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TULIP CITY -- ALL SUBJECTS > FLIGHT OPERATIONS / GMO > Flashcards

FLIGHT OPERATIONS / GMO Flashcards

1
Q

When “MUST” fuel pumps be on?

A

TakeOff and Landings

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2
Q

414 - When putting on the O2 MASK, how does the O2 starting flow?

A

Pull the RED HANDLE under the Pilot’s Yoke

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3
Q

What is the minimum COOL DOWN time for all aircraft?

A

3 minutes

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4
Q

What steps should be taken to MANAGE POWER on descent with TurboChargers?

A

Limit descent in first 2 minutes to 250’ per minute for the first minute, then 500’ the second minute then 750” there after.
Reduce power 1 inch of MP per minute

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5
Q

What weights should be used when carrying passengers?

A

Asked weight plus 10 pounds.

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6
Q

What adjustment must be made to the approach speed when landing with a GUST FACTOR?

A

Take the difference between the constant wind and the gust wind…then half of that number add to normal approach speed. Example 090/10G25 (the difference is 15, so add 7.5 kts to normal approach speed)

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7
Q

What approach speed must be used during a ZERO FLAP LANDING?

A

Add 12 kts

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8
Q

What is the increase of landing roll during a ZERO FLAP LANDING?

A

25% increase

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9
Q

What specific PREFLIGHT items must be checked on the FUEL MAIN TANKS?

A

Master switch on during initial walk around so you can hear the transfer pumps are running on each tip tank.
Caps are down and clamped in the right direction.

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10
Q

Maximum RPM speed of the TURBO CHARGERS

A

20,000 RPMs

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11
Q

MEMORY ITEMS, PRIOR TO TAXI?

A

BRAKES, STEERING (rudder is free), TURN & BANK movement, Attitude Indicator movement less than 5 degrees right and left.

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12
Q

3 kinds of DE-ICE TECHNICS?

A

Chemical / Mechanical / Thermal

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13
Q

Can you TakeOff with FROST ON YOUR WINGS?

A

NO – Clean Wing Concept

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14
Q

1st thing/s you do when FLYING INTO ICE?

A

Turn on Pitot Heat, Stall Heat, Prop Heat, Windshield Heat (within 20 seconds)

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15
Q

What “TYPE” of DE-ICE can be USED on Twin Cessnas?

A

Type 1 only

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16
Q

Does crew have to be present during REFUELING?

A

NO

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17
Q

Can passengers be onboard during REFUELING?

A

NO

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18
Q

Should the AUTOPILOT be used on an INSTRUMENT APPROACH?

A

Yes, down to the DH, disconnect and land or hand fly missed approach.

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19
Q

At what point or indication on TakeOff do you have “POSTIVE RATE?”

A

VSI indicates positive rate and you see yourself rising above the runway surface

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20
Q

What instruments will be affected during GYRO/ VACUUM PUMP FAILURE?

A

GYRO Attitude Indicator, GYRO D/G, Turn & Bank

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21
Q

What instruments will be affected during a PITOT / STATIC BLOCKAGE?

A

ALTIMETER, VERTICAL SPEED INDICATOR, AIRSPEED INDICATOR

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22
Q

If your PITOT Tube was BLOCKED with ICE or DEBRIS, what indication would you get in the cockpit?

A

ZERO AIRSPEED

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23
Q

Should night time be considered IFR for your planning purposes?

A

YES

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24
Q

414 - What would you set the cabin altitude selector to for a pressurized flight at 23,000 feet?

A

Inside scale should be set for 24,000 feet on climb and 500 feet below airport elevation on descent

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25
Q

414 - MAX ALTITUDE

A

30,000 feet

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26
Q

414 - Can you fly the 414 at its MAX altitude?

A

no, the aircraft is not approved for RVSM

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27
Q

414 - Can you fly the 414 unpressurized?

A

Yes, select depressurize and pull the RAM dump knob

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28
Q

How does the pilot control the stall heaters?

A

Turn on the switch

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29
Q

What is the limitation for the windshield heater if the windshield is covered with ice?

A

Do not leave on for more than 20 seconds, because it needs wind/air for cooling.

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30
Q

Can a pilot determine which section of the prop device pads are operating?

A

NO. The prop heat system automatically control heat activation

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31
Q

Do the WING and TAIL BOOTS inflate at the same time?

A

NO, the tail boots are inflated for 6 seconds and then the wing boots are inflate for 6 seconds.

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32
Q

List the parts that must be functional for the aircraft to be certified for flights into known ice?

