maybe there are more)

  • Female have two copies of all genes on the X-chromosome
  • Males are said to be hemizygous fir the X chromosome (males only have one copy)
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2
Q

What are the pseudo autosomal regions?

A

Regions of X and Y chromosomes that match. It is necessary to line up chromosomes correctly during meiotic recombination

About 148 genes mapped to the Y chromosome (mostly related to spermatogenesis )

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3
Q

Give the main examples of X-linked disirders

A
  • Dystrophin associated muscular dystrophy
    • Duchenne muscular dystrophy (severe)
    • Becker muscular dystrophy (milder form)
    • both are due to mutations of the same gene (DMD, dystrophin )
  • Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
    • hemolytic anemia on ingestion of primaquine, sulfa drugs

-Hemophilia A and B result in bleeding tendencies

  • Lesch-Nyhan syndrome [Hypoxanthine Guanine Phosohoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) deficiency]
    • causes hyperuricemia, gout, & self mutilation
  • Red-green color blindness /deficiency (non-lethal)
  • X-linked SCID (defect in the SCIDX1 gene)
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4
Q

Briefly describe X-linked recessive disorders in males

A
  • Males require only one copy of the mutation (hemizygous) to express the disease
  • Disirders are more common and more severe in males than in females
  • Skipped generations common
  • Affected father transmits the mutation to all his daughters who are typically NOT affected but they are carriers . A carrier daughter may transmit the mutation to her sons who would then be affected.
  • Make to male transmission not seen
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5
Q

Summarize the X-linked dominant disirders

A
  • Skipping of generations not common
  • Preponderance of females compared to males
  • No male to male transmission
  • Affected make transmits the disease to all his daughters, but none of his sons would be affected

Variable expressivity in females: Due to the phenomena of X-inactivation

If a disirder, males are often very severely affected (often lethal)

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6
Q

Briefly describe Y-linked inheritance

A

-Only males will show the trait

  • Genes on Y are primarily genes involved in spermatogenesis and, therefore, mutations in these usually causes sterility and are not passed on
    • Genetic lethality (the person may be relatively unaffected but unable to procreate

Examples of Y traits
-Variations mutations in the SRY genes

  • H-Y histocompatibility antigen
  • Hairy ears
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7
Q

What is Y-linked inheritance?

A

Males only

  • males transmit the trait all if their sons but none of their daughters
  • Main point: If a trait is controlled by an allele from the Y chromosome , it has to have come from the father, as the mother is XX
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8
Q

What is reduced penetrance ?

A

Incomplete or reduced penetrance May complicate an autosomal dominant pedigree

A disorder is said to be fully penetrant, if all the people carrying the mutation, express the phenotypic manifestations of the disorder

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9
Q

Explain locus heterogeneity

A

Mutations at different loci (meaning different genes ) that cause the same phenotype

  • Osteogenesis imperfecta: Defect in collagen
    • Mutations of chromosome 17 (COL1A1 gene) or chromosome 7 (COL1A2 gene) will both lead to disease manifestations (phenotype) of osteogenesis imperfecta
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10
Q

What are the examples of locus heterogeneity?

A

Many other disorders that demonstrate locus heterogeneity.
Examples:

  • Sensorinueral hearing impairment (many types)
  • Retinitis Pigmentosa
  • Charcot Marie Tooth disease (AD, AR, or X-linked)
  • SCID (many forms are known, so far, we have discussed AR and X-linked forms)
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11
Q

Describe variable expression

A

-In individuals who have inherited the same mutant allele, some individuals are severely affected, and others are mildly affected

  • three reasons:
    1. Other genetic factors (modifier loci) or sex influence
    2. Environmental exposure
    3. Random chance
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12
Q

Explain hemochromatosis as an example of variable expression

A

Hemochromatosis- is an iron overload disorder(autosomal recessive disorder)

- Hemochromatosis is more severe in males, less severe in females. Premenopausal females will menstruate and lose iron 
 - Variable expression due to sex differences
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13
Q

Explain Xeroderma Pigmentosum as an example of variable expressivity

A

Autosomal recessive- more severe individuals exposed more frequently to environmental UV radiation
-first child would be expected to be more severely affected than the second child

  • Parents might know to keep the second child out of the sun; variable expression due to environment
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14
Q

Explain cystic fibrosis as an example of variable expression

A

Two patients with the same exact mutation profile might present with very different clinical pictures. Could be different genetic modifiers/background, or different environment exposure

-Some embryonic development disorders (syndromic cleft lip), might be severe in one child than in another, but caused by the same mutation- some of this might be due to random chance

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15
Q

What are the main exampkes of variable expressivity?

