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Histo Exam 1 > Written Exam One Q91 - Q120 > Flashcards

Written Exam One Q91 - Q120 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All of the following are functions of adult adipose tissue EXCEPT
    A. storage of energy in the form of neutral fats
    B. cushioning of sensitive organs and joints
    C. storage of energy in the form of glycogen
    D. thermal insulation in the skin
    E. cushioning of the soles of the feet and palms of the hand
A

C. storage of energy in the form of glycogen

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2
Q 
92. All of the following are connective tissues EXCEPT
A. blood
B. cartilage
C. lamina propria
D. capillary endothelium
E. bone marrow
A

D. capillary endothelium

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3
Q
  1. All of the following statements correctly describe the cells from which
    adipocytes are derived EXCEPT
    A. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
    B. monocytes that leave the circulation
    C. fibroblast-like cells with small lipid droplets and a thin external lamina
    D. lipoblasts
    E. cells that are morphologically indistinguishable from fibroblasts
A

B. monocytes that leave the circulation

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4
Q 
94. Electron micrographs of white adipose tissue would show all of the
following EXCEPT
A. a rich capillary network
B. numerous plasma cells
C. numerous unmyelinated nerves
D. a reticular fiber network
A

B. numerous plasma cells

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5
Q 
95. Hormones involved in various aspects of adipose tissue regulation and
function include which of the following?
A. thyroid hormone
B. glucocorticoids
C. insulin
D. norepinephrine
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

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6
Q 
96. Each of the following can be used to distinguish between a neutrophil
and a basophil, EXCEPT for:
A. Size of specific granules
B. Shape of the nucleus
C. Number of azurophilic granules
D. The presence or absence of peroxidase
E. The presence of mitochondria
A

E. The presence of mitochondria

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7
Q 
97. Which of the following cells is NOT derived from a myeloid stem cell?
A. eosinophil
B. lymphocyte
C. monocyte
D. adipocyte
E. macrophage
A

D. adipocyte

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8
Q 
98. Each of the following is true concerning cartilage EXCEPT:
A. avascular
B. lacks nerves and lymph vessels
C. high metabolic rate
D. high tensile strength
E. resilient and pliable
A

C. high metabolic rate

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9
Q 
99. Hyaline cartilage is found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. respiratory tree
B. articular surfaces
C. epiphyseal plates
D. provisional fetal skeleton
E. pinna (auricle) of ear
A

E. pinna (auricle) of ear

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10
Q
  1. Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage usually all have each of the
    following EXCEPT:
    A. lacunae
    B. isogenous groups
    C. territorial and interterritorial matrix
    D. sulfated glycosaminoglycans in the ECM
    E. perichondrium
A

E. perichondrium

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11
Q 
101. Which cell is the immediate precursor for formation of an osteoclast precursor?
A. CFU-GM
B. CFU-GEMM
C. osteoblast
D. osteoprogenitor cell
E. bone marrow stromal cell
A

A. CFU-GM

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12
Q 
102. OPG (osteoprotegerin) binds RANKL and inhibits the RANK-RANKL signaling mechanism that is needed for osteoclast differentiation and maturation. Which cell secretes OPG?
A. CFU-GM
B. CFU-GEMM
C. osteoblast
D. osteoprogenitor cell
E. bone marrow stromal cell
A

C. osteoblast

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13
Q 
103. Which cell is characterized by having a ruffled border in direct contact with a bone surface upon which it secretes protons and proteases active at an acid pH?
A. osteoprogenitor cells
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. CFU-GM
E. bone marrow stromal cell
A

C. osteoclasts

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14
Q
  1. Which statement concerning the extracellular matrix of cartilage tissue is TRUE?
    A. The high concentration of sulfated GAGs makes the extracellular matrix very hydrophobic
    B. Type II collagen is difficult to discern by light microscopy because it does not form large fiber bundles
    C. The interterritorial matrix contains the highest concentration of sulfated GAGs
    D. All the above
    E. “B” and “C” only
A

B. Type II collagen is difficult to discern by light microscopy because it does not form large fiber bundles

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15
Q
  1. Endosteum lines each of the following, EXCEPT:
    A. Haversian canals (central canals of an osteon)
    B. Volkmann’s canals (perforating canals)
    C. marrow cavity
    D. canaliculi
    E. trabeculae of spongy bone
A

D. canaliculi

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16
Q 
106. Which of the following occurs during endochondrial ossification?
A. proliferation of chondrocytes
B. hypertrophy of chondrocytes
C. death of chondrocytes
D. calcification of cartilage matrix
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