A

Boots, prop heat, windshield heat, pitot heat, stall heat, both alternators, ice light

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33
Q

What will happen if the rudder gust lock is left engaged during flight?

A

You will have to pull full aft elevator on the ground to release it.

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34
Q

414 - Can the 414 be towed with the gust lock in place?

A

No this is because of the the aileron/rudder interconnects

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35
Q

Should the battery be on before external power is plugged in and turned on?

A

Yes, so the battery can absorb transients from the external power

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36
Q

414 - How many cockpit indicator lights are associated with the landing gear?

A

4, three green position lights and one red gear in transition/warning light

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37
Q

414 - Will the landing gear retract or extend normally without power and why?

A

No, the landing gear is operated by 2 electrically powered hydraulic pumps one located on each engine

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38
Q

414 - What holds the landing gear down?

A

Internal locks on the landing gear actuators

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39
Q

414 - What holds the landing gear up?

A

Mechanical up-locks that are hydraulically released on extension

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40
Q

414 - Where would you find the recommended tire inflation pressure?

A

In the handling and servicing section of the AFM

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41
Q

414 - What is the purpose of the emergency cross feed shutoff lever, and when would you use it?

A

It shuts off cross feed fuel flow and the heater. It is used in the event of a wing, nacelle or center section fire or if a wheels up landing is made.

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42
Q

What is the purpose for having a low setting on the fuel pump?

A

Vapor suppression

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43
Q

What positions are selectable with either fuel pump switch?

A

Off, low and high

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44
Q

414 - Specifically, what happens when the emergency gear control T-handle is pulled?

A

It released dry nitrogen into the shuttle valve, which moves the shuttle valve from the hydraulic position to the air position, nitrogen then releases the up-locks and then moves into the landing gear cylinders which drives the gear into the down and lock position.

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45
Q

Do the toe brakes need to be depressed while engaging the parking brake?

A

Yes, the parking brake holds the pressure applied by the toe brakes

46
Q

Do the brakes use the same hydraulic oil reservoir as the gear?

A

No

47
Q

414 - What does activation of the gear warning horn indicate?

A

Flight:
the power is reduced below 15” and the gear is up
or
if the flaps are lowered passed 15 degrees and the gear is up
Ground:
gear lever is in the up position

48
Q

414 - Can the pilot check the hydraulic oil level in the 414?

A

Only during preflight…A sight gauge is located in the nose baggage area.

49
Q

414 - How many gallons useable do our 414s carry?

A

206 gallon

50
Q

Are LAHSO authorized?

A

NO

51
Q

According to the operations manual, what passenger briefing items must be covered?

A

NO Smoking, use of seatbelts and compliance with lighted signs and crew member instructions, seat backs upright for takeoff and landing, stowage of food and beverage trays, location and means of opening entry door and emergency exit, location of survival equipment, location and use of floatation devices, normal and emergency use of oxygen, location and operation of fire extinguisher, non use of portable electronic devices.

52
Q

What is the preferred method for removing snow and ice accumulations?

A

Gently remove as much snow as possible by sweeping the aircraft surfaces with a broom. Then have aircraft towed into a heated hanger. Once all surfaces are contaminate free, spray with de-icing fluid to prevent the melted water from refreezing. If a heated hanger is not available, use hot de-icing fluid

53
Q

When is the PIC required to make a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

This check is required 5 minutes prior to takeoff in ground icing conditions or when the holdover time has been exceeded.

54
Q

Can we fly contact approaches?

A

No because we don’t have a training program for them.

55
Q

Is it legal to depart an uncontrolled airport VFR and get a clearance after airborne?

A

For part 91 flights only: yes

56
Q

What time will the crew member utilize for determining holdover times?

A

At the time that the fluid is first applied

57
Q

You are assigned a trip that plans to dispatch at 8am. What time are you required to report for duty?

A

At least one hour prior 7am (Indoc training)

58
Q

External lights should be illuminated on the aircraft, at what point, prior to landing/arrival?

A

Within 10 miles of the airport.

59
Q

At what point on arrival should the crew announce inbound for landing?

A

At least 20 miles prior to arrival.

60
Q

What is the 5 minute check?

A

When number 1 for takeoff, a visual inspection from the cockpit to ensure that the wing surfaces continue to be free of any frost, ice, or snow contamination.
If contamination is detected return to the FBO & reassess the situation.

61
Q

What causes ANTI-ICE FLUIDS to fail?

A

The addition of OR delusion of fluid by means of precip (snow, rain).