A
  • hemochromatosis
  • Xeroderma Pigmentosa
  • Cystic fibrosis
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16
Q

New autosomal dominant tend to occur more often in…

A

Older fathers. Particularly men she can have a long reproductive life.

Remember this mutation is occurring during gamete formation. It is spontaneous, (that is it is new), not in the parents original genome

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17
Q

Explain the effect of paternal age

A

The average age for fathers with children which have new Autosomal Dominant mutations is greater than the average age of the father in the general population

True for number of conditions

  • Average age for father in population: 30-31 years
  • Average age of father of Achondroplasia: 36.1 years
  • Average age of father of Marfan syndrome: 36.6 years

-About 1/2 of all NF1 cases are de-novo, and risk increases with age of the father

Genetic advice is difficult to give for this because there is nothing specific to advise on.

Genetic basis: spermatogonia continually divide & sperm cells from older fathers may contain replication error mutations. (Point mutations)

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18
Q

Describe germline Mosaicism

A

A healthy man had two children affected with osteogenesis imperfecta with different partners. The father also has another child that is normal

Genetic testing shows the same mutation in both affected children, but all parents test normal
-No parent has the mutation in their peripheral cells (blood cells)

Maybe due to Mosaicism in the germline (gonadal) in the father

The mutation is present in a proportion of the germline cells

-Presence of two affected children suggests germline Mosaicism ( compare to new mutation, where there is a single child with a disorder and NK family history of the disorder

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19
Q

Give examples of delayed age of onset

A

Disease causing variants can be given at birt, but don’t manifest until later in life

Huntington disease

Hemochromatosis

Familial breast cancer (BRCA-1 or BCRA-2 mutation)

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20
Q

Describe pleiotropy

A

A disease-causing mutation affects multiple organ systems

Marfan syndrome (autosomal dominant)

  • mutation in the FBN-1 gene (fibrillin-1)
  • skeletal abnormalities (arachnodactyly, long limbs, percussion excavatum)
  • Hypermobile joints
  • Ocular abnormalities (myopia, lens dislocation)
  • Cardiovascular disease (mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm)

Osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bones, peridintal weakness, blue sclera) is due to a mutation in a gene encid8ng pro-collagen

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21
Q

What are the requirements of translation?

A
  • mRNA
  • ribosomes
  • CHARGED tRNA
  • initiation factors
  • GTP
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22
Q

Summarize the process of translation

A
  1. Activation of the monomer
  2. Initiation
  3. Elongation
  4. Termination
  5. Processing the polymer.
23
Q

How are amino acids activated by attachment to tRNA?

A

Charging tRNA is a two-step process:
1. Enzyme bound amino-acid adenykate

  1. Formation of the aminoacyl-tRNA

Reaction is driven by hydrolysis of pyrophosohate

tRNA to which amino acid is attached is called the “charged tRNA”

24
Q

Explain the molecular function of fMet-tRNA

A

N-formylmethionine (fMet) as the first amino acid - in prokaryotes & in mitichondria.

This special tRNA (fMet-tRNA) is recognized differently by the ribosome - allows initiation

Prokaryotes have 2 tRNAs for methionine:

  • one allows formation of fMet,
  • the other recognizes internal AUG codons
25
Q

What do prokaryotes and mitochondria use the special Met-tRNA for?

A

Two tRNAs that recognize AUG

  1. Formylated MET for first codon
  2. Normal Met-tRNA for internal codons
26
Q

How can eukaryotes use special Met-tRNA as initiator tRNA?

