Written Exam One Q61 - Q90 Flashcards

1
Q
61. An immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cell is developmentally most
closely related to a
A. B lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. mast cell
D. colony-forming cell
E. T lymphocyte
A

A. B lymphocyte

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best characterizes macrophages?
    A. They are easily distinguished from fibroblasts in routine histologic slides
    B. They contain phosphatases, esterases, and proteases that digest
    phagocytized material
    C. They can readily digest carbon, cellulose, asbestos, and tubercle bacilli
    D. They originate from granulocytes that leave the circulation to divide and
    differentiate
    E. They are essential in wound healing because they secrete newly formed
    collagen
A

B. They contain phosphatases, esterases, and proteases that digest
phagocytized material

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes the connective tissue-epithelial interface?
    A. A basal lamina, formed in part by a nonfibrillar collagen, separates the two basic tissue types
    B. Hemidesmosomes may be observed between the epithelial cells and the underlying fibroblasts
    C. A basement membrane consisting of fibroblasts surrounded by a basal lamina forms a continuous sheet between the two tissues
    D. Tight junctions join the basal epithelial cells to collagen fibers in the underlying connective tissue
    E. A basal lamina establishes an impermeable barrier to movement of materials between the two tissues
A

A. A basal lamina, formed in part by a nonfibrillar collagen, separates the two basic tissue types

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding a cell synthesizing fibrillar
    collagen is most accurate?
    A. Its cytologic characteristics are those of a fibroblast
    B. It incorporates glycine and hydroxyproline at a high rate from the
    extracellular space
    C. It stores collagen fibrils in secretory vacuoles in the cytoplasm
    D. It does not synthesize any other component of the extracellular matrix
    E. It is a terminally differentiated cell
A

A. Its cytologic characteristics are those of a fibroblast

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes proteoglycans (PGs)
    of the connective tissue extracellular matrix?
    A. They are large proteins with small polysaccharide side chains
    B. They are one of the fibrous components of the extracellular matrix
    C. They are identical to glycoproteins of the extracellular matrix
    D. They consist of multiple large polysaccharides attached to a protein core
    E. They are made up exclusively of repeating units of glucose and galactose
A

D. They consist of multiple large polysaccharides attached to a protein core

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6
Q
66. The presence or absence of which one of the following structures or
secretions can be used to distinguish blood basophils and connective tissue
mast cells?
A. Histamine
B. Basal lamina
C. Heparin
D. Cytoplasmic granules
E. Lobulated or oval nucleus
A

E. Lobulated or oval nucleus

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7
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning connective tissue are correct EXCEPT
    A. a general characteristic of connective tissue is an extensive extracellular space
    B. connective tissue may be classified as regular or irregular based on the arrangement of collagen fibers
    C. complex intercellular junctions between fibroblasts separate connective tissue from the other basic tissues
    D. one component of connective tissue is extracellular fibers that have cross-striations not visible with light microscopy
    E. macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, adipose cells, and undifferentiated mesenchymal cells constitute the resident cell population
A

C. complex intercellular junctions between fibroblasts separate connective tissue from the other basic tissues

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8
Q
  1. All of the following statements concerning collagen are correct EXCEPT
    A. it is a family of related glycoproteins
    B. it is a major component of the cytoskeleton
    C. it is not synthesized correctly in the absence of vitaminC
    D. it is synthesized by fibroblasts, epithelial cells, and muscle cells
    E. it has a tensile strength that approximates that of steel
A

B. it is a major component of the cytoskeleton

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9
Q
  1. All of the following statements about collagen are correct EXCEPT
    A. it is rich in hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine
    B. it is rich in glycine
    C. it has a triple-helical configuration
    D. it is rich in sulfur-containing amino acids
    E. it has an extremely high tensile strength in its fibrous form
A

D. it is rich in sulfur-containing amino acids

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10
Q
70. Which glycoprotein organizes elastin into fibers?
A. fibronectin
B. laminin
C. fibrillin
D. collagen VII
E. integrin
A

C. fibrillin

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11
Q
  1. Consider the receptor for fibronectin. Which of the following is TRUE?
    A. Found only within the lamina densa of the basal lamina
    B. A cross-shaped glycoprotein
    C. Links the cytoskeleton inside of the cell with the extracellular matrix outside of the cell
    D. A member of the cadherin protein family
    E. Component of the zonula adherens of epithelial cells
A

C. Links the cytoskeleton inside of the cell with the extracellular matrix outside of the cell

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE concerning hyaluronic acid?
    A. a component o elastic fibers
    B. a glycosaminoglycan
    C. a proteoglycan with a shape resembling a bottle brush
    D. highly sulfated
    E. a small molecule
A

B. a glycosaminoglycan

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following events in collagen synthesis occurs outside of the
    cell?
    A. synthesis of preprocollagen
    B. hydroxylation of lysine residues
    C. triple-helix formation
    D. carbohydrate addition to procollagen
    E. cleavage of procollagen by procollagen peptidases
A