62
Q

Does DE-ICE or ANTI-ICE FLUIDS provide any protection once an aircraft is airborne?

A

NO

63
Q

Can automotive anti-freeze be used for de-icing and aircraft?

A

NO

64
Q

If it is necessary to fly an instrument approach into an airport, when obtaining the WX, that WX report must include what specific information to initiate the approach?

A

Visibility Report

65
Q

If asked by a CUSTOMS AGENT to complete an improper form/s, what should a crew member do?

A

Complete the form requested by the CBP agent and then add the statement “As requested by Customs Agent”.

66
Q

Lowest VISIBILITY we can fly at FOREIGN AIRPORTS?

A

800 METERS (1/2 mile)

67
Q

What is the CREW BRIEFING prior to TakeOff?

A

“In case of FIRE, FAILURES or LOSS OF DIRECTIONAL CONTROL prior to rotation, we will abort takeoff.”

“If in the air, and GEAR UP–we will make close traffic back to the runway and land while maintaining VFR if possible.”

68
Q

What WX information should a pilot review before a flight?

A

ATIS, NOTAMs, PIREPs, PROG CHARTs, WX CHARTs, WX REPORTs, WX FORECASTs, SIGMETs, and AIRMETs

69
Q

FUEL TANK DIFFERENCES in 310/401/414?

A

310/401–tanks, not a wet wing
414–wet wing, not a tank
310/401–pumps in mains push fuel to the rear (must be verified operational during pre-flight).

70
Q

Important OPERATIONAL considerations for the 310/401 fuel systems?

A

Must TakeOff and Land on Main tanks. Must burn off half of the MAIN TANK fuel before switching to AUX tanks.
AUX tank fuel feeds engine but large percentage flows back into the MAIN tanks.
310 - Main tank and Aux tanks use the same FUEL GAUGE toggle switch shows quality of each and when FUEL SWITCH to AUX tank, gauge displays AUX.,
(401) - Has a gauge for both Main and AUX.
NACEL has no gauge, doesn’t feed engine, only flows to MAINS…yellow light comes on when empty.

71
Q

An IFR APPROACH is not approved unless WHAT information is available at landing airport?

A

WX REPORTING with VIS

72
Q

What is the “MECHANICAL INTERRUPTION SUMMARY REPORT?”

A

The P.I.C. will submit to the DM a report, all interruptions to a flight. Whereby, an unscheduled change of aircraft or stop was made, caused by a known or suspected MX difficulty or malfunction that are not required under 135.415

73
Q

Current W&B and Aircraft Weight must be performed every months?

A

36 months

74
Q

Which aircraft weight should be used to determine W&B calculations? (less than 12,500 lbs)

A

Basic Empty Weight (BEW)

Descr: Standard empty weight plus optional equipment

75
Q

414 – For flights below 12,000 feet, why does the cabin at the same rate as the aircraft for the first 1000 or so feet?

A

Because the pressurization system will climb the cabin to the set cabin height before pressurizing the cabin.

76
Q

414 – Where is the optimal cylinder head temp for high performance cruise power found?

A

RAM engine chart

77
Q

414 – Where is the power setting for cruise at 16,000 feet found?

A

Power setting tables on the RAM engine chart kept in the aircraft

78
Q

414 – Will the waste gate control manifold pressure above 20,000 feet?

A

No, the waste gate will be fully closed and the throttle will have to be used to control manifold pressure.

79
Q

414 – Why would airspeed changes cause changes in the manifold pressure?

A

Above 20,000 feet the waste gate is fully closed and since any air pressure change at the compressor inlet is magnified 8-10 times at the compressor outlet.

80
Q

Are we able to file to airports without weather reporting capabilities?

A

NO

81
Q

Does TULIP CITY or EXECUTIVE AIR have an MEL program?

A

NO

82
Q

Are we authorized to use lower than standard takeoff minimums? What is are our lowest?

A

Yes

WX must be reporting at or above the lowest usable runway IFR approach minimums

83
Q

Who must be notified first, in the event of an emergency involving the safety of persons or property that required a deviation from the FARs?

A

The Director of Operations (DO)

84
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the aircraft status book?

A

The PIC of that particular aircraft or maintenance

85
Q

Under current operating policies, does the PIC have to fill out a load manifest?

A

Yes (under 135)–The PIC will ensure that all aircraft performance limitations and weight and balance data have been reviewed before each flight.
Load manifests are not required for part 91 operations.

86
Q

When may a crew accept a visual approach?