17
Q
  1. Which of the following is MISMATCHED?
    A. spongy bone : cancellous bone
    B. resorption (erosion) lacunae : ostoclast
    C. Volkmann’s canals : perforating canals
    D. woven bone : highly lamellar
    E. capable of cell division : osteoprogenitor cells
A

D. woven bone : highly lamellar

18
Q 
108. Osteoid is most closely associated with the biochemical activity of
A. osteoclasts
B. chondrocytes
C. osteoblasts
D. chondroblasts
E. osteocytes
A

C. osteoblasts

19
Q 
109. Which of the following processes has an osteoclast undergone?
A. Neither karyokinesis nor cytokinesis
B. Karyokinesis, but not cytokinesis
C. Cytokinesis, but not karyokinesis
D. Both karyokinesis and cytokinesis
A

A. Neither karyokinesis nor cytokinesis

20
Q 
110. The layered appearance of lamellar bone results from the regular
arrangement of
A. canaliculi
B. collagen
C. cement lines
D. hydroxyapatite
E. lacunae
A

E. lacunae

21
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE concerning osteoblasts?
    A. Osteoblasts can be found along actively forming surfaces of bone
    B. The lifespan of osteoblasts is extended by increased levels of estrogen
    C. Osteoblasts can modulate the maturation of osteoclasts by producing
    signaling molecules (e.g. Rank ligand and osteoprotegerin)
    D. Osteoblasts may differentiate into either bone lining cells or osteocytes
    E. All the above
A

E. All the above

22
Q
  1. Interstitial lamellae:
    A. May contain remnants of areas of circumferential lamellar bone
    B. May contain partial remnants of Haversian systems
    C. Will be more mineralized than the bone found in adjacent Haversian
    systems
    D. All the above
    E. “B” and “C” only
A

D. All the above

23
Q
  1. A mixed spicule of bone is defined as one that contains:
    A. Lamellar bone that surrounds a core of woven bone
    B. Woven bone that surrounds a calcified cartilage core
    C. Circumferential lamellar bone with Haversian systems at its core
    D. Both cortical and cancellous bone
A

B. Woven bone that surrounds a calcified cartilage core

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning the synovial membrane of a synovial joint:
    A. It is lined by an epithelium
    B. It lines all surfaces of the joint including the capsule and articular
    cartilage
    C. Its ‘Type B’ cells secrete synovial fluid
    D. Its connective tissue is avascular
    E. All the above
A

C. Its ‘Type B’ cells secrete synovial fluid

25
Q
  1. Which of the following properties is exhibited in all three types of cartilage?
    A. Involved in bone formation
    B. Has type I collagen
    C. Has type II collagen
    D. Grows interstitially and appositionally
    E. Has a perichondrium
A

C. Has type II collagen

26
Q 
116. The synovial fluid of a normal joint is usually devoid of collagen. Patients suffering from rheumatoid diseases were shown to contain a collagen in their synovial fluid that is characteristic of the tissue being damaged. If a patient has type II collagen in her synovial fluid, which of the following tissues is most likely being eroded?
A. vascular endothelium
B. compact bone
C. vascular smooth muscle
D. articular cartilage
E. synovial membrane
A

D. articular cartilage

27
Q 
117. Which of the following is ABSENT during intramembranous bone
formation?
A. osteoprogenitor cells
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. calcified cartilage
E. periosteum
A

D. calcified cartilage

28
Q 
118. Which cell produces the RANKL (RANK ligand) that binds to the cell
surface receptor molecule called RANK (receptor activator of nuclear factor
kappa B) on the osteoclast precursor?
A. CFU-GM
B. CFU-GEMM
C. osteoblast
D. osteoprogenitor cell
E. bone marrow stromal cell
A

E. bone marrow stromal cell

29
Q
  1. The development of nodules with germinal centers in the white pulp of the spleen is stimulated by:
    A. accumulation of worn-out RBCs
    B. foreign antigens carried in the blood
    C. accumulation of breakdown products of RBCs
    D. foreign antigens carried in the lymph
A

B. foreign antigens carried in the blood

30
Q 
120. The reticular cells of a lymph node most closely resemble:
A. macrophages
B. squamous epithelial cells
C. endothelial cells
D. smooth muscle cells
E. fibroblasts
A

E. fibroblasts

Histo Exam 1 (5 decks)

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