E. cleavage of procollagen by procollagen peptidases

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14
Q
  1. Scurvy, due to a deficiency of vitamin C, is characterized by impaired wound healing, bone formation and loosening of teeth in their sockets. This is because vitamin C is an essential co-factor for:
    A. cleavage of the amino-terminal signal sequence from preprocollagen
    B. hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in procollagen within the rER
    C. glycosylation of specific hydroxylysine residues in procollagen within the rER
    D. formation of a triple helix by three α procollagen chains
    E. None of the above is true.
A

B. hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in procollagen within the rER

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15
Q
75. Which of the following cells are capable of synthesizing elastic fibers?
I. fibroblasts
II. arterial smooth muscle cells
III. chondroblasts / chondrocytes
IV. adipocytes
A. I, II, and III only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only
E. None of the above
A

A. I, II, and III only

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16
Q
76. Which cell(s) have/has high affinity receptors for the Fc portion of IgE on their plasmalemma?
I. mast cells
II. eosinophils
III. basophils
IV. adipocytes
A. I, II, and III only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only
E. None of the above
A

B. I and III only

17
Q
  1. RBCs in adult birds, frogs and very early embryonic humans have nuclei
    while those of adult humans lack nuclei.
    A. true
    B. false
A

A. true

18
Q
  1. What is the function of thermogenin in brown adipose tissue?
    A. electron transport through the mitochondrial inner membrane
    B. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation and generates more heat
    C. all of the above
    D. none of the above
A

B. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation and generates more heat

19
Q
79. Leptin is produced by:
A. stratified squamous epithelia
B. hyaline cartilage
C. unilocular adipocytes
D. osteoblasts
E. All of the above.
A

C. unilocular adipocytes

20
Q
80. Which of the following is most frequently noted in a sample of
peripheral blood?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Platelets
A

A. Erythrocytes

21
Q
81. The precursor cell of a macrophage in dense irregular CT is a
A. lipocyte
B. macrocyte
C. neutrophil
D. monocyte
E. lymphocyte
A

D. monocyte

22
Q
82. A developing erythrocyte and a developing neutrophil in red bone marrow may be differentiated from one another by the presence of
A. Golgi apparatus
B. specific granules
C. mitochondria
D. peroxisomes
E. rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER)
A

B. specific granules

23
Q
  1. Which of the following describes an erythroblastic islet?
    A. collection of mature erythrocytes within a marrow vascular sinus
    B. assortment of various stages of erythroblastic development in association with a marrow macrophage
    C. associations between adventitial reticular cells, adipocytes and hematopoietic cells that regulate marrow space available for erythropoiesis
    D. collections of cells responsive to erythropoietin within the cytoplasm of marrow macrophages
A

B. assortment of various stages of erythroblastic development in association with a marrow macrophage

24
Q
84. The CFU-GEMM is a precursor cell for all of the following, except:
A. erythrocyte
B. lymphocyte
C. neutrophil
D. eosinophil
E. megakaryocyte
A

B. lymphocyte

25
Q
85. Which one of the following hematopoietic cells of red bone marrow is postmitotic?
A. Myelocyte
B. Basophilic erythroblast
C. Band cell
D. Promyelocyte
E. Polychromatophilic erythroblast
A

C. Band cell

26
Q
86. Which of the following is most frequently noted in a sample of peripheral blood?
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils
E. Platelets
A

E. Platelets

27
Q
87. The greatest amount of nuclear DNA per cell in hematopoietic tissue is observed in
A. promyelocytes
B. metamyelocytes
C. reticulocytes
D. megakaryocytes
E. proerythroblasts
A

D. megakaryocytes

28
Q
  1. Which of the following lists of blood cell types is arranged in the sequence of most frequently to least frequently encountered cells in a smear of normal peripheral blood?
    A. Red blood cell (RBC), neutrophil, lymphocyte, basophil, monocyte, eosinophil
    B. Lymphocyte, neutrophil, RBC, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil
    C. RBC, neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil
    D. Neutrophil, RBC, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil
    E. RBC, lymphocyte, neutrophil, monocyte, basophil, eosinophil
A

C. RBC, neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil

29
Q
89. The azurophilic granules of a neutrophil are which of the following cellular elements?
A. Phagosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Peroxisomes
D. Residual bodies
E. Lysosomes
A

E. Lysosomes

30
Q
  1. Loss of the nucleus from an erythroblast occurs between which two stages of erythropoiesis?
    A. Proerythroblast-basophilic erythroblast
    B. Basophilic erythroblast-polychromatophilic erythroblast
    C. Polychromatophilic erythroblast-normoblast (orthochromatophilic erythroblast)
    D. Normoblast (orthochromatophilic erythroblast)-reticulocyte (polychromatophilic erythrocyte)
    E. Reticulocyte(polychromatophilic erythrocyte)-erythrocyte
A

D. Normoblast (orthochromatophilic erythroblast)-reticulocyte (polychromatophilic erythrocyte)