A

Two tRNAs that recognize AUG
1. The first codon also uses MET, and it has a special tRNA for this first codon (but the MET amino acid is not formylated)

  1. Normal Met-tRNA for internal codons
27
Q

Contrast the initiating translation structure

A

Prokaryotes: Shine Dalgarno sequence is purine rich and residues a few (5-10) bases 5’ to the start codon

Eukaryotes: lack Shine Dalgarno sequence, therefore eukaryotic small ribosome binds close the cap at the 5’ end, scans until it encounters the AUG start codon

28
Q

What ‘s a polyribosome?

A

Ribosomes simultaneously translating one mRNA

A number of ribosomes can translate a single mRNA simultaneously, forming a polyribosome (or polysome)

Polyribosome s enable a cell to make many copies of a polypeptide very quickly

29
Q

Explain the steps of protein synthesis

A
  1. Initiation factors (IFs) aid in the formation of the 30s initiation complex. The charged initiator tRNA is brought to the P site of the 30s subunit by IF-2-GTP
  2. GTP on IF-2 is hydrolyzed and initiation factors are released when the 50s subunit by IF-2-GTP
  3. Ribozyme catalyzes elongation- Elongation factor EF-Tu-GTP brings the appropriately charged tRNAto the codon in the empty A site(decoding ). GTP on EF-Tu is hydrolyzed
  4. Peptidyltransferase activity of the 23s rRNA of 50s subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation, transferring the initiating amino acid (or peptide chain) from the P site to the amino acid at the A site (transpeptidation).
  5. EF-G-GTP facilitates movement of the ribosome three nucleotides along the mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction. What was in P site is now in E site, what was in A site is now in P site , and A site is empty. GTP on EF-G is hydrolyzed
  6. Steps 3,4 and 5 are repeated until a termination codon is encountered at the A site
30
Q

What is EF-G?

A

The prokaryotic elongation factor

In eukaryotes, EF-G is called EF-2

31
Q

Explain termination of protein synthesis

A

A termination codon is recognized by a release factor (RF-1 or RF-2), which results in release if the newly synthesized protein. GTP on RF-3 is hydrolyzed. The synthesizing complex dissociates

Stop codon has no tRNA

Peptide is held in the P-site attached to the tRNA

Release factor(RF) diffuses inti the A site

RF allows peptidyl transferase to cleave ester bond between tRNA and the peptide

After release if the peptide, the ribosome dissociates into its subunits which may then begin a new round of translation

32
Q

What is protein folding?

A

Protein folding is the process whereby proteins acquire their nature functional (native) structure.

Often begins co-translationally

Occurs spontaneously facilitated by chaperones

33
Q

What are chaperones?

A

They ensure that only a limited number of folds are available to a newly synthesized protein

34
Q

What are the major differences between prokaryotic & eukaryotic translation ?

A
  • prokaryotic initiator tRNA is formylated while eukaryotic us special
  • prokaryotic rna is polycistronic, eukaryotic is monocistronic
  • prokaryotes translation start site: prokaryotes May select an internal AUG, eukaryotic typically start initiation at first AUG
  • Prokaaryotic: transcription and translation are coupled, eukaryotic: can’t be coupled due to nuclear membrane
35
Q

What is the effect of Diphtheria toxin?

A

Inactivation of EF-2by ADP-Ribosykation

Toxin A is produced by a lysogenic bacteriophage that infects Corynebacterium diphtheria. The toxin catalyzes the transfer of ADP-ribose to host cells EF-2, inactivating it (prevents translocation) & inhibiting protein synthesis

36
Q

What are the effects of streptomycin/aminoglycoside?

A

Prevents assembly of ribosome (binds to 30s subunit)

37
Q

What is the effect of Tetracycline ?

A

Four ring structure
Interacts with 30s subunit,
-block elongation by preventing aminoacyl-tRNA access to the A-sit, thereby inhibiting elongation

38
Q

What are the effects of Erythromycin?

A

Macrolide
-Binds to the 50S subunit of the complete 70S ribosome

-Blocks ribosome translocation

Binds irreversibly to a site on the 50s subunit and blocks the tunnel by which the peptide leaves the ribosome, thereby inhibiting translocation

39
Q

What are the effects of Chloramphenicol?

