WX Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 different types of FOG?

A

Radiation, Advection, UPSLOPE, STEAM, ICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Radiation FOG?

A

Calm, clear nights in low lying areas (mountain valleys generally) the ground cools from TERRESTRIAL COOLING until due point is reached. Fog without Wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of fog (generally) is associated with GROUND FOG?

A

Ground fog is typically Radiation Fog that is 20 feet of less thick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe Advection FOG?

A

Moist air passes over a cool surface, common on warm front passing over a significant snow pack. Fog with wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe Upslope FOG?

A

Moist, stable air blown upslope of mountain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe Steam FOG?

A

Cold, Dry Air over warm water, associated with the coldest day of the year generally. Low level turbulence and icing associated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe Ice FOG?

A

EXTREME COLD (-25F), water vapor forming ice crystals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 stages of a Thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus, Mature, Dissipating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What stage of a TSTM typically reveals an ANVIL?

A

Mature stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What stage of a TSTM typically contains the greatest level of up and down drafts?

A

Mature stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What stage of a TSTM typically the heaviest rain?

A

Dissipating stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What stage of a TSTM typically produces WIND/SHEAR and MICRO BURST?

A

Mature stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What distance must we remain clear of TSTMs?

A

10 miles / 3 miles for TakeOFF and Landings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the CLOUD Ceilings classifications

A

Broken, Overcast, Obscured (haze or fog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 different cloud types?

A

Stratus, Altostratus, Cirrus and Cumulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 different FRONTS?

A

Cold, Warm, Stationary, Occluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe a COLD FRONT?

A

Faster moving front (generally passing in a few hours), pushes warm air up like a snow plows snow…violent cumulus and turbulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe a WARM FRONT?

A

Slow moving (generally over 2-3 days), air moves up and over cooler air eventually mixing and increasing area temperatures. Stratus clouds, more stable air, with lower visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe a STATIONARY FRONT?

A

2 air masses of relatively equal strength combine…combination of both cold and warm fronts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe a OCCLUDED FRONT?

A

Cold front over taking a warm front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

A

Upper winds blowing across the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What weather difference is found on each side of a dry line?

A

Dew point difference, a dew point front or dry line is formed when two air masses of similar density and temperature meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?

A

A trough is an elongated area of low flow pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where is the normal location of the jet stream relative to surface lows and fronts?

A

The jet stream is normally located north of the surface systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low level stratus clouds?

A

Rime ice forms when drops are small such as those in level stratus clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What condition is necessary for the formations of structural icing in flight?

A

Flying thru visible moisture and the temperature where the water strikes the aircraft must be freezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?

A

Freezing rain at higher levels

28
Q

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?

A

When both the temperature and dew point are below freezing. Occurs on clear nights with little or no winds

29
Q

What temperature conditions are indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?

A

The temperature is above freezing at flight level

30
Q

What type of precipitation is an indication that super cooled water is present?

A

Freezing rain at flight level

31
Q

Radiation fog occurs when there is a surface based temperature inversion.
WHAT characterizes a ground based inversion?

A

Poor VIS

32
Q

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion?

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, calm night

33
Q

What causes advection fog to form?

A

Warm moist air flowing over colder surfaces

34
Q

What causes upslope fog to form?

A

Moist, stable air moving over higher ground, cooling adiabatically

35
Q

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?

A

More than 4000 feet thick

36
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus clouds begin to elongate and tower (because of up and down drafts)

37
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the end of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

ANVIL is forms and rain begins

38
Q

What is and where do squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of a cold front in moist unstable air

39
Q

Which types storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?

A

Steady state (frontal) thunderstorms

40
Q

You are observing cumulonimbus mamma clouds.

What inference can be made to this sighting?

A

Violent thunderstorms, turbulence, lightning, low level wind shear, potential micro burst and tornadoes.

41
Q

Where is the greatest area of thunderstorm turbulence?

A

Under the anvil

42
Q

What is a definition of a wind shear?

A

Rapid airspeed changes of more than 15 knots, rapid vertical speed changes of more than 500ft/min

43
Q

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in ground speed?

A

Tailwind shearing to a headwind

44
Q

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in indicated airspeed?

A

Headwind shearing to a tailwind

45
Q

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?

A

All sides and directly under the center

46
Q

What are the greatest threats to heavy rain during landing?

A

Reduced visibility and hydroplaning on the runway

47
Q

What is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?

A

A calm or light wind near the surface and a stronger wind above the inversion, 2000 to 4000ft winds 25kts or more

48
Q

Which type of clouds may be associated with the jet stream?

A

Cirri-form clouds

49
Q

One of the tools used in recognizing severe weather is the convective outlook. What information is provided?

A

Describes activities for the following 24 hours

50
Q

If squall lines are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?

A

Sudden increase of winds, 15 to 20kts for one minute

51
Q

When flying over the top of severe thunderstorm the cloud should be overflown by how many feet?

A

Clear the top by 1000ft for each 10kts of wind

52
Q

What is the maximum amount of area coverage, by thunderstorms, at which the entire area should be circumnavigated?

A

6/10 th

53
Q

At what altitude of cloud tops should a thunderstorm be considered extremely hazardous?

A

Tops above 35,000ft

54
Q

If you can see under the thunderstorm, is it ok to fly under?

A

No, turbulence and wind shear could be disastrous

55
Q

What is the first rule of wind shear escape?

A

Avoid

56
Q

Once wind shear has been encountered what is the accepted recovery?

A

Increase power, increase pitch, maintain configuration

57
Q

One way to improve flight crew’s ability to recognize and respond quickly to a wind shear encounter is to;

A

Develop strong CRM

58
Q

When encountering a wind shear on the runway with insufficient runway to stop or accelerate to a normal speed, what procedure should the pilot use?

A

Rotate early and except a lower airspeed and higher pitch attitudes

59
Q

What separation is recommended from any thunderstorm?

A

20 miles 40 miles to fly between

60
Q

What adjustments to cockpit lighting should be made when in the vicinity of TSTMs?

A

Turn up lighting to max

61
Q

What techniques may be used for airborne radar?

A

Tilt antenna up and down to scan for other activities

62
Q

Upon entering a thunderstorm, what type of course should the pilot take?

A

Set straight course through the storm

63
Q

Upon entering a thunderstorm, and encountering strong up and down drafts what specific precaution should a pilot take?

A

Make sure to maintain wings level during altitude changes

64
Q

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A

Establish a straight course through

65
Q

What action is recommended if turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or direct tailwind?

A

Change altitude (winds elongate and make areas long and shallow)

66
Q

What is the difference between occasional, intermittent and continuous chop?

A

Occasional 1/3, Intermittent 1/3 to 2/3, Continuous Chop is more than 2/3

67
Q

What are the alternate airport IFR weather minimums?

A

For an airport that has at least one approach procedure, adding 400’ to the authorized CAT 1 DH/DA and 1sm to the CAT I visibility landing minimum.
For an airport that has at least two approaches to two different suitable runways, adding 200’ to the authorized CAT I DH/DA and a visibility adding 1/2sm to the higher of the CAT I landing minimum of the two approaches.