A

Any time the weather conditions allow sufficient visibility to identify, avoid obstacles and safety maneuver the aircraft using external visual references while maintaining minimum altitudes. Must meet part 91 VFR requirements. Must be able to maintain a visual reference with the landing surface. Must maintain radio contact with ATC or with an air/ground facility.

87
Q

Can we accept a VISUAL APPROACH on a IFR flight plan?

A

Yes.

88
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating and ensuring completeness and correctness of the aircraft maintenance records?

A

DOM

89
Q

What are the PICs responsibilities if a mechanical irregularity exists?

A

Address all associated checklists and ensure the safety of passengers and crew. Enter the mechanical irregularity in the aircraft maintenance record. Contact the director of maintenance. Follow any instructions given by the director of maintenance. Do not make another takeoff until the problem has been corrected and entered on the aircraft maintenance record.

90
Q

Who is responsible to insure that adequate and current charts are on board the aircraft and that the IFR GPS databases are current for each flight?

A

Chief Pilot and PIC

91
Q

Are we authorized to utilize ILS-PRM approaches?

A

NO

92
Q

During the conduct of a 135 flight you land at your destination airport. You are met by the FAA inspector who desires to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents must you be able to produce?

A

ARROW requirements of part 91 and GOM, load manifest

93
Q

How can you determine if the VOR equipment, in your assigned aircraft, has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days?

A

By checking aircraft log/load manifest Form 4

94
Q

Is the pilot required to read back hold short instructions?

A

Yes

95
Q

When the pilot has accepted visual separation from traffic does ATC retain wake turbulence separation?

A

No

96
Q

Under what conditions does a pilot receive a void time in a clearance?

A

If operating from an airport not served by an operating control tower.

97
Q

When is a procedure turn required?

A

When it is necessary to reverse course to establish aircraft on inboard course

98
Q

What is the maximum speed to be used I’m a procedure turn and within what distance from the fix?

A

200 knots and the specified distance, normally 10 miles

99
Q

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR check?

A

Date, place, bearing error, and signature in aircraft log

100
Q

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

A

VOR within the preceding 30 days and altimeter and transponder within the preceding 24 calendar months.

101
Q

What are the takeoff and landing runway requirements for part 135?

A

LANDING—With runways 4000 feet or less
Locate in the AFM (SUPPLEMENTAL SECTION) based on landing performance over a 50 feet obstacle,
CAN WE LAND within 60% of the runway available.
(Based on temperature and air density 310 will need between 2100 - 2500 feet depending on conditions)

TAKE-OFF—Accelerate STOP / Accelerate GO
TakeOff distance at departure airport allows a full acceleration to Vr, then a failure then enough length to stop.
Located in the AFM (SUPPLEMENTAL SECTION) based on takeoff performance over a 50 feet obstacle, (Based on temperature and air density).
CAN WE TAKEOFF within 60% of the runway available.

Calculation: TAKE AFM length required then take Runway Length Available (X by) 100 (X by) 60% = Supplemental Section of AFM length or less.

70% for ALTERNATES.

102
Q

Describe a TURBOCHARGER

A

Exhaust air is routed to a turbine which drives a compressor. Compressed air injected into cylinders.

103
Q

Landing gear difference between 310/401/414?

A

310 & 401 are electric, 414 is hydraulic

104
Q

What qualifies an ALTERNATE to be used?

A

If airport has 1 approach add 400 feet / 1 mile.

If the airport has 2 approaches add 200 feet / 1/2 mile to the highest minimums of the approaches.

105
Q

What are the OPERATIONAL RANGES of the 310/401/414?

A

310 – 27’’ MP MAX / range green arc 15”- 25”
401 – 34.5” MP MAX / range green arc 17” - 29” (not 100% sure)
414 – 38” MP MAX / range green arc 17” - 31.5”

106
Q

Can we depart into FREEZING RAIN?

A

NEVER

107
Q

What are the NAVIGATIONAL differences in the 310/401/414?

A

310/401 are LPV qualified, 414 in only LNAV

108
Q

If your MP” goes down during level flight, what maybe the problem and solution?

A

Less power, potentially less air.
Air inlet Filter freezing up.
Open Alternate Air Source

109
Q

What are the differences in aircraft ailerons?

A

310/401 same, 414 are interconnected.

For this reason, do not allow 414 to be TOWED with GUST LOCK in place.

110
Q

Minimum fuel for takeoff?

A

20 gallons per side

111
Q

What the TOTAL USABLE FUEL for the 401?

A

180 gallons (50, 50, (4) - 20)

TULIP CITY -- ALL SUBJECTS (6 decks)

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