A
  • Inhibits peptidyltransferase activity in prokaryotes

- At high levels, may inhibit mitochondrial translation

40
Q

What are the effects of Cycloheximide?

A

Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase activity

41
Q

What are the effects of Puromycin?

A

Causes premature termination of translation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Bears a structural resemblance to aminoacyl- tRNA and accepts peptide from the P site, causing inhibition of elongation and resulting in premature termination in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

42
Q

What are the major types of post-translational modifications ?

A
  1. Protein folding
  2. Covalent alterations
  3. Proteolytic processing
  4. Addition of prosthetic group
  5. Prenylation
  6. Protein degradation
43
Q

When does post-translational modification occur?

A

May k cur as the polypeptide is being translated or after translation is completed and may be reversible or irreversibly

44
Q

What is a zymogen?

A

Zymogen/proenzyme: an inactive enzyme precursor

  • Activated within an organism into an active enzymes
  • Activation by enzymatic cleavage of peptide bonds of the zymogen molecule
45
Q

What is the cascade of zymogen activation?

A
  • Caspases to activate apoptosis
  • blood coagulation
  • digestion of proteins
46
Q

Explain phosphorylation by kinase

A
  • Phosohate is transferred from ATP to an amino acid side chain
  • Occurs on the OH groups of serine, threonine, or less frequently tyrosine residues
  • Phosphorylaation is the most common post-translational modification in eukaryotes:

May be permanent or reversible. Dephosphorylation by phosphatases

The insulin receptor (IRs) is a tyrosine kinase

Phosphorylated IRs promote activation of protein kinases and phosohatases, leading to the metabolic effects of insulin

47
Q

What is the effect of glycosylation?

A

Alters the properties of proteins, changing their stability, solubility & physical bulk

48
Q

Contrast the O-linked and N-linked goycosykation

A

O-linked:

  • Carbohydrate chain attached to the OH group of Ser/Thr
  • Glycan groups always face extracellular side
  • Occus only after the protein reaches the zgolgi apparatus

N-linked-

  • Carbohydrate chains attached to the amide nitrogen of Asn residue
  • Occurs in the ER & Golgi . In ER, modulated folding of proteins
49
Q

The carbohydrate moieties act as recognition signals

A
  • Protein is targeted to either the plasma membrane, to organelle interiors or organelle membranes
  • Influence cell-cell reactions
  • involved in the development of an organism
50
Q

What is lipid anchoring?

A

The cell targets Ras protein to the cytosolic face(inner leaflet) of the plasma membrane by a lipid anchor mechanism-with the aid of Farnesyl group

Farnesyl is a 15 carbon isoprenoid group which may be attached to cysteine

51
Q

Describe the proteolytic cleavage of insulin

A

Insulin and C-peptide are packaged together into secretory vesicles to be ready for ready secretion

  • C peptide is essential for proper insulin folding
  • C peptide is a good indicator of insulin production and secretion because it’s (C-peptide) half-life in the plasma is longer than that of insulin
52
Q

Describe the creation of proinsulin

A
  1. Genes coding for insulin are transcribed to mRNA in the nucleus
  2. After moving inti the cytoplasm, translation of the mRNA is initiated on cytosolic ribosomes, with formation of an N-terminal hydrophobic signal sequence that aids in the transport of the mRNA and ribosomes to the RER
  3. Translation of the polypeptide is directed into the lumen of the rER and forms “preproinsulin”
  4. The signal sequence is cleaved in the lumen of the rER
    - forms “proinsulin”
53
Q

Describe the maturation of insulin

A

Occurs in the golgi

  1. The N terminal signal peptide penetrates the membrane of the RER. Further elongation directs the polypeptide chain into the lumen of the RER, resulting in the formation if preproinsulin
  2. The signal peptide is cleaved and proinsulin is formed in the cisternal space (lumen)
  3. Proinsulin is transported from RER to the Golgi complex, where it is cleaved forming insulin and C-peptide
  4. Insulin and C-peptide in secretory granules
  5. Secretory granules are secreted by exocytosis, releasing insulin and C